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Renal
Renal – 2025
The Renal Module Exam Conducted on 10th November 2025
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Think about which structure acts like a “downstream exit tunnel” after urine leaves the funnel.
1 / 75
Category: Renal – Anatomy
A 40-year-old man presents with dull pain in the right flank. After investigation there is a stone lodged in the renal pelvis. Which of the following structures is directly continuous with the renal pelvis?
https://www.kenhub.com/en/library/anatomy/renal-pelvis
The renal pelvis is the funnel-shaped upper expansion of the ureter. It collects urine from the major calyces and narrows down to continue as the ureter.
The renal pelvis directly tapers into the ureter at the hilum.
This is the structure that carries urine from the kidney to the bladder.
In renal stones, this is exactly where obstruction often occurs at the ureteropelvic junction (UPJ).
This is a medullary structure containing loops of Henle and collecting ducts.
It drains into the minor calyx, not into the pelvis.
It is deep inside the kidney, nowhere near the direct continuation.
This is simply cortical tissue between pyramids.
It transports NO urine and connects to NO collecting system.
It is supportive tissue, not part of the drainage pathway.
The major calyx drains into the renal pelvis, but it does not continue from it.
Instead, multiple major calyces unite to form the pelvis — not the other way around.
This is the first site that collects urine from renal papillae.
Minor → Major → Pelvis → Ureter
So it is two steps upstream from the renal pelvis, not continuous after it.
Think about the narrowest checkpoint the urine must pass through before finally entering its storage chamber.
2 / 75
A 45-year-old male presents in OPD with complaint of severe pain on the left side of abdomen radiating to the left groin. Radiographic examination revealed kidney stone. The stone is most likely lodged at which of the following constrictions of the ureter?
The ureter has three natural constrictions where stones commonly get stuck:
Ureteropelvic junction (UPJ) – between renal pelvis & ureter
Pelvic brim – where ureter crosses the external iliac artery
Ureterovesical junction (UVJ) – where ureter enters bladder wall (Narrowest)
The narrowest and therefore most common site of obstruction → UVJ
This is the ureterovesical junction (UVJ).
It is the tightest constriction of the ureter.
Most stones that reach this far tend to get lodged here.
Classic presentation: pain radiating to the groin, due to involvement of L1–L2 dermatomes.
This is where collecting ducts open into the minor calyx.
It is not a constriction of the ureter.
Stones don’t lodge here; they lodge in calyces or ureter.
No such anatomical constriction exists here.
The artery and vein do not sandwich the ureter.
This is a real constriction and stone can lodge here,BUT → it’s not the most likely site.
The pelvic brim is the second most common location.
This is NOT a ureteric constriction.
This area is part of the collecting system, not the ureter’s diameter changes.
The actual constriction is between renal pelvis and ureter (UPJ), not major calyces.
7 55-year-old man with right lower quadrant pain
Think of the smallest branches just before blood enters the tiny filters in the outer region.
3 / 75
Which of the following arteries directly supplies the renal cortex?
By OpenStax College – Anatomy & Physiology, Connexions Web site. http://cnx.org/content/col11496/1.6/, Jun 19, 2013., CC BY 3.0, https://commons.wikimedia.org/w/index.php?curid=30148537
Blood reaches the renal cortex through a branching sequence:Renal → Segmental → Interlobar → Arcuate → Interlobular → Afferent arteriole → Glomerulus
The interlobular arteries run through the cortex and give rise to afferent arterioles, which directly supply the glomeruli of the cortex.
These are the final arterial branches before the afferent arterioles.
They run upward into the cortex between the lobules.
They directly supply cortical tissue, especially the glomeruli.
These supply the renal sinus / major regions, not the cortex.
They do not reach the cortex directly.
These run between renal pyramids (in the medulla).
They only reach the bases of the pyramids, not the cortex.
These arch along the corticomedullary junction.
They give rise to interlobular arteries but do not directly enter the cortex themselves.
This is the main supply entering the kidney.
It branches multiple times before anything reaches the cortex.
Think about which lymph nodes lie along the vessel that continues down the pelvis, just after the main arterial split.
4 / 75
Patakha Padri, A 60-year-old male is diagnosed with a carcinoma involving the superior part of the urinary bladder. To which lymph nodes will the cancer cells most likely spread first?
Lymphatic drainage of the urinary bladder depends on the region involved:
Superior bladder → External iliac nodes
Inferior bladder (neck, trigone) → Internal iliac nodes
Posterior bladder → May drain to common iliac nodes
Very advanced disease → Para-aortic nodes
Superficial inguinal nodes → only perineal skin, glans, distal urethra — not bladder
Since this patient has a superior bladder carcinoma, the first lymph nodes involved are external iliac nodes.
Drain superior portions of the bladder.
Located along the external iliac vessels.
Most common first site of metastasis in superior bladder cancers.
Drain external genitalia, perineum, lower abdominal wall.
Do NOT drain any part of the bladder.
Drain inferior bladder (neck, trigone).
Not the primary drainage for the superior part.
Receive lymph after external or internal iliac nodes.
Involvement occurs later, not first.
Very advanced spread — kidneys, testes drain here, not bladder initially.
Not the first station for bladder cancer metastasis.
Think of the part that dips downward like fingers separating the triangular regions.
5 / 75
During a dissection session, a 1st-year medical student observes a coronal section of the kidney and notices wedge-shaped extensions of cortical tissue projecting between adjacent medullary pyramids. These structures are labelled as the renal columns of Bertin.
Which of the following statements best defines these renal columns?
Renal columns (Columns of Bertin) are extensions of the renal cortex that project downward between adjacent medullary pyramids.They provide support and contain interlobar vessels.
Renal columns are made of cortical tissue, not medulla.
They dip between the pyramids, reaching toward the renal sinus.
Contain interlobar arteries & veins.
Nephrons begin in the cortex at the renal corpuscle.
The renal column does not mark a starting point for nephrons.
This is the opposite of what happens.
Medulla → pyramids
Cortex → columns
Renal columns are cortex extending down, not medulla moving up.
That describes a renal lobule, not a renal column.
Lobules revolve around a collecting duct → very different structure.
PCT and DCT are convoluted parts, but they are located within the cortex, not isolated in renal columns.
Renal columns are structural supports, not tubular segments.
Think of the one tiny bridge between pelvis and perineum — short, tight, and guarded.
6 / 75
A male patient requires urethral catheterization for urinary retention. The procedure is complicated by resistance and pain upon attempting to pass the catheter through a short, non-dilatable segment surrounded by the external sphincter muscle. Which part of the male urethra is the instrument most likely encountering resistance in?
The membranous urethra is the shortest, narrowest, least dilatable part of the male urethra. It passes through the external urethral sphincter, making catheterization difficult and commonly causing resistance + pain.
Shortest (≈1 cm) and narrowest segment
Surrounded by the external urethral sphincter (voluntary muscle)
Least distensible part → exactly matches “short, non-dilatable segment”
Common site of resistance during catheterization
Trauma here can cause extravasation into the deep perineal pouch
It is the widest and most dilatable segment.
Surrounded by prostate, not the external sphincter.
Catheter usually passes easily through this region.
Longest part and very distensible due to corpus spongiosum.
Resistance here is uncommon unless strictures are present.
Slight natural narrowing but located at the glans, not deep pelvic area.
Resistance here causes discomfort at the tip, not deep pain.
Located at the neck of the bladder and composed of smooth muscle.
It is not the narrowest region and does not cause this typical resistance.
Also, internal sphincter is not part of the urethra itself.
Think of the last, tightest doorway the urine must pass before entering storage.
7 / 75
A patient comes in emergency with complaint of severe pain in back radiating to spine. On investigation CT scan reveals radiopaque shadow at the level of ischial spine. Physician diagnosed a stone, blocking the lumen at the narrowest part of ureter.
The following is the narrowest part of ureter:
The narrowest part of the ureter is the ureterovesical junction (UVJ) — where the ureter pierces the wall of the urinary bladder.This is the most common site where stones get lodged.
The CT level of ischial spine corresponds to the pelvis, close to the bladder entry—matching UVJ obstruction.
Narrowest point of the entire ureter.
Stones most frequently get stuck here.
Located near the ischial spine level on imaging.
Pain may radiate into groin due to L1–L2 segments.
This is a constriction, but not the narrowest.
Located near the kidney, not at ischial spine level.
Second potential constriction where ureter crosses external iliac artery.
Still not the narrowest.
This is simply where the ductus crosses the ureter (“water under the bridge”).
NOT a constriction.
Not relevant to stone impaction.
This refers to the ureteral opening inside the bladder, after the UVJ.
Stones rarely lodge here since they must already pass the tight UVJ.
Think about the structure that forms once the cloaca splits and gives rise to future lower urinary organs.
8 / 75
Category: Renal – Embryology
The urinary bladder develops primarily from which embryonic structure?
The urinary bladder develops mainly from the vesical part of the urogenital sinus, which arises after the cloaca is divided by the urorectal septum.
This part forms almost the entire bladder, except the trigone region (which is mesonephric duct–derived initially but gets overgrown).
Forms most of the urinary bladder (epithelium + mucosa).
Specifically, the superior and main body of the bladder.
Smooth muscle of the bladder wall forms from splanchnic mesoderm, but the epithelium is from the urogenital sinus.
Only contributes temporarily to the trigone region.
Later, trigone becomes overgrown by endoderm of the urogenital sinus.
It does NOT form the whole bladder.
This forms nephrons of the definitive kidney, not the bladder.
No part of the bladder is derived from this tissue.
This is merely the membrane covering the cloaca (ectoderm + endoderm).
It ruptures to create openings but does not form the bladder itself.
The allantois becomes the urachus, then the median umbilical ligament.
Only forms the apex of the bladder’s fibrous connection, not the bladder body.
Think about a major vessel that sits like a horizontal “gate” around L3.
9 / 75
Definitely Not Carlos Sainz, A 22-year-old man undergoes abdominal imaging after a minor F1 car accident. The scan incidentally reveals that both kidneys are fused at their lower poles, forming a U-shaped structure located lower than usual in the abdomen. Which of the following structures most likely prevented this fused kidney from ascending to its normal position during development?
A horseshoe kidney forms when the lower poles of the kidneys fuse.During ascent, the fused kidney gets trapped under the inferior mesenteric artery, preventing it from reaching its normal lumbar position.
The IMA arises at L3, exactly where the fused lower poles of a horseshoe kidney get blocked.
This is the classic and most tested cause of failed kidney ascent.
As a result, the kidney remains low in the abdomen, usually around L3–L5.
Lies to the right of the aorta and does not obstruct midline ascent.
No classical association with horseshoe kidney.
Originates much higher (L1).
By the time the kidney reaches this level, the ascent would already have been blocked earlier if fused.
Occurs at L4, below the IMA.
The kidney would already have been blocked earlier at the IMA — this is too low to be responsible.
Arises at the posterior aspect of the aortic bifurcation.
Too small and too low to impede ascent.
Think of the condition where the bladder ends up outside because the front wall didn’t form properly.
10 / 75
During the physical examination of a male neonate, it was observed that the urethra opened on the dorsal surface of the penis and the urinary bladder protrudes onto the abdominal wall.
What is the most likely diagnosis of this congenital condition?
Image Reference :- https://www.mayoclinic.org/diseases-conditions/bladder-exstrophy/symptoms-causes/syc-20391299
When the urethra opens on the dorsal surface AND the bladder is exposed/protruding onto the abdominal wall, this combination strongly indicates bladder exstrophy — a severe defect of the ventral body wall + pelvic region caused by abnormal closure of the anterior abdominal wall and failure of mesoderm migration.
Epispadias is part of bladder exstrophy, but when the bladder is open externally, the diagnosis becomes exstrophy of the bladder.
