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Renal – 2022
Questions from The 2022 Module + Annual Exam of Renal
When something solid enough to block X-rays forms inside the kidney, it’s not soft tissue — it’s something else that shines a light!
1 / 49
Category:
Renal – Radiology/Medicine
A 45-year-old male known case of hypertension presented to OPD complaining of intermittent left-sided dull aching loin pain for 2 months with recently noticed blood in urine, frequency, and burning micturition. On examination:
Temp: 100°F (Normal: 98.6°F)
BP: 170/99 mmHg (Normal: 120/80)
Pulse: 95/min (Normal: 70–100)
RR: 18/min (Normal: 12–16) X-ray KUB showed opacity in the left renal calyces, and renal function tests (RFT) were performed to assess damage.
What could be the radio-opaque shadow seen in KUB?
Renal calculi are crystalline concretions formed in the kidneys from calcium oxalate, phosphate, uric acid, or cystine .
Most contain calcium , making them radio-opaque on plain X-rays.
They typically appear as white opacities in the region of the kidney, ureter, or bladder.
Associated symptoms include loin pain, hematuria, and urinary obstruction .
Hence, in this patient’s KUB X-ray, the opaque shadow in the renal calyces represents a renal stone .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Wrong: Slough off renal papillae:
Seen in papillary necrosis (e.g., diabetes, analgesic nephropathy) ; may appear as filling defects on IVP, but not radio-opaque on plain X-ray.
Gravels filtered from glomeruli:
Necrosis with dystrophic calcification:
Proteins:
Think of the kidney as a balloon — when the outlet is blocked, it’s the pressure inside that slowly stretches and hurts.
2 / 49
Category:
Renal – Pathology
A 45-year-old male known case of hypertension presented to OPD complaining of intermittent left-sided dull aching loin pain for 2 months with recently noticed blood in urine, frequency, and burning micturition. On examination:
Temp: 100°F (Normal: 98.6°F)
BP: 170/99 mmHg (Normal: 120/80)
Pulse: 95/min (Normal: 70–100)
RR: 18/min (Normal: 12–16) X-ray KUB showed opacity in the left renal calyces, and renal function tests (RFT) were performed to assess damage.
What could be the possible cause of dull loin pain in this case?
When renal calculi (kidney stones) obstruct the urinary tract, urine cannot drain freely.
This leads to hydronephrosis — dilation of the renal pelvis and calyces.
The stretching of the renal capsule causes a dull, constant, aching pain in the loin (flank region).
If obstruction becomes complete or infection supervenes, the pain may become sharp and colicky.
Thus, while the stone is the underlying cause, the immediate mechanism producing the dull ache is back pressure from retained urine .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Wrong: Infection: ⚠️ May cause fever and tenderness , but typically gives sharp or burning pain , not a dull ache.
Obstruction to the flow of urine: ⚠️ True in general, but the pain mechanism specifically comes from back pressure , not just the presence of obstruction.
Renal calculi: ⚠️ The primary cause , but the question asks for the mechanism of dull pain — that’s due to back pressure.
Stenosis of renal artery: ❌ Causes ischemic nephropathy and hypertension , not dull loin pain.
When the stone moves or causes acute obstruction , the pain becomes sharp and colicky (renal colic).
When it’s partially obstructing or stationary , the pain is dull and persistent , due to pressure buildup rather than spasm.
Think of the stretchable, waterproof lining that continues from the calyces all the way down to the bladder — it’s the same everywhere urine flows.
3 / 49
Category:
Renal – Histology
A 45-year-old male known case of hypertension presented to OPD complaining of intermittent left-sided dull aching loin pain for 2 months with recently noticed blood in urine, frequency, and burning micturition. On examination:
Temp: 100°F (Normal: 98.6°F)
BP: 170/99 mmHg (Normal: 120/80)
Pulse: 95/min (Normal: 70–100)
RR: 18/min (Normal: 12–16) X-ray KUB showed opacity in the left renal calyces, and renal function tests (RFT) were performed to assess damage.
What is the lining epithelium of the renal calyces?
The renal calyces , renal pelvis , ureters , and urinary bladder are all lined by transitional epithelium , also called urothelium .
This specialized epithelium:
Is stratified , but the surface cells (umbrella cells) can change shape depending on bladder fullness.
Provides a watertight barrier and resists urine toxicity .