Caused by failure of the lateral body wall folds to close properly.
Characterized by:
Dorsal opening of urethra (epispadias)
Exposure of bladder mucosa on the abdominal wall
This is the classical presentation described in the question.
Urethral opening is on the ventral (underside) of penis.
No bladder involvement.
Opposite orientation from what is described.
Urethral opening is on the dorsal surface, correct
BUT there is no protruding bladder in isolated epispadias.
When bladder protrudes → it is not just epispadias anymore → it is bladder exstrophy.
More severe than bladder exstrophy.
Includes imperforate anus, omphalocele-like defects, and exposure of both urinary & intestinal mucosa.
Not described here.
Completely unrelated to bladder or urethral opening defects.
No genital surface malformation of this type.
Think of the condition where the kidneys never formed, leading to almost no fetal urine at all.
11 / 75
A newborn presents with respiratory distress and flattened facial features. Ultrasound shows absence of both kidneys and severe oligohydramnios during pregnancy. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Bilateral renal agenesis → complete absence of both kidneys, causing severe oligohydramnios, which leads to Potter sequence:
Respiratory distress (lung hypoplasia)
Flattened facial features (“Potter facies”)
Limb deformities
This is a classic presentation.
No kidneys → almost no fetal urine → severe oligohydramnios
Oligohydramnios causes lung hypoplasia, leading to respiratory distress.
Characteristic flattened face, low-set ears, limb deformities = Potter sequence.
Always associated with very poor prognosis.
Kidneys are small but present.
Does not cause complete absence of urine → oligohydramnios would not be severe enough to produce classic Potter features.
Kidneys are enlarged with cysts, not absent.
Oligohydramnios may occur in autosomal recessive PKD, but kidneys are visible on ultrasound.
Kidney(s) are present but misplaced (pelvic kidney).
Amniotic fluid remains normal.
No facial or pulmonary abnormalities.
Kidney is present but dilated.
Does NOT cause severe oligohydramnios unless bilateral and extreme — still kidneys visible.
Think about which organ must stretch the most when it fills.
12 / 75
Category: Renal – Histology
Ather Morgani of Cholistan, A histologist observed an organ of the urinary system that was lined by transitional epithelium with thick layer on muscles underneath. The lumen of the organ was highly folded. Most likely the organ was:
https://www.histology.leeds.ac.uk/urinary/bladder.php
An organ with transitional epithelium (urothelium) + a thick muscle coat + highly folded lumen is characteristic of the urinary bladder, especially when empty.
The folds (rugae) allow distension as it fills.
Lined by transitional epithelium
Has very thick smooth muscle layer (detrusor muscle)
Highly folded lumen when empty → hallmarks of urinary bladder histology
The organ’s function requires extreme expansion and contraction.
Lined mostly by simple cuboidal epithelium (tubules).
No transitional epithelium lining large cavities.
Cortical/medullary patterns—not thick smooth muscle walls.
Does have transitional epithelium,
BUT muscle layer is moderately thick, not as massive as the bladder.
Lumen is less folded and usually appears star-shaped.
Epithelium varies:
Transitional → pseudostratified columnar → stratified squamous.
Does not have such a thick smooth muscle coat.
Folds not as prominent and lumen shape is irregular.
Microscopic unit, not a gross organ.
Lined by various epithelium types (simple squamous, cuboidal).
No transitional epithelium + no thick muscular wall.
13 / 75
A histology slide of the kidney shows cuboidal epithelial cells with tight junctions, located in a region responsible for urine concentration. Which of the following parts of the kidney is likely being observed?
https://medcell.org/histology/urinary_system_lab/collecting_ducts.php
https://histology.siu.edu/crr/RN009b.htm
1. Histological Appearance (Cuboidal with Distinct Boundaries)
Cell Shape: The collecting duct is lined by simple cuboidal epithelium (which can become columnar in the deeper medullary regions).
Tight Junctions (Distinct Borders): Under light microscopy, the cells of the collecting duct (specifically the Principal Cells) are often described as having distinct cell boundaries. This is a key differentiator from the convoluted tubules (PCT and DCT), where the extensive interdigitations of the lateral membranes make the cell borders appear indistinct or absent. These distinct boundaries correspond to the tight junctions that are crucial for the duct’s regulated permeability.
Cytoplasm: The cytoplasm is typically pale-staining (clear) compared to the eosinophilic (pink) cytoplasm of the proximal and distal tubules.
2. Physiological Function (Urine Concentration)
The question specifies a “region responsible for urine concentration.” While the Loop of Henle creates the hyperosmotic gradient, the Collecting Duct is the site where the final concentration of urine actually occurs.
Under the influence of ADH (Vasopressin), aquaporins are inserted into the apical membranes of these cells, allowing water to be reabsorbed into the hypertonic medullary interstitium, thus concentrating the urine.
Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT):
Histology: While cuboidal, these cells have a prominent brush border (microvilli) which fills the lumen, and the cell boundaries are indistinct due to basolateral interdigitations.
Junctions: The tight junctions here are actually “leaky” to allow paracellular transport of water and ions.
Function: Responsible for bulk reabsorption (isomotic), not the final concentration of urine.
Loop of Henle (Thick Ascending Limb):
Histology: Cuboidal cells with indistinct borders (similar to DCT).
Function: This is known as the “Diluting Segment.” Although it creates the medullary gradient necessary for concentration, the fluid leaving this segment is actually hypotonic (dilute) because it actively pumps out salts while being impermeable to water.
Junctions: It does have very tight junctions (to maintain water impermeability), but the “diluting” function and indistinct borders usually make it a less likely answer than the CD for this specific description.
Distal Convoluted Tubule (DCT):
Location: Located in the cortex, not the medullary region primarily associated with the concentration gradient.
Histology: Cuboidal cells with no brush border, but cytoplasm is eosinophilic and borders are less distinct than in the collecting duct.
Bowman’s Capsule:
Histology: The parietal layer is simple squamous epithelium, not cuboidal. The visceral layer consists of podocytes.
Think of the segment that pulls salts out but refuses to let water follow — what does that do to the fluid?
14 / 75
Category: Renal – Physiology
What is the tonicity of urine as it enters the renal collecting duct?
By the time the filtrate reaches the distal convoluted tubule → connecting tubule → collecting duct, it has passed through the thick ascending limb, which is impermeable to water but actively removes Na⁺, K⁺, and Cl⁻.
This makes the tubular fluid hypotonic before it enters the collecting duct — always.
Whether it becomes concentrated afterward depends on ADH, but entry fluid is always hypotonic.
Thick ascending limb (TAL) removes solutes but keeps water inside → dilutes filtrate.
DCT continues diluting effects.
Therefore, filtrate arriving at collecting duct is hypotonic (~100 mOsm/L).
ADH will later make it concentrated inside the collecting duct — but not before entry.
Impossible.
The TAL cannot concentrate filtrate (impermeable to water).
Fluid entering CD is always dilute, not concentrated.
Opposite of reality.
The entire purpose of ascending limb is to make fluid less concentrated.
The filtrate becomes isotonic at the end of PCT,
But after ascending limb, it becomes hypotonic, not isotonic.
True only earlier in PCT, not at the entry to collecting duct.
Multiply what leaves the kidney by how fast it leaves… then see how plasma compares.
15 / 75
Using the following values, calculate the clearance of “x”: V = 2 ml/min; U = 0.5 mg/ml; P = 1 mg/ml
Clearance (C) is calculated by:
C = (U × V) / P
Given: U = 0.5 mg/mlV = 2 ml/minP = 1 mg/ml
Substitute: C = (0.5 × 2) / 1C = 1 ml/min
Think of the spinal-level “starter switch” that makes the bladder contract on its own.
16 / 75
Which neural component initiates the micturition reflex?
https://www.sciencedirect.com/topics/immunology-and-microbiology/parasympathetic-ganglion
The micturition reflex (the basic spinal reflex for urination) is initiated by stretch receptors in the bladder wall, which activate parasympathetic neurons from S2–S4.
These sacral parasympathetic fibers cause:
Detrusor muscle contraction
Internal sphincter relaxation
This is the core initiator of the micturition reflex.
Higher centers only modulate the reflex, not initiate it.
They receive the stretch input from the bladder.
They send the first efferent impulses that contract the detrusor muscle.
This is the essential reflex arc that begins micturition.
Provides voluntary control, especially conscious inhibition.
It modulates but does not initiate the reflex.
Facilitates urine storage, not voiding.
Inhibits sacral parasympathetics.
Somatic fibers (S2–S4) supplying external urethral sphincter.
They maintain continence but do not initiate the micturition reflex.
Promote storage
Relax detrusor
Constrict internal sphincter
Opposite of initiation.
Think about which mechanism lets the kidney “trap” hydrogen ions by combining them with urinary buffers.
17 / 75
In metabolic acidosis, which response is most characteristic of renal adaptation?
https://www.jaypeedigital.com/book/9789352701148/chapter/ch20
In metabolic acidosis, the kidney must increase acid excretion and generate new bicarbonate.It does so mainly by:
↑ NH₄⁺ excretion
↑ Titratable acid formation (H₂PO₄⁻)
↑ Glutamine metabolism → NH₄⁺ + new HCO₃⁻
↓ Urine pH
So the most characteristic response among the options is increased titratable acid formation.
Kidneys secrete more H⁺ into the lumen.
This H⁺ binds urinary buffers like phosphate → titratable acids.
This is a key mechanism for regenerating new bicarbonate during metabolic acidosis.
Highly characteristic and always increased.
WRONG direction.
In acidosis, NH₄⁺ excretion increases, not decreases.
Ammonium excretion is one of the most important acid-removal mechanisms.
In metabolic acidosis, plasma HCO₃⁻ is low, so filtered load also decreases.
The kidney instead creates new HCO₃⁻.
Opposite of what happens.
Urine becomes more acidic (LOW pH) due to increased H⁺ secretion.
In acidosis, glutamine metabolism increases to produce:
NH₄⁺ for excretion
New HCO₃⁻ for blood
Reduced metabolism would worsen acidosis.
Think of the nephron’s fine-tuning segment — the one that adjusts calcium like a last-minute editor.
18 / 75
Which tubular segment reabsorbs Ca²⁺ under control of PTH?
http://www.nephjc.com/dct
Parathyroid hormone (PTH) increases Ca²⁺ reabsorption mainly in the distal convoluted tubule (DCT) via:
Upregulating TRPV5 Ca²⁺ channels
Increasing calbindin
Enhancing Na⁺/Ca²⁺ exchanger activity
This makes the DCT the primary PTH-regulated site of Ca²⁺ handling.
Strong PTH responsiveness
Main regulated site for fine-tuning Ca²⁺ reabsorption
Responsible for preventing urinary calcium loss
Uses active transport, not just diffusion
Minimal Ca²⁺ handling
Not responsive to PTH for calcium regulation
Reabsorbs most Ca²⁺ (~65%),
BUT this is passive and not controlled by PTH
PTH inhibits phosphate here, not Ca²⁺
Reabsorbs ~25% Ca²⁺ via paracellular route
Influenced by NKCC2 and lumen positivity,
Not the primary PTH-regulated site
Mainly permeable to water, not ions
No major Ca²⁺ transport role
Think of the nephron segment that quietly lets salts slip out but never allows water to follow.
19 / 75
Which part of the renal tubule is impermeable to water, while solutes (Na, Cl) pass out passively into the medullary interstitial space?
Along the Loop of Henle:
Descending limb → permeable to water, NOT solutes
Thin ascending limb → impermeable to water, solutes leave passively
Thick ascending limb → impermeable to water, but solutes leave actively (NKCC2)
The question specifically states passive movement of Na⁺ and Cl⁻ → this uniquely matches the thin ascending limb.
Impermeable to water
Passive NaCl diffusion into interstitium
Helps build medullary osmotic gradient
No active transport systems here
Permeable to water, not to solutes
Opposite of what the question states
Mostly active ion transport (NaCl cotransporter)
Water permeability depends on ADH
Not characteristic passive NaCl movement
Highly permeable to water AND solutes
Not selectively impermeable to water
Impermeable to water (correct)
BUT Na⁺, K⁺, Cl⁻ leave actively via the NKCC2 transporter
Not passive → does not match question
REABSORPTION & SECRETION IN LOOP OF HENLE
Think about the nephron’s “first chance” to pull back everything valuable before it’s lost forever.
20 / 75
Which of the following processes occurs predominantly in the proximal convoluted tubule?
https://www.osmosis.org/learn/Proximal_convoluted_tubule
The proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) is the nephron’s main reabsorptive powerhouse.It reabsorbs:
100% of glucose
100% of amino acids
65–70% of Na⁺ and water
Most bicarbonate
This is the signature function of the PCT.
Occurs exclusively in the PCT
Via SGLT2 (glucose) and various amino acid cotransporters
Highly active, energy-dependent, and specific
No other nephron segment performs this
H⁺ secretion in the PCT is mostly linked to Na⁺/H⁺ antiport (NHE3)
Cl⁻ reabsorption occurs, but not via a coupled H⁺ mechanism like in the DCT/CD
Happens in collecting duct (principal cells)
Under control of aldosterone
Not in the PCT
Occurs mainly in the thin limbs of the loop of Henle
NOT the PCT
The PCT reabsorbs NaCl actively, not passively driven by urea.
ADH acts on the late DCT and collecting duct
Water reabsorption in PCT is obligatory, NOT ADH-dependent.
Think about how the kidney “hits the brakes” when it senses the flow is too fast.
21 / 75
If the macula densa senses increased Na⁺ and Cl⁻ concentration in the tubular fluid, which renal response will most likely occur?
When the macula densa detects high Na⁺ and Cl⁻ in the distal tubule, it interprets this as GFR being too high.
To protect the nephron from excessive filtrate flow, it triggers tubuloglomerular feedback, resulting in:
Adenosine release → Afferent arteriole constriction → ↓ GFR
This is the classical physiological response.
High NaCl = high flow → macula densa releases adenosine
Adenosine acts on A1 receptors
Causes afferent arteriole vasoconstriction
Reduces GFR back toward normal
This is the hallmark of the tubuloglomerular feedback mechanism.
Occurs when NaCl is low, not high.
That situation aims to increase GFR, opposite of this question.
Low ATP occurs with low NaCl, not high.
Increased GFR is opposite of the needed correction.
NO is released when NaCl is low, helping increase GFR.
High NaCl → NO decreases.
High NaCl inhibits renin, reducing RAAS activity.
Renin increases only when NaCl is low.
22 / 75
Which mechanism best explains why GFR falls when mean arterial pressure drops below 70 mmHg?
The kidney autoregulates GFR between MAP 80–180 mmHg using:
Myogenic mechanism (afferent arteriole stretch response)
Tubuloglomerular feedback
When MAP falls below ~70 mmHg, autoregulation fails because the afferent arteriole cannot dilate any further → GFR drops sharply.
This is the classic explanation.
Myogenic reflex keeps GFR stable only within its working range.
Below a critical MAP (≈70 mmHg), the afferent arteriole maxes out its dilation, and the mechanism fails.
Result → renal perfusion drops → GFR falls.
This is the primary physiological reason for the drop.
Decreased adenosine → afferent dilation → increases GFR.
Not responsible for the fall at low MAP.
Sympathetic activity can reduce GFR,
BUT the question asks why GFR falls when MAP drops below autoregulatory range → the core issue is loss of autoregulation, not sympathetic tone.
PGE₂ actually helps preserve GFR during low perfusion by dilating afferent arteriole.
So this would oppose the fall, not cause it.
Would reduce GFR, but this is not the mechanism involved in the autoregulatory lower limit.
Myogenic failure is the key.
Glomerular Filtration
Think of the deepest part of the nephron where a certain hormone unlocks the final step of concentrating urine using urea.
23 / 75
Urea reabsorption through urea transporter proteins UT-A1 and UT-A3 occurs predominantly in which nephron segment?
Urea transporters UT-A1 and UT-A3 are located in the inner medullary collecting duct (IMCD).Here, ADH increases their activity, allowing large amounts of urea to leave the tubular fluid → contributing to the medullary osmotic gradient for urine concentration.
Main site of urea reabsorption via UT-A1 and UT-A3
Strongly stimulated by ADH, especially during dehydration
Critical for creating a hyperosmotic medulla
Very little urea reabsorption
Has virtually no UT-A1 or UT-A3 activity
Does not handle urea reabsorption
Focuses on Na⁺, Ca²⁺, and water handling (with hormonal control)
Permeable to NaCl, not urea
Urea does not significantly move here
Permeable to water, not to urea
Passive water movement only
Think of squeezing the exit of a pipe — pressure rises upstream before flow eventually falls.
24 / 75
An increase in efferent arteriolar resistance within physiological limits causes which of the following effects?
When efferent arteriolar resistance increases slightly (within physiological limits), blood backs up in the glomerular capillaries → increasing glomerular hydrostatic pressure.
This leads to:
↑ GFR
↓ RBF
↑ Filtration Fraction (GFR/RPF)
If efferent constriction becomes too strong, GFR will eventually fall — but the question clearly says within physiological limits, meaning the initial phase where GFR rises.
Mild efferent constriction → ↑ pressure upstream → ↑ GFR
RPF falls because resistance increased
Since GFR rises and RPF falls → FF increases
Textbook physiology pattern
Happens only with severe efferent constriction (not within normal limits).
The question specifies physiological limits, so this is incorrect.
Efferent constriction reduces RBF, not increases.
GFR does not decrease in early stages.
Only half correct
Yes, RBF ↓
But filtration fraction must increase, not be left unaddressed
The option without FF cannot be correct.
Only occurs if autoregulation perfectly compensates, which does not apply here
Efferent constriction clearly raises GFR early on.
Think about what happens to the pressure pushing fluid out of the glomerulus when blood volume is low.
25 / 75
A patient with severe dehydration shows reduced GFR. Which of the following is the main determinant responsible?
In severe dehydration, there is low plasma volume, leading to:
↓ renal perfusion
↓ renal blood flow
↓ glomerular hydrostatic pressure (Pᴳᶜ)
Since GFR is directly proportional to glomerular hydrostatic pressure, the fall in Pᴳᶜ is the main reason GFR drops.
Severe dehydration → low circulating volume
Afferent arteriole receives less blood → ↓ Pᴳᶜ
This directly reduces GFR
This is the major determinant in volume-depleted states (shock, dehydration)
Occurs in urinary tract obstruction, not dehydration
No obstruction is mentioned
Would increase GFR, not reduce it
Seen in hypoalbuminemia, not dehydration
Happens in diseases like glomerulonephritis, thickened basement membrane
Not a feature of dehydration
Dehydration concentrates plasma proteins → ↑ oncotic pressure
This does oppose filtration but is not the MAIN determinant
The primary cause is still low glomerular hydrostatic pressure
Think of the marker that behaves like a “passive passenger”—just follows filtration and nothing else.
26 / 75
A substance that is freely filtered, not reabsorbed, nor secreted measures which of the following?
A substance that is:
Freely filtered
Not reabsorbed
Not secreted
…will appear in the urine only in proportion to how much is filtered at the glomerulus.
This is exactly the definition of a marker for GFR.Classic example: inulin.
Because the substance’s urinary excretion = amount filtered
No reabsorption or secretion changes the value
So its clearance reflects pure filtration only
Measured by PAH clearance, because PAH is filtered + secreted (almost completely removed)
FF = GFR / RPF
You need both GFR and RPF; this substance only gives GFR.
Requires a substance that is almost 100% cleared (PAH)
Not one that is neither reabsorbed nor secreted.
You cannot measure tubular reabsorption from a substance that is not reabsorbed at all.
27 / 75
A 55-year-old man with long-standing hypertension is started on a diuretic that inhibits sodium reabsorption in the early distal convoluted tubule by blocking the Na⁺–Cl⁻ cotransporter. Which class of diuretic is most likely prescribed?
Thiazide diuretics act specifically on the early distal convoluted tubule (DCT) and block the Na⁺–Cl⁻ cotransporter (NCC).This reduces NaCl reabsorption → increases diuresis → lowers blood pressure.
Classic example: Hydrochlorothiazide.
Site of action: early DCT
Target: NCC (Na⁺–Cl⁻ cotransporter)
Effects:
Increased Na⁺ and Cl⁻ excretion
Mild diuresis
Increased Ca²⁺ reabsorption (unique)
First-line for hypertension
This matches the question perfectly.
Acts in the collecting duct, not the DCT
Blocks ENaC indirectly by blocking aldosterone
Acts in the proximal tubule, not DCT
Example: Acetazolamide
Blocks bicarbonate reabsorption
Acts in the thick ascending limb
Blocks NKCC2 transporter
Strongest diuretics, not the one described
Acts mostly in PCT and descending limb
Example: Mannitol
Works by increasing tubular osmolarity, not by blocking transporters
https://cvpharmacology.com/diuretic/diuretics
Think of what happens when the kidney’s main “glucose reabsorption gate” stops working.
28 / 75
A mutation in SGLT2 transporter would cause which of the following?
The SGLT2 transporter in the early proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) is responsible for reabsorbing ~90% of filtered glucose.
A mutation → ↓ glucose reabsorption → glucose spills into urine, even if:
Blood glucose is normal
GFR is normal
This disorder is known as familial renal glucosuria.
SGLT2 mutation → failure to reabsorb glucose in PCT
Filtration (GFR) stays normal
Reabsorption drops → glucose appears in urine
Low GFR means less glucose filtered, which would reduce, not increase glucosuria.
This happens in poorly controlled diabetes, not SGLT2 mutation.
Mutation causes renal glucosuria, not hyperglycemia.
Glucose is never secreted by the kidney.
Only filtered and reabsorbed.
Unrelated to SGLT2 transporter.
RPF is determined by renal blood flow, not glucose transporters.
Think about the nephron segment that builds the gradient needed for ADH to work.
29 / 75
A 30-year-old man presents with polyuria and an inability to form concentrated urine despite normal ADH levels. Measurement shows that the medullary interstitial osmolarity is markedly reduced. Which nephron segment is most likely defective?
The thick ascending limb (TAL) is the key generator of the medullary osmotic gradient.It:
Actively pumps Na⁺, K⁺, Cl⁻ out (NKCC2 transporter)
Is impermeable to water
Creates the hyperosmotic medulla needed for ADH to concentrate urine
If the TAL fails → medullary interstitial osmolarity drops → even with normal ADH, the collecting duct cannot reabsorb water → polyuria + dilute urine.
This is the classic mechanism of nephrogenic concentrating defect.
Main site of countercurrent multiplier
Generates high medullary osmolarity
Defect → low medullary osmolarity → no gradient → no water reabsorption even with ADH
Leads to polyuria, hyposthenuria, inability to concentrate urine
Matches the clinical scenario perfectly.
ADH acts here, but question says ADH levels are normal.
The problem is insufficient medullary gradient, not ADH unresponsiveness.
Water-permeable segment
Does not generate osmotic gradient
Its failure wouldn’t markedly reduce medullary osmolarity
Handles NaCl and Ca²⁺ reabsorption
Plays no major role in medullary gradient formation
Reabsorbs most solutes and water
Does not control the countercurrent multiplier
Think of the hormone released every time you eat — it immediately hides potassium inside cells.