Allows distension without tearing or losing integrity.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Wrong: Simple columnar:
Simple cuboidal:
Pseudostratified columnar:
Stratified columnar:
When you need to assess the rate at which a factory is filtering waste, would you prefer to just look at the waste accumulating in the factory’s blood (serum creatinine) or would you prefer a meticulous, time-based measurement of the actual waste filtered into the garbage truck (24-hour urine) versus the blood supply (creatinine clearance) ?
4 / 49
Category:
Renal – Radiology/Medicine
A 45-year-old male known case of hypertension presented to OPD complaining of intermittent left-sided dull aching loin pain for 2 months with recently noticed blood in urine, frequency, and burning micturition. On examination:
Temp: 100°F (Normal: 98.6°F)
BP: 170/99 mmHg (Normal: 120/80)
Pulse: 95/min (Normal: 70–100)
RR: 18/min (Normal: 12–16) X-ray KUB showed opacity in the left renal calyces, and renal function tests (RFT) were performed to assess damage.
Which of the following RFTs was done to show comprehensive functioning of kidneys?
The creatinine clearance test estimates the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) — the most comprehensive indicator of overall kidney function.
It measures how efficiently creatinine (a constant by-product of muscle metabolism) is cleared from blood into urine .
The test requires 24-hour urine collection and plasma creatinine measurement to calculate Creatinine Clearance
This gives a direct estimate of GFR , helping evaluate both kidneys’ performance and any damage caused by obstruction or infection.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Wrong: Urine D/R (detailed report):
Checks for protein, blood, pus cells, crystals , etc.
Useful for infection or hematuria, but not for functional assessment .
X-ray KUB:
Urea, creatinine, electrolytes:
Urine acidification test:
Think of the test that actually watches the urine travel backward — captured live as the child voids on screen.
8 / 49
Category:
Renal – Radiology/Medicine
The investigation of choice to confirm suspected vesico-ureteric reflux in a male toddler is:
MCUG (also called Voiding Cystourethrogram ) is the gold standard test to confirm vesico-ureteric reflux .
The procedure involves:
Filling the bladder with a radiopaque contrast through a catheter.
Taking X-rays during filling and voiding .
Observing for retrograde flow of contrast from the bladder into the ureters or kidneys.
It also helps detect posterior urethral valves and other structural abnormalities of the bladder outlet — important in male toddlers .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Wrong: CT Urography:
Intravenous urography (IVU):
MR Urography:
Ultrasound bladder with pre and post-void volumes:
When the kidney’s “factory manager” for red blood cells goes on strike, the blood runs pale.
9 / 49
Category:
Renal – Radiology/Medicine
A 65-year-old female with chronic kidney disease secondary to hypertension has low erythropoietin levels. The patient is at risk for which of the following conditions?
The kidneys produce erythropoietin , which stimulates erythropoiesis in the bone marrow .
In CKD , damaged renal tissue cannot produce enough EPO → reduced RBC production → normocytic, normochromic anemia .
This type of anemia causes fatigue, pallor, and dyspnea , commonly seen in long-term renal failure.
Treatment involves recombinant EPO therapy along with iron supplementation if needed.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Wrong: Hypokalemia:
Hypophosphatemia:
Hypercalcemia:
Hypomagnesemia:
Think of the kidney as a filter that’s fine but receives no water to filter — the problem begins before the kidney itself.
10 / 49
Category:
Renal – Radiology/Medicine
Which of the following is a cause of pre-renal acute kidney failure? The given explanation best corresponds to which one of the following:
Pre-renal acute kidney failure occurs when there is a drop in blood flow to the kidneys , leading to reduced glomerular filtration rate (GFR) .
Profuse diarrhea causes severe fluid and electrolyte loss , resulting in hypovolemia and decreased renal perfusion .
If uncorrected, this can progress to ischemic injury and acute tubular necrosis (ATN) .
It is reversible if treated early by restoring fluid balance .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Wrong: Nephrotic syndrome:
Prostatic hypertrophy:
Cancer of prostate:
Acute glomerulonephritis:
Before chasing numbers or gases, always ask: “Is the blood acidic or alkaline?” — that single clue guides the rest.
11 / 49
Category:
Renal – Radiology/Medicine
A 55-year-old man with COPD presented to the emergency department with increased severity of shortness of breath. His immediate ABGs show respiratory acidosis