30 / 75
IShowVelocity, A 25-year-old athlete consumes a potassium-rich meal containing bananas and fruit shakes after training. Within 30 minutes, his plasma K⁺ concentration remains within the normal range. Which mechanism is primarily responsible for this immediate homeostatic response?
https://www.researchgate.net/figure/Mechanism-of-glucose-stimulated-insulin-secretion-in-pancreatic-b-cells-ATP-derived-from_fig1_301051919
After a potassium-rich meal, plasma K⁺ should rise — but it usually doesn’t, because the body has a rapid, immediate buffering system:
👉 Insulin drives K⁺ into cells within minutes.
This is the FASTEST mechanism for preventing dangerous hyperkalemia.The kidney works later (hours), not within 30 minutes.
Eating triggers insulin release.
Insulin stimulates Na⁺–K⁺ ATPase in muscle & liver → K⁺ shifts into cells.
This prevents any spike in plasma K⁺.
This is the primary and immediate response after a meal.
GFR does not significantly increase after a meal.
And filtration alone cannot prevent hyperkalemia.
This depends on aldosterone, which takes hours to act.
Not immediate.
Insulin actually stimulates, not inhibits, Na⁺–K⁺ ATPase.
Inhibition would worsen hyperkalemia.
Aldosterone secretion and action takes 1–3 hours.
Not responsible for the early (30-minute) regulation.
Think about how the kidney reacts in “emergency mode”: tighter pipes you know..
31 / 75
A 30-year-old man experiences acute blood loss after a road accident. His blood pressure drops to 80/60 mm Hg, activating renal sympathetic nerves. Which of the following renal changes is most likely to occur in this state?
Acute blood loss → low blood pressure (80/60) → activates sympathetic nervous system → at the kidney this causes:
Vasoconstriction of renal vessels → ↓ renal blood flow (RBF)
Stimulation of β₁ receptors on JG cells → ↑ renin release → activates RAAS to help restore BP
So in shock/hemorrhage: low RBF + high renin is the classic combo.
Sympathetic activation → afferent & efferent constriction → ↓ RBF
β₁ stimulation on juxtaglomerular cells → renin secretion ↑
Renin → angiotensin II → vasoconstriction + aldosterone → Na⁺ and water retention
All of this is the body’s attempt to restore BP and circulating volume
Matches the scenario perfectly.
GFR may indeed fall,
But renin will increase, not decrease, in hemorrhage.
Sympathetic activity + low perfusion pressure both stimulate renin.
In shock, afferent tone is increased (constriction), not decreased.
GFR tends to fall, not rise.
This would happen in a high-volume or vasodilated state, not in acute blood loss.
In hemorrhage: RBF falls, and Na⁺ is retained, not wasted.
Sympathetic tone actually increases renal vascular resistance.
Urine flow typically falls sharply in hypovolemia/shock.
Think about how the kidney “adds back base” while removing extra acid when CO₂ stays high for days.
32 / 75
In chronic respiratory acidosis, renal compensation involves which of the following?
In chronic respiratory acidosis, CO₂ is persistently elevated.The kidney compensates by:
Increasing H⁺ secretion
Increasing HCO₃⁻ reabsorption
Increasing ammonium (NH₄⁺) production
Increasing titratable acid formation
This restores pH toward normal.
More H⁺ secreted into the tubules → binds buffers (phosphate, NH₃)
More new HCO₃⁻ generated and added back to blood
This is the classic renal compensation for chronic respiratory acidosis
Occurs over 2–5 days during chronic states
Opposite of what happens
In acidosis, H⁺ secretion increases, not decreases
Glutamine metabolism increases → generates NH₄⁺ + new HCO₃⁻
Decreased activity would worsen acidosis
Buffering happens in urine, not plasma
Plasma phosphate buffering changes minimally
Kidney increases urinary titratable acid, not plasma phosphate
NH₄⁺ production increases drastically
Essential for removing excess acid
Think of the kidney squeezing the “exit gate” of the glomerulus to keep pressure high when overall flow is low.
33 / 75
A patient with hemorrhagic shock shows reduced renal-perfusion pressure but a near-normal GFR. Which angiotensin II–mediated action is primarily responsible for maintaining filtration in this setting?
In hemorrhagic shock, renal perfusion pressure drops.Normally, this would ↓ GFR — but angiotensin II saves the day.
Angiotensin II has a stronger constricting effect on the efferent arteriole than the afferent, which:
Increases glomerular hydrostatic pressure
Helps maintain GFR near normal despite low renal blood flow
This is the key mechanism that preserves filtration during low perfusion states.
Angiotensin II acts more intensely on efferent > afferent
Efferent constriction → raises pressure in glomerular capillaries
Helps maintain GFR even when renal blood flow is low
Classic mechanism in volume depletion and shock
Ang II does not affect plasma protein concentration
Oncotic pressure typically increases in low-flow states, which would reduce GFR
Angiotensin II does not dilate afferent arterioles
If anything, it mildly constricts them
Prostaglandins—not Ang II—help dilate the afferent arteriole during shock
Ang II actually contracts mesangial cells, which reduces filtration area
This action slightly lowers GFR, not maintains it
Ang II increases, not suppresses, proximal Na⁺ reabsorption
This effect helps volume recovery, not GFR maintenance
https://www.researchgate.net/figure/Glomerulus-with-afferent-and-efferent-arteriole-In-the-presence-of-a-reduced-cardiac_fig1_11270958
Imagine turning up the speed of a river that runs through a salty lake — what happens to the salt near the shore?
34 / 75
What would be the primary renal effect if vasa recta blood flow doubled?
The vasa recta are the countercurrent exchangers of the kidney medulla.They must have slow blood flow to preserve the medullary osmotic gradient.
👉 If vasa recta blood flow doubles (too fast) → solutes (NaCl, urea) are washed out from the medulla →🔻 Medullary hyperosmolarity falls🔻 Collecting duct has less gradient to pull water out (even with ADH)🔻 Urine becomes less concentrated
So: more flow = more washout = less concentration.
Faster vasa recta flow → solutes carried away quickly
Medulla becomes less hyperosmotic
Collecting duct cannot reabsorb as much water → dilute urine
Classic “washout” phenomenon
Doubling blood flow would increase, not decrease, washout.
So this is the opposite of what happens.
Countercurrent exchange works best with slow flow.
High flow disrupts it → less solute trapping, not more.
Increased flow reduces time for urea to equilibrate → less recycling, more washout.
With loss of medullary gradient, the descending limb fluid becomes less concentrated, not more.
Think of a transporter that “hitches a ride” on the sodium gradient rather than using ATP itself.
35 / 75
What type of transport mechanism exemplifies the sodium-potassium-chloride (Na-K-2Cl) transporter located on the apical membrane in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle?
The Na⁺–K⁺–2Cl⁻ (NKCC2) cotransporter in the thick ascending limb uses the Na⁺ gradient created by the basolateral Na⁺/K⁺ ATPase to pull K⁺ and Cl⁻ into the cell.
Since it depends on the energy of another pump (Na⁺/K⁺ ATPase), NOT ATP directly, it is a secondary active transporter.
NKCC2 does not use ATP directly.
It relies on the Na⁺ gradient (created by Na⁺/K⁺ ATPase) → indirect energy use.
Classic example of symport-type secondary active transport.
Countertransporters move solutes in opposite directions (antiport).
NKCC2 moves three solutes together in the same direction → symport, not antiport.
Facilitated diffusion is passive and only uses concentration gradients.
NKCC2 requires the Na⁺ gradient supplied by active pumping → not pure diffusion.
NKCC2 moves ions against some electrochemical gradients; cannot be passive.
Requires energy indirectly via Na⁺ gradient.
Primary transporters (like Na⁺/K⁺ ATPase) directly hydrolyze ATP.
NKCC2 does not use ATP directly → so it is NOT primary.
Think about the one hormone that opens the “water doors” of the collecting duct. When it fails, urine becomes extremely dilute.
36 / 75
A 45-year-old female is admitted to the hospital with complaints of excessive thirst and polyuria (excessive urine production). Laboratory tests reveal low urine osmolarity. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the patient’s symptoms?
Polyuria with low urine osmolarity means the kidneys are failing to concentrate urine.The only hormone responsible for concentrating urine is ADH (vasopressin).
If ADH is not released, the collecting ducts become impermeable to water, causing:
Large volumes of dilute urine
Excessive thirst (polydipsia)
Low urine osmolarity
This is classic central diabetes insipidus.
ADH makes collecting ducts water-permeable
Without it → water cannot be reabsorbed
Result → very dilute urine + high volume (polyuria)
Blood osmolarity rises → excessive thirst
Matches the clinical picture perfectly.
Aldosterone increases Na⁺ reabsorption, not water permeability
It does not cause massively dilute urine
Instead, it reduces urine volume slightly
This would not cause low urine osmolarity
PCT water reabsorption is obligatory, so osmolarity stays the same
Affects blood pressure and Na⁺ balance
Not directly linked to dilute polyuria
Low GFR would decrease urine output, not increase it
Polyuria cannot occur with low GFR
Think of the ion that “lags behind”
37 / 75
Two samples of filtrate are taken from the beginning and end of the proximal tubules by a micropipette for comparison. Which one of the following substances would be present in large quantity at the end as compared to the beginning?
https://triyambak.org/free-resources/csir-net-life-sciences/pointer/5529
In the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT):
Water and Na⁺ are reabsorbed very early and proportionally
Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed completely (100%)
Cl⁻ reabsorption lags behind early in the PCT, so its concentration in the tubular fluid increases
By the end of the PCT, Cl⁻ becomes more concentrated than at the beginning.
This is why Cl⁻ is the ONLY substance that increases in concentration across the PCT.
Early PCT: Na⁺ and water removed rapidly → Cl⁻ left behind
Cl⁻ concentration rises because it is reabsorbed later in the PCT
Therefore its tubular concentration is higher at the end than at the start
This is a classic physiology fact.
100% reabsorbed in the first part of the PCT
None should remain by the end
Reabsorbed passively with Na⁺ and water
Does not accumulate in tubular fluid
Completely reabsorbed in early PCT (SGLT2, then SGLT1)
Zero at the end, unless TM is exceeded (diabetes)
Reabsorbed in proportion to water (isosmotic reabsorption)
Concentration stays nearly the same, not higher
Think of the “needle-shaped troublemakers” that trigger inflammation in gout.
38 / 75
Category: Renal – Biochemistry
The primary biochemical event that leads to gout is?
https://radiopaedia.org/cases/monosodium-urate-crystals-in-tophaceous-gout
Gout is fundamentally caused by elevated uric acid levels (hyperuricemia), which leads to precipitation of monosodium urate (MSU) crystals in joints and tissues.
These crystals trigger neutrophilic inflammation, producing the classic painful gout attack.
This precipitation—not purine accumulation itself—is the primary biochemical event.
Hyperuricemia → urate becomes supersaturated
MSU crystals form in cooler joints (e.g., big toe)
Crystals activate NLRP3 inflammasome → IL-1β release → inflammation
This is the defining biochemical step of gout
Purine breakdown leads to uric acid
But nucleotides do not accumulate in joints
They do not cause inflammation
Gout is caused by overproduction of uric acid, not overproduction of the enzyme
And many gout cases are due to underexcretion, not overproduction
Dehydration may raise uric acid temporarily
But it is not the primary biochemical trigger for gout attacks
Pyrimidine metabolism does not produce uric acid
Irrelevant to gout
Think of the salvage enzyme whose failure pushes everything toward uric acid instead of recycling it.
39 / 75
A 5-year-old boy is brought to the pediatric clinic with complaints of delayed developmental milestones, involuntary movements, and unusual aggressive behavior. His parents report that he frequently bites his lips and fingers, causing self-inflicted injuries. The child also shows mental retardation and poor motor coordination. Laboratory tests reveal marked hyperuricemia and orange, sand-like crystals in the diaper, suggestive of uric acid crystalluria. Further metabolic evaluation demonstrates defective purine salvage pathway activity with accumulation of hypoxanthine and guanine, both being converted excessively to uric acid.
Which of the following enzyme deficiencies is responsible for this disorder?
https://www.medboundtimes.com/medicine/lesch-nyhan-syndrome-self-mutilation-disorder
This child has Lesch–Nyhan syndrome, a classic condition due to:
👉 HGPRT deficiency → purine salvage failure → ↑ uric acid
Key clinical clues:
Self-mutilation (lip and finger biting)
Aggression + involuntary movements
Hyperuricemia
Orange “sand-like” urate crystals in diaper
Neurologic dysfunction + developmental delay
These all point directly to HGPRT deficiency.
HGPRT normally salvages:
Hypoxanthine → IMP
Guanine → GMP
Without it:
Both are shunted into uric acid production
Causes gout-like crystals and severe neurobehavioral symptoms
Perfect match.
Causes SCID (Severe Combined Immunodeficiency)
No self-mutilation or hyperuricemia
Completely different presentation
Target of methotrexate
Not related to uric acid metabolism
No neurologic or behavioral symptoms
Overactivity causes gout
But not self-mutilation or severe neurologic disease
Not consistent with this case
Deficiency decreases uric acid
Would NOT cause hyperuricemia or crystals
The opposite of this case
Think about the enzyme that normally “recycles” purines. When it falters, everything is shunted toward uric acid.
40 / 75
A 45-year-old man presents with severe pain, redness, and swelling in his big toe after consuming red meat and alcohol at a family gathering. Physical examination reveals acute inflammation, and laboratory tests show elevated serum uric acid levels. Acute gout, a disorder caused by excessive accumulation of uric acid, is suspected. Which enzyme deficiency or metabolic defect most likely contributes to his condition?
Acute gout results from hyperuricemia, either due to:
Overproduction of uric acid, or
Underexcretion of uric acid
Among the given choices, the metabolic defect most classically associated with increased uric acid production is a deficiency (partial or complete) of HGPRT, the key enzyme of the purine salvage pathway.
Even partial HGPRT deficiency (unlike the severe Lesch–Nyhan syndrome) can lead to adult-onset gout.
HGPRT salvages hypoxanthine → IMP and guanine → GMP
When HGPRT is reduced or absent:
Purines cannot be salvaged
PRPP accumulates
De novo purine synthesis increases
Excess purines → excess uric acid
Even mild/partial deficiency predisposes adults to gout, especially after triggers like red meat and alcohol.
No link to gout or uric acid overproduction
Involved in pyrimidine synthesis
Deficiency causes orotic aciduria, not gout
Causes Von Gierke disease
Leads to hyperuricemia, BUT presents in infancy with severe hypoglycemia, lactic acidosis
Not consistent with a healthy 45-year-old who develops gout after dietary triggers
Not a known primary cause of gout
If anything, XO inhibition (e.g., allopurinol) is a treatment for gout
Overactivity rarely mentioned as a natural genetic defect
Think about what happens when the body runs out of quick fuel and must burn fat instead.
41 / 75
A 19-year-old woman presents with Anorexia and reduced food intake for 5 days. Urine dipstick reveals +2 for ketones, negative for glucose, protein and blood. Her plasma glucose is 70 mg/dl and she is mildly dehydrated. What does the positive ketone dipstick most likely indicate?
When food intake is very low for several days, the body shifts to fat breakdown for energy.This leads to:
↑ free fatty acid oxidation
↑ ketone body production (acetoacetate + β-hydroxybutyrate)
Ketones spill into urine → positive dipstick
This is called starvation ketosis, and it occurs with normal or low-normal glucose, exactly as in this case (glucose = 70 mg/dL).
Low caloric intake for 5 days → glycogen depleted
Body switches to lipolysis + ketogenesis
Ketones appear in urine
Normal glucose level rules out diabetes
Perfectly matches the scenario
Characterized by high glucose (usually >250 mg/dL)
She has normal glucose (70 mg/dL)
No dehydration/severe symptoms like Kussmaul breathing
Vitamin C causes false negatives, not positives
No sign she took high-dose vitamin C
Heavy protein intake does not cause significant ketonuria
She is eating less, not more
Causes acidic blood, electrolyte issues, and no ketones
Urine dipstick ketones are not a feature
Think of what makes up almost the entire volume of urine—everything else is only a tiny fraction.
42 / 75
A 24 hour urine shows water ~1.1 L, total solids ~60g, specific gravity ~1.018, and pH ~6.0. There is no glucose, albumin, or blood present. Which of the following is true regarding the composition of normal urine?
Normal urine is mostly water (~95%) and about 5% solutes, including urea, creatinine, uric acid, ions, and trace substances.The values in the question (water 1.1 L, solids 60 g, SG 1.018, pH ~6) all fall within the normal physiological range.
Normal urine output: ~1–2 L/day
Water content ≈95%
Solids ≈5% (urea being the major one)This matches the given data almost exactly.
Completely incorrect
Urine must contain solutes (urea, uric acid, creatinine, electrolytes)
Opposite of reality
Solids are ~5% max
Normal urine pH varies 4.5–8.0, typically around 6.0
It is rarely neutral at exactly 7.0
SG <1.005 = very dilute urine (e.g., diabetes insipidus)
Normal SG = 1.010–1.025
The value 1.018 in the question is normal
Think of the first cytosolic gatekeeper of pyrimidine synthesis—the one tumors push hard to make DNA fast.
43 / 75
A rapidly dividing tumor cell shows over-activity of the cytosolic enzyme that uses glutamine and CO2 to produce carbamoyl phosphate, and the cell’s intracellular pH is slightly elevated to enhance enzyme activity. Which enzyme is being described and what biochemical regulation applies to it in normal cells?
https://themedicalbiochemistrypage.org/nucleotides-biosynthesis-catabolism/
The question describes a cytosolic enzyme that uses:
Glutamine
CO₂
ATPto make carbamoyl phosphate
…AND operates best at a slightly elevated (more alkaline) intracellular pH.
This profile matches CPS-II, the committed step of pyrimidine synthesis.
In normal cells:
CPS-II is inhibited by UTP (end-product feedback)
Activated by PRPP
Located in the cytosol
Tumor cells often show overactive CPS-II, accelerating pyrimidine synthesis to support rapid DNA replication.
ATCase is a bacterial enzyme (classic allosteric enzyme example)
In humans, regulation occurs at CPS-II, not at ATCase
ATP activates it (not inhibits)
Located in the mitochondria, not cytosol
Uses NH₃, not glutamine
Part of urea cycle, not nucleotide synthesis
Activated by N-acetylglutamate, but does NOT fit the tumor cell description
Converts UTP → CTP
Does not produce carbamoyl phosphate
Not the rate-limiting step in pyrimidine synthesis
This enzyme converts OMP → UMP
Does not use glutamine or produce carbamoyl phosphate
Not regulated by CTP
44 / 75
Category: Renal – Pathology
A 25-year-old woman undergoes ultrasound for recurrent urinary tract infections. Imaging shows a single fused kidney with two ureters emerging separately.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
In Crossed fused ectopia, the kidneys are fused into a single mass, but they maintain their original vascular and collecting structures. This explains why you see:
A single fused renal mass: The two kidneys have joined together on one side of the abdomen.
Two separate ureters: Each original kidney has its own ureter. Crucially, the ureter from the ectopic kidney typically crosses the midline to enter the bladder at its intended, normal location.
Think of something formed in the bloodstream after infection that later gets stuck in the kidney.
45 / 75
A 10-year-old boy develops facial puffiness and frothy urine after a sore throat 2 weeks ago. Urinanalysis : RBC casts, mild proteinuria. Which mechanism is primarily responsible for his disease?
A child developing facial puffiness + hematuria + RBC casts 2 weeks after a sore throat points strongly toward:
👉 Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN)
The hallmark mechanism:Circulating immune complexes (streptococcal antigen–antibody complexes) deposit in the glomerulus, activating complement → inflammation → RBC casts + mild proteinuria.
Classic mechanism in PSGN
Deposition occurs in the subepithelial “hump-like” pattern
Leads to complement activation (↓ C3)
Produces RBC casts and cola-colored urine
This perfectly matches the vignette.
Seen in Goodpasture syndrome
Causes hematuria + hemoptysis (lung involvement)
Not triggered by strep throat
Not typical in children
Increases risk of Neisseria infections
Not related to post-infectious glomerulonephritis mechanism
Causes nephrotic syndrome, NOT hematuria with RBC casts
Occurs in adults with chronic inflammation/malignancy
Causes minimal change disease, leading to massive proteinuria, NOT RBC casts
Hematuria is not characteristic
Post-Infectious Glomerulonephritis (GN)
Think of a disease where the basement membrane starts “building around” immune complexes like a fence around bumps.
46 / 75
A renal biopsy shows uniform thickening of the capillary wall. Silver stain reveals a “spike and dome” appearance; immunofluorescence is granular for IgG and C3. Which disease does this pattern represent?
The combination of:
Uniform thickening of the glomerular basement membrane
“Spike and dome” appearance on silver stain
Granular IgG + C3 deposition
…is classic and pathognomonic for membranous nephropathy.
It is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults.
Caused by subepithelial immune complex deposition
New basement membrane is laid down around these deposits → spikes
Immune complexes form domes
Immunofluorescence shows granular (“lumpy-bumpy”) IgG & C3
Produces heavy proteinuria (nephrotic)
Fits the biopsy perfectly.
Shows subepithelial humps, not spike and dome
IF: granular IgG + C3, but histology lacks uniform thickening
IF shows full-house pattern (IgG, IgM, IgA, C3, C1q)
Histology varies by class; spike and dome is NOT classic
Light microscopy: normal
EM: podocyte foot process effacement
No immune deposits, no spikes, no thickening
Membranous Nephropathy
Think about what long-term high sugar does to proteins — it slowly “stiffens” them and changes how leaky they become.
47 / 75
Micah the Rat, A 58-year-old man with long-standing type 2 diabetes presents with progressive swelling of the legs. Urinalysis reveals heavy proteinuria, and serum albumin is very low. Renal biopsy shows Kimmelstiel–Wilson nodules. Which of the following best explains the underlying pathogenesis?
This is diabetic nephropathy with Kimmelstiel–Wilson nodules (nodular glomerulosclerosis).The core mechanism in diabetes:
Chronic hyperglycemia → non-enzymatic glycosylation of proteins
Glycosylation of glomerular basement membrane (GBM) →
Initially → increased permeability → proteinuria
Later → GBM thickening + mesangial expansion → nodular sclerosis
So the best explanation is:
Non-enzymatic glycosylation causing increased basement membrane permeability
Deposition of immune complexes along the GBM
Seen in membranous nephropathy, some lupus cases
Would give granular IgG/C3, not specifically Kimmelstiel–Wilson nodules.
Deposition of amyloid fibrils derived from serum amyloid A
That’s AA amyloidosis, can cause nephrotic syndrome
Biopsy shows Congo red–positive, apple-green birefringence, not KW nodules.
Complement-mediated mesangial injury
More typical of MPGN or some IgA nephropathies
Doesn’t explain diabetic nodular sclerosis.
Autoantibody-induced mesangial proliferation
Think lupus nephritis (immune complex & “full-house” IF)
Not the classic lesion of diabetes.
Diabetic Nephropathy
Think about a condition where IgA causes trouble in many organs — and sometimes only in the kidney.
48 / 75
A 25-year-old man presents with recurrent episodes of gross hematuria that appear within 1–2 days after an upper respiratory tract infection. Renal function is normal between episodes. Renal biopsy shows mesangial proliferation with IgA deposits on immunofluorescence. Which of the following statements is true about the disease?
https://www.webmd.com/skin-problems-and-treatments/henoch-schonlein-purpura-causes-symptoms-treatment
This is IgA nephropathy (Berger disease) — the classic features:
Hematuria 1–2 days after a URI
Mesangial proliferation
IgA deposits on IF
Normal renal function between episodes
IgA nephropathy is essentially the renal-limited form of Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP).
HSP = systemic IgA vasculitis (skin, GI, joints + kidneys)
IgA nephropathy = kidney-only involvement
Same pathology: mesangial IgA immune complexes
Hence: IgA nephropathy = renal-limited HSP.
Crescents = rapidly progressive GN (RPGN)
IgA nephropathy usually has a benign, recurrent course
Crescents may occur rarely but NOT within days
That is Goodpasture syndrome
IF would show linear IgG, not granular IgA
That describes nephrotic syndrome
IgA nephropathy → usually hematuria ± mild proteinuria, not massive protein loss
That is post-streptococcal GN
IgA nephropathy flares within 1–2 days, not weeks
Think about what forms only inside the kidney, not in the bladder.
49 / 75
A 26-year-old woman presents with fever, chills, and flank pain. On examination, she has costovertebral angle tenderness. Urinalysis shows numerous pus cells, WBC casts, and a positive nitrite test. Urine culture grows Escherichia coli. Which of the following findings best supports the diagnosis of acute pyelonephritis rather than cystitis?
Both cystitis (lower UTI) and pyelonephritis (upper UTI) can show:
Fever
Pyuria
Positive nitrites
Positive urine culture
Bacteriuria
But WBC casts indicate that inflammation is inside the kidney tubules, meaning upper urinary tract involvement → acute pyelonephritis.
Casts are formed in renal tubules, not the bladder
Only pyelonephritis causes WBCs to enter tubules and form casts
Pathognomonic for upper UTI
Seen in both cystitis and pyelonephritis
Not specific
Pus cells appear in both
Indicates infection but not location
Common to all UTIs
No localization value
More severe in pyelonephritis, but can occur mildly in cystitis
Not definitive
Think of the structure that slowly grows with age and squeezes the urine outlet from the inside.
50 / 75
A 68-year-old man with urinary hesitancy and nocturia develops bilateral hydronephrosis. Post-void residual urine is high. What is the likely cause?
An elderly male with:
Urinary hesitancy
Nocturia
High post-void residual urine
Bilateral hydronephrosis
…strongly points toward outlet obstruction at the prostate → classic BPH.
This causes chronic bladder outlet obstruction → back pressure → bilateral hydronephrosis.
Most common cause of obstructive uropathy in elderly men
Leads to:
Weak stream
Hesitancy
Incomplete emptying (↑ post-void residual)
Bilateral hydronephrosis from chronic obstruction
Fits the patient perfectly
Causes unilateral hydronephrosis (unless bilateral stones, which is rare)
Does not cause high post-void residual urine
Can cause obstruction, but commonly in younger men
Usually associated with trauma or infection history
Not the most likely in a 68-year-old with BPH symptoms
Would cause retention + hydronephrosis, but patient would typically have:
Diabetes
Spinal cord injury
MS
Parkinsonism
And nocturia + hesitancy classically point to BPH, not neurogenic dysfunction
Occurs only in male infants
Not seen in elderly men
Think about what happens to an organ when its drainpipe is slowly squeezed from the outside for months.
51 / 75
A 58-year-old woman presents with gradual onset of dull flank pain and unexplained rise in serum creatinine. She also reports postmenopausal vaginal bleeding for several months. Ultrasound shows bilateral hydronephrosis with no calculi, and pelvic imaging reveals a mass infiltrating the cervix and lower ureters. Which of the following best describes the pathophysiologic process in her kidneys?
She has:
No stones
A pelvic mass infiltrating the cervix and lower ureters
Gradual rise in creatinine + dull flank pain
This is classic chronic obstructive uropathy due to extrinsic compression of both ureters by a malignant pelvic mass (very likely cervical carcinoma).
Obstruction → urine cannot drain →🔺 Increased pressure in pelvis & calyces🔺 Compression of renal cortex🔻 Progressive atrophy of renal parenchyma and ↓ GFR
That’s exactly what the last option states.
Acute tubular necrosis due to ischemia
Would be acute, with hypotension/shock, toxins, etc.
Not a slow, structural back-pressure problem.
Immune-mediated interstitial inflammation
Describes interstitial nephritis (often drug-induced, allergic, autoimmune).
Would show fever, rash, eosinophilia—not bilateral hydronephrosis from a pelvic mass.
Glomerular immune complex deposition
Seen in glomerulonephritis (PSGN, lupus, IgA nephropathy etc.)
Would give hematuria, RBC casts, proteinuria—not hydronephrosis.
Bacterial invasion causing abscess formation
That’s acute pyelonephritis / renal abscess.
Would present with fever, chills, CVA tenderness, pyuria—not chronic, silent back-pressure with a pelvic mass.
Obstruction and obstructive nephropathy
Think about what happens when the immune system gets “annoyed” at a drug and quietly attacks the tissue between the tubules.
52 / 75
A 52-year-old woman with chronic osteoarthritis has been taking ibuprofen daily for several months. She presents with malaise and mild flank pain. Her serum creatinine is 2.1 mg/dL (baseline 0.8 mg/dL). Urinalysis shows sterile pyuria and mild proteinuria, with eosinophils in the urine. Ultrasound shows normal kidney size without obstruction. Which mechanism best explains her renal findings?
Chronic NSAID (ibuprofen) use +
Sterile pyuria
Eosinophils in urine
Mild proteinuria
Normal-sized kidneys, no obstruction
…is classic for drug-induced acute interstitial nephritis (AIN) — usually an immune-mediated hypersensitivity reaction involving the renal interstitium.
Many drugs (NSAIDs, antibiotics like methicillin, PPIs) can trigger type IV hypersensitivity in the kidney.
This targets the interstitium and tubules, not primarily the glomeruli.
Hallmarks:
Eosinophiluria
Rising creatinine
This matches the vignette perfectly.
This sounds like a toxin/poison effect (e.g., heavy metals)
Would cause severe glomerular damage, often heavy proteinuria or hematuria
Not the typical pattern for ibuprofen use with eosinophils in urine
That describes immune complex glomerulonephritis (e.g., lupus, PSGN).
You’d expect RBC casts, hematuria, more significant proteinuria, not just sterile pyuria with eosinophils.
Requires massive shock, obstetric catastrophe, DIC, etc.
Would cause acute renal failure with very sick patient, not this slower, drug-related picture.
That’s pyelonephritis, which would show:
Fever, chills
Flank tenderness
Our patient has sterile pyuria, not infectious.
Think of the type of rejection where aggressive immune cells physically invade the tubules and vessels soon after a new organ is introduced.
53 / 75
A 45-year-old man underwent a renal transplant 3 weeks ago. He now presents with fever, tenderness over the graft site, and a rise in serum creatinine. Biopsy of the graft shows dense lymphocytic infiltration of the interstitium and tubules with associated endothelial inflammation. Which of the following best describes this type of rejection?
A renal transplant patient who develops symptoms 2–6 weeks after surgery with:
Tenderness over graft
Lymphocytic infiltration of interstitium + tubules
Endothelial inflammation (“endothelialitis”)
…is showing the classic picture of acute T-cell–mediated (cellular) rejection.
This is the most common rejection in the first few weeks.
Occurs days to weeks after transplant (here: 3 weeks)
Histology:
Dense lymphocytic infiltrate in interstitium
Tubulitis (lymphocytes invading tubules)
Endothelialitis (lymphocytes under endothelium)
Mediated by host CD8⁺ and CD4⁺ T cells reacting to donor MHC
Treatable with steroids and immunosuppression escalation
Matches perfectly.
Occurs within minutes to hours, not 3 weeks
Caused by preformed anti-donor Abs
Characterized by thrombosis, fibrinoid necrosis, not lymphocytic infiltrates
Occurs over months to years
Shows fibrosis, vascular thickening, transplant glomerulopathy
Not acute lymphocytic interstitial infiltration
Occurs early, often days, and involves neutrophils + complement (C4d positivity)
More vascular, less interstitial/tubular lymphocytes
ABO mismatch usually causes hyperacute events, not this picture
e.g., calcineurin inhibitors → causes arteriolar hyalinosis & striped fibrosis, not T-cell infiltration
No fever or graft tenderness typically
Think of blood vessels that respond to extreme pressure by layering muscle cells like rings around a target.
54 / 75
A 45-year-old man presents with headache and blurred vision. BP is 220/130 mm Hg. Labs show rising creatinine and hematuria. Which histologic lesion is most characteristic of his renal disease?
https://webpath.med.utah.edu/RENAHTML/RENAL107.html
A blood pressure of 220/130 mmHg with:
Headache
Blurred vision
Hematuria
…is classic for malignant hypertension.
The renal lesion most strongly associated with malignant hypertension is:
👉 Hyperplastic arteriolosclerosis (“onion-skinning”)
This results from severe, rapidly progressive blood pressure elevation causing concentric, laminated smooth muscle proliferation in arterioles.
Seen in malignant hypertension
Arterioles show concentric laminated (“onion-skin”) thickening
Leads to ischemia, acute kidney injury, hematuria
Fits the clinical picture perfectly
Seen in benign hypertension and long-standing diabetes
Slow process, not associated with BP crisis or acute renal injury
Seen in Wegener (GPA)
Respiratory + kidney involvement
Not associated with hypertensive emergency
Seen in RPGN, Goodpasture, ANCA-associated diseases
Not primarily caused by severe hypertension
Doesn’t produce “onion-skin” arterioles
Seen in xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis
Chronic obstruction + infection
Not related to malignant hypertension
Think of tubules that start looking like little follicles filled with thick, pink material — almost like another endocrine gland.
55 / 75
A 55-year-old man with a long history of vesicoureteral reflux presents with progressive renal failure. Ultrasound shows asymmetrically shrunken kidneys with coarse, irregular cortical scars. Which histologic finding is most typical of chronic pyelonephritis?
https://www.pathologyoutlines.com/topic/kidneychronicpyelo.html
Long-standing vesicoureteral reflux → reflux nephropathy, a form of chronic pyelonephritis.This leads to:
Asymmetric, irregular scarring
Blunted calyces
Tubular atrophy with thyroidisation (tubules filled with colloid-like casts)
Interstitial fibrosis + chronic inflammatory cells
This is the classic hallmark.
Tubules become dilated and atrophic
Filled with eosinophilic, colloid-like casts → “thyroid-like” appearance
Interstitium shows fibrosis + chronic inflammatory infiltrate
This is pathognomonic for chronic pyelonephritis
Fits the entire clinical scenario.
Glomeruli may scar late, but this is not the primary lesion
Tubulointerstitium is the main site of injury in chronic pyelonephritis
Neutrophils = acute pyelonephritis
Chronic disease shows lymphocytes, plasma cells, not neutrophils
Glomerular neutrophils suggest acute GN, not pyelonephritis
Seen in TB, sarcoidosis, fungal infections
Not a feature of chronic pyelonephritis
Think of immune debris that doesn’t spread smoothly, but rather piles up in “little mounds” on one side of the filter.
56 / 75
A 10-year-old boy develops periorbital puffiness and cola-coloured urine two weeks after a sore throat. Blood pressure is mildly elevated. Urinalysis shows RBC casts and mild proteinuria. Serum ASO titre is raised, and complement (C3) is low.Which microscopic feature is characteristic of this disease?
This is the classic story of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN):
Child
2 weeks after sore throat
Periorbital puffiness + cola-coloured urine
Mild hypertension
RBC casts, mild proteinuria
↑ ASO titre, ↓ C3
On microscopy/EM, the hallmark lesion is:
Subepithelial “hump-like” immune complex deposits
Formed by deposition of circulating immune complexes (streptococcal antigen + antibody)
Located on the subepithelial side of the GBM
Seen on EM as large, dome-shaped “humps”
Very characteristic of PSGN
Seen in lupus nephritis (Class IV)
Due to massive subendothelial immune complex deposition
Not the classic lesion of PSGN.
IF shows smooth, linear pattern (anti-GBM antibodies)
PSGN shows granular (“lumpy-bumpy”) deposits, not linear.
Characteristic of IgA nephropathy (Berger disease)
Presents with hematuria 1–2 days after mucosal infection, not 2 weeks later.
Here we have 2-week latency + low C3, which fits PSGN, not IgA disease.
Seen in Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis (FSGS)
Associated with nephrotic syndrome, HIV, obesity, heroin use, etc.
Not a post-streptococcal picture, and no “humps”.
Think of what happens to the kidney’s tubules when blood pressure suddenly drops and stays low for too long.
57 / 75
A 45-year-old man develops hypotension following severe blood loss during surgery. Two days later, his urine output falls markedly, and serum creatinine rises. Urinalysis shows muddy brown granular casts.What is the most likely cause of his renal failure?
Severe blood loss → hypotension → reduced renal perfusion → ischemic acute tubular necrosis (ATN).
The KEY clue:
👉 Muddy brown granular castsThese are classic for acute tubular necrosis, NOT any other renal pathology.
The timing (2 days later) also fits the typical maintenance phase of ATN.
Caused by prolonged hypotension / shock
Mostly affects PCT and thick ascending limb
Tubular cells die → slough → form muddy brown casts
Leads to ↓ GFR, ↓ urine output, ↑ creatinine
Would show RBC casts, hematuria, proteinuria
NOT muddy brown casts
Not triggered by acute blood loss
Caused by drug hypersensitivity (NSAIDs, PPIs, antibiotics)
Shows eosinophils, WBC casts, rash, fever
Not muddy casts
Would cause hydronephrosis
No shock history
No muddy casts
Seen in obstetric catastrophes, DIC, sepsis
Severe, irreversible
Presents with anuria, not muddy casts specifically
Muddy brown granular casts
Think about the fastest medicine for removing fluid when the lungs suddenly “fill up.”
58 / 75
Category: Renal – Pharmacology
An elderly patient with a history of heart disease is brought to the emergency room with difficulty in breathing. Examination reveals that she has pulmonary edema. Which treatment is indicated?
Pulmonary edema = fluid in lungs, usually due to acute left-sided heart failure.The immediate goal is to rapidly remove excess fluid.
👉 Loop diuretics (especially furosemide) act fast and strongly.They cause:
Rapid venodilation (reduces preload within minutes)
Powerful diuresis (reduces blood volume)
This makes furosemide the first-line treatment in acute pulmonary edema.
Fastest onset among diuretics
Most potent for fluid removal
Reduces preload → improves breathing quickly
IV furosemide is standard emergency treatment
Weak diuretic
Used for glaucoma, altitude sickness, metabolic alkalosis
NOT effective for pulmonary edema
A thiazide-like diuretic
Works slowly
Used for hypertension, not emergencies
Also a thiazide
Weak compared to loop diuretics
Ineffective in acute pulmonary edema
Potassium-sparing diuretic
Works very slowly
Useful in chronic heart failure, not acute pulmonary edema
Think of the diuretic that works in the segment just after the loop, gently lowering blood pressure by blocking salt uptake.
59 / 75
A 60-year-old man is diagnosed with stage 1 hypertension and started on a low-dose thiazide diuretic. After several weeks, his blood pressure is well controlled. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of this medication?
https://www.researchgate.net/figure/Effects-of-action-of-thiazide-diuretics_fig4_342631931
Thiazide diuretics (e.g., hydrochlorothiazide, chlorthalidone):
Act in the early distal convoluted tubule (DCT)
Block the Na⁺/Cl⁻ symporter (NCC)
Cause mild diuresis + vasodilation
First-line for stage 1 hypertension
Direct site of action of thiazides
↓ NaCl reabsorption → ↓ plasma volume → ↓ BP
Also ↑ Ca²⁺ reabsorption (unique thiazide effect)
Fits the scenario perfectly.
That’s spironolactone / eplerenone (actually block aldosterone)
Act in the collecting duct, not DCT
Used in heart failure or hyperaldosteronism, not first-line for HTN
ADH antagonists (e.g., tolvaptan)
Used for SIADH, not hypertension
That’s acetazolamide
Acts in PCT
Weak diuretic; used for glaucoma, altitude sickness, metabolic alkalosis
That’s loop diuretics (furosemide)
Act in the thick ascending limb
Much more potent; used for pulmonary edema, not mild HTN
Think of a target that’s tighter than general hypertension goals but not dangerously low.
60 / 75
Category: Renal – ComMed/BehSci
Which one of the following values is the treatment goal for hypertension in case a person has heart or kidney disease or diabetes mellitus?
For patients with heart disease, chronic kidney disease, or diabetes mellitus, the recommended blood pressure treatment target is:
👉 Lower than 130/80 mm Hg
This tighter control reduces the risk of stroke, kidney failure progression, and cardiovascular events.
Patients with comorbidities (DM, CKD, CAD, heart failure) need stricter BP control.
Most international guidelines (ACC/AHA, KDIGO, ADA) recommend <130/80.
Acceptable for general hypertension
Not strict enough for diabetes, kidney disease, or heart disease
Slightly lower but not an established goal
Too aggressive
Increases risk of hypotension, syncope, decreased renal perfusion
Unsafe
Can cause dizziness, falls, renal hypoperfusion
Think about the pair of tests that check both how well the kidney filters and whether it is leaking anything important.
61 / 75
Which of the following tests are to be conducted first for early detection of kidney disease?
For early detection of chronic kidney disease (CKD), the two recommended first-line tests are:
eGFR → Detects ↓ filtration
uACR (urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio) → Detects microalbuminuria, the earliest sign of kidney damage
These two tests together identify kidney disease much earlier than serum creatinine or urine dipstick alone.
eGFR detects loss of filtration function
uACR detects early glomerular damage (microalbuminuria)
Used globally as the best screening combination for CKD (KDIGO, ADA, nephrology guidelines)
Serum creatinine is already used to calculate eGFR
Does not detect early albumin leakage
Misses early kidney disease
Both rise late in kidney disease
BUN is affected by hydration, diet, GI bleeding
High BP is a risk factor, not a screening test
BUN alone is non-specific
Detect diabetes or overt proteinuria, not early kidney disease
Misses microalbuminuria
Think about the nutrient that directly increases blood pressure and fluid retention—two major concerns in CKD.
62 / 75
Which one of the following is one of the dietary modifications required in Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD)?
In Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD), controlling blood pressure and fluid retention is essential.The most universally recommended dietary change is:
👉 Reducing sodium intakeThis helps prevent edema, hypertension, and worsening renal function.
Lowers blood pressure
Reduces fluid overload
Decreases progression of CKD
Strongly recommended by nephrology guidelines (KDIGO)
Fiber is beneficial, not harmful
Helps with metabolism and gut health
No need to reduce in CKD unless potassium is extremely high
CKD patients often have low calcium
They usually need supplementation, not restriction
Only phosphate is restricted, not calcium
Not a CKD-specific recommendation
Only needed for diabetic control, not kidney disease itself
Dairy is limited only because of high phosphate, not routinely for all CKD patients
The question asks for a standard modification → sodium restriction fits best
Think of what a doctor normally recommends before starting any lifelong medication in a young patient with only borderline readings.
63 / 75
A medical student during exam preparation feels palpitations. He approached a Family Physician, consult about palpitation for last 3 months, increased BP at times (130/85 mm Hg) for last 1 week. On clinical examination his BP measurement was 130/90 mm Hg. The family physician advise would be:
BP 130/85–130/90 mmHg = Stage 1 hypertension but with low cardiovascular risk (young age, no comorbidities).
👉 Guidelines recommend starting with lifestyle modification, not medications.
This includes:
Stress reduction
Exercise
Salt restriction
Healthy sleep
Avoid stimulants (energy drinks, caffeine excess)
Palpitations in an anxious medical student preparing for exams = likely stress-related, not an indication for antihypertensive drugs.
First-line therapy for Stage 1 hypertension without high-risk conditions
Medications reserved for:
Persistent BP ≥140/90
OR comorbidities (DM, CKD, CAD)
Unsaturated fats are actually healthy (olive oil, nuts).
Not the first step in BP control.
Useful as part of lifestyle modification,
BUT the question asks for the best single advice → comprehensive lifestyle change.
Not first-line for hypertension unless specific indications (tachyarrhythmia, angina, post-MI).
Student has palpitations likely from anxiety, not a cardiac condition.
Only used for Stage 2 HTN (≥140/90) or uncontrolled BP.
Completely unnecessary here.
Think about the type of sample that avoids the first washout and prevents contamination from nearby flora.
64 / 75
Category: Renal – Radiology/Medicine
A 20-year-old woman presents for evaluation of dysuria. For a routine UDR (urinalysis), which is the best specimen and handling?
For routine UDR (urinalysis)—especially when evaluating dysuria / possible UTI—the gold-standard specimen is:
👉 Midstream clean-catch urine, after cleaning the perineal area,👉 Processed within 2 hours, or refrigerated to prevent bacterial overgrowth.
This reduces contamination and ensures accurate dipstick + microscopy.
Perineal cleansing ↓ contamination
Midstream sample avoids first flush flora
Analyzing within 2 hours maintains sample integrity
Refrigeration prevents false positives (e.g., nitrites) and false negatives (e.g., cell lysis)
This is exactly what labs recommend.
High contamination risk
First-void is for STI testing, not UTI urinalysis
Also can’t wait 6 hours—cells and casts deteriorate
Not indicated routinely
Used only when patients cannot void, are critically ill, or need sterile sample
Unnecessary + risk of iatrogenic UTI
Warm environment → bacterial overgrowth
Nitrite changes, pH rises, WBCs break down
Completely unacceptable handling
24-hour urine is for quantitative tests (e.g., protein, creatinine clearance)
NEVER for dipstick or routine UDR
Completely incorrect for UTI evaluation
Think of the UTI organism that “doesn’t play with nitrates,” even though it can still trigger inflammation.
65 / 75
A 55-year-old man’s UDR shows positive leukocyte esterase but negative nitrite on dipstick. Which organism most plausibly explains this pattern?
A dipstick pattern of:
Leukocyte esterase: Positive → WBCs present → inflammation/UTI
Nitrite: Negative → organism does NOT convert nitrate → nitrite
Only certain Gram-positive organisms and some Gram-negatives lack nitrate reductase.
👉 Enterococcus faecalis is the classic nitrite-negative UTI organism.
Causes UTI
Does NOT reduce nitrate to nitrite
Hence: LE positive / Nitrite negative patternPerfect match.
Strong nitrate reducers
Should give nitrite-positive dipstick
Most common cause of nitrite-positive UTI
Also nitrate-reducing
Usually nitrite-positive
Nitrate-reducing + urease-producing
Causes nitrite-positive AND alkaline urine
Rare UTI cause, but LE may be positive
However Enterococcus is the classic exam answer
Corynebacterium is not the common choice here
Think of the condition where RBCs get distorted while passing through a damaged filter.
66 / 75
A 32-year-old presents with cola-colored urine. UDR microscopy shows RBC casts and dysmorphic RBCs. Which conclusion is most appropriate? The given explanation best corresponds to which one of the following:
Cola-colored urine + RBC casts + dysmorphic RBCs = Glomerular bleeding.
These findings are diagnostic of a glomerular origin (e.g., PSGN, IgA nephropathy, GN).
RBC casts = formed inside renal tubules → must come from glomeruli
Dysmorphic RBCs = RBCs squeezed through damaged GBM
Cola-colored urine = oxidized heme pigments seen in glomerular diseaseThis triad is CLASSIC.
Has no casts
RBCs are normal in shape
Color is usually pink/red, not tea-/cola-colored
No casts
Normal-shaped RBCs
No dysmorphic RBCs
Urine color usually bright red
WBC casts, eosinophils
NOT RBC casts
Causes gross hematuria, often red
RBCs are normal in morphology
Before fixing numbers on a lab report, stabilize the circulation. Always treat the pressure first.
67 / 75
A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension and chronic kidney disease presents to the emergency department with confusion and lethargy. On examination, his blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, pulse 110/min, and capillary refill time is 3 seconds. His skin is dry, and mucous membranes are parched. Laboratory results show serum sodium 156 mmol/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management step for this patient?
The patient has:
Hypernatremia (Na⁺ 156 mmol/L)
Signs of hypovolemia → low BP, tachycardia, delayed capillary refill, dry mucosa
Confusion + lethargy from dehydration
Chronic kidney disease history → delicate fluid balance needed
👉 FIRST priority is volume resuscitation, not immediate sodium correction.
Therefore: Start with isotonic saline (0.9% NaCl) to restore intravascular volume.
Once stable, you can later switch to hypotonic fluids to correct sodium slowly.
Treats hypovolemic shock, which is the biggest immediate danger
Restores perfusion to brain and kidneys
Prevents worsening AKI
DOES NOT rapidly drop sodium → avoids cerebral edema
Correct emergency approach.
Drops sodium too fast → risk of cerebral edema, seizures, herniation
Dangerous in chronic hypernatremia
Patient is lethargic and confused → unsafe
Too slow in shock
Not appropriate in severe dehydration + hypotension
Hypotonic → will lower sodium too fast
Only used after volume is restored
Dangerous in unstable patients
Not used in hypovolemic hypernatremia
Would worsen sodium retention
Indicated only for central diabetes insipidus
Look at the skin pinch, eyes, and behavior — when all three are significantly abnormal, the diagnosis becomes clearer.
68 / 75
A 3-year-old child is brought to the emergency department with a 3-day history of vomiting and watery diarrhea. On examination, the child is irritable, has sunken eyes, a dry tongue, and skin pinch returns slowly. The mother reports reduced urine output. The estimated fluid loss is approximately 8% of body weight. Which of the following best describes the severity of dehydration in this child?
I’ll confirm this from a Medicine Professor, but according to the slides :-
Dehydration in children is classified based on percentage of body-weight fluid loss:
Mild: 3–5%
Moderate: 6–9%
Severe: ≥10%
This child has 8% fluid loss, which is borderline, but:
👉 The clinical signs take priority over the number.
The child shows:
Irritability
Sunken eyes
Dry tongue / dry mucosa
Slow skin pinch (poor skin turgor)
Reduced urine output (oliguria)
These are classic signs of SEVERE dehydration, regardless of exact % estimate.
Clinical classifications (WHO) say:If two or more severe signs → classify as severe dehydration.
This child has more than two.
Would look normal
No signs like sunken eyes or poor turgor
Thirsty but alert
Normal skin turgor
No sunken eyes
NOT matching exam findings
Some dryness and mild sunken eyes
But skin pinch usually returns slowly ONLY in severe, not moderate
Reduced urine output & irritability more typical of severe
Opposite condition
Would show edema or puffy appearance
Not possible with vomiting + diarrhea
Think of the hormone the heart releases when it is “stretched” by too much fluid.
69 / 75
A 70-year-old man with a history of congestive heart failure presents with progressive shortness of breath and bilateral leg swelling. On examination, he has elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP), bilateral basal crackles, and pitting pedal edema. Which of the following findings best confirms the diagnosis of volume overload due to heart failure?
The patient has classic signs of congestive heart failure with volume overload:
↑ JVP
Basal crackles
Pedal edema
To confirm that the symptoms are due to fluid overload from heart failure, the most specific lab marker is:
👉 BNP (B-type natriuretic peptide)BNP is released when the ventricular walls stretch due to volume and pressure overload.
BNP rises directly due to increased ventricular filling pressure
Helps differentiate heart failure vs non-cardiac causes of dyspnea
High BNP strongly correlates with volume overload
This is the best diagnostic confirmation among the listed options.
Not related to heart failure volume status
Could occur from many causes (iron deficiency, CKD)
Does NOT confirm fluid overload
HF causes dilutional hyponatremia, not dietary deficiency
Not specific and not confirmatory
Dehydration is opposite of volume overload
Heart failure often causes congestion, not dehydration
Again suggests dehydration
Not related to fluid overload from heart failure
Think of the strongest type of diuretic used when kidneys are underperforming and fluid is accumulating fast.
70 / 75
A 55-year-old woman with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is admitted for increasing leg swelling and shortness of breath. She has pitting edema up to h thighs, bilateral lung crackles, and a weight gain of 4 kg in one week. Despite fluid restriction, she remains oliguric. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient’s overhydration?
This CKD patient has severe fluid overload:
Pitting edema up to thighs
Bilateral crackles (pulmonary congestion)
Rapid 4 kg weight gain (≈ 4 L fluid)
Oliguria despite fluid restriction
The next step in management is:
👉 Give a loop diuretic (e.g., furosemide) — the strongest diuretic effective even at low GFR.
Loop diuretics are:
Most potent diuretics
Effective in CKD, even when thiazides fail
Reduce pulmonary congestion quickly
Improve edema and shortness of breath
This is the standard first-line treatment for fluid overload in CKD or heart failure.
Very ineffective when GFR is low
CKD patients do NOT respond well
Not useful in marked overhydration
Patient is already volume overloaded
Would worsen edema and lung congestion
Dangerous
Used for severe symptomatic hyponatremia, not volume overload
Would massively worsen fluid retention
Patient already has pulmonary congestion + edema + oliguria
Needs active management, not observation
Think about whether the patient chose to stop the medicine or accidentally failed to take it.
71 / 75
A 45-year-old male with schizophrenia reports that he discontinued his antipsychotic medication because he believed it was no longer necessary once his symptoms improved. He now complaints of hearing voices, decrease sleep, irritability and anger outbursts. Which of the following BEST describes this type of non-adherence?
This patient chose to stop his antipsychotic medication because he believed he no longer needed it.That is a conscious, deliberate decision — meaning intentional non-adherence.
Patient actively decided to stop treatment
Based on personal belief (“I’m better now, so I don’t need it”)
Very common in schizophrenia due to poor insight
Happens due to forgetfulness, cost, access issues
Not a deliberate choice
NOT the case here
Means continuing medication over time
This patient stopped → opposite of persistence
Means medication is ineffective despite adherence
Here, he stopped medication → relapse due to non-adherence, not resistance
Means taking some doses irregularly
He fully discontinued, not partially
Think about reducing barriers and making the routine easier, not harder.
72 / 75
Laal Baig, A 52-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes and comorbid depression has been prescribed metformin and sertraline. During her third follow-up visit, her HbA1c remains elevated, and she reports taking medications “most of the time.” On further inquiry, she admits missing doses due to complex timing schedules and fear of side effects. Which of the following is the most appropriate strategy to improve her medication adherence?
The patient’s non-adherence is unintentional — caused by:
Complex dosing schedule
Fear of side effects
Difficulty remembering doses
The best evidence-based intervention is:
👉 Simplify the regimen + use pill organizers / remindersThis directly targets the barriers she described.
Reduces cognitive load
Helps with forgetfulness
Pill boxes, mobile reminders, once-daily dosing = proven to improve adherence
Addresses her specific reasons for missing doses
This is the most patient-centered, effective intervention.
Does nothing to improve adherence
Could worsen side effects → reduce adherence further
No evidence sertraline is causing non-adherence
Fear of side effects ≠ actual intolerance
Changing antidepressant does not address the root problem: regimen complexity
Scare tactics reduce trust
Not effective long-term
May worsen her depression or anxiety
Adds more burden
Does not improve daily adherence
Could increase her stress
In emergencies, doctors act based on what a typical patient would want if they were awake and able to choose.
73 / 75
A 45-year-old man is brought unconscious to the emergency department following a road traffic accident with massive internal bleeding. His relatives are not available, and immediate surgery is necessary to save his life. Which of the following ethical and legal principles justifies proceeding with surgery without obtaining prior consent?
When a patient is:
Unconscious
In a life-threatening emergency
Without available relatives
Unable to consent
Doctors are legally and ethically allowed to proceed with life-saving treatment under:
👉 Emergency doctrine (presumed consent)It assumes that a reasonable person would consent to treatment if they were able to.
Applies in urgent, life-saving situations
Protects patient’s life when consent cannot be obtained
Legally accepted worldwide
Does not violate autonomy if delay risks death
Autonomy requires the patient to actively provide consent
Here, the patient cannot exercise autonomy
These principles guide treatment, but
They do not provide legal permission to bypass consent
The emergency doctrine does
Not relevant
No question of fairness or distribution of care here
Used when patient preferences are known (e.g., advanced directive)
Administration cannot consent on behalf of a patient
Think about what the court needs the defendant to be able to do in order for the trial to be fair.
74 / 75
A 35-year-old man with a long history of schizophrenia is charged with assault after attacking a neighbor during a psychotic episode. During court proceedings, he appears confused, cannot recall the event clearly, and repeatedly insists that voices told him to act. The psychiatrist is asked to assess his fitness to plead. Which of the following findings would best indicate that the accused is unfit to plead in court?
“Fitness to plead” (also called competence to stand trial) is NOT about whether the person committed the act.
It is about whether the accused can:
Understand the nature of the charges
Follow court proceedings
Communicate with and instruct their lawyer
Participate in their own defense
If they cannot do these, they are unfit to plead.
This directly reflects lack of competence to stand trial.It is the legal definition of being unfit to plead.
Memory of the event is not required for fitness to plead
Many competent defendants have memory gaps
Indicates psychosis, but not necessarily unfitness
He may still understand court proceedings
This relates more to insanity defense, not fitness to plead
This shows emotional awareness, not unfitness
Does not impair ability to participate in trial
Called anosognosia
Common in schizophrenia
But does NOT prevent him from understanding the charges or court process
Think of the scan that emergency doctors rely on when they want a quick and clear look at stones that hide from X-rays.
75 / 75
Mr Least, A 35-year-old male presents with sudden onset of severe left flank pain radiating to the groin. There is hematuria on urinalysis but the X-ray abdomen is normal. The clinician suspects ureteric colic due to a non-opaque stone. Which imaging modality is most appropriate to confirm the diagnosis?
A patient with:
Sudden severe flank → groin pain
Normal X-ray (so the stone is likely radiolucent, e.g., uric acid, cystine)
👉 The best investigation is Non-contrast CT KUB, which detects all stones—radiopaque and radiolucent—with the highest sensitivity.
Gold standard for suspected ureteric colic
Detects even non-opaque stones not visible on X-ray
Fast, accurate, widely used in emergency
Shows exact location, size, and obstruction
Used for bladder injuries, fistulas, VUR
NOT for ureteric stones
Old test, replaced by CT KUB
Uses contrast → harmful in renal impairment
Misses very small or radiolucent stones
Good for hydronephrosis, pregnancy
Poor at detecting ureteric stones, especially small distal ones
Misses many radiolucent stones
Excellent for soft tissues, but
Stones appear poorly
Not recommended for stone evaluation
Your score is
The average score is 21%
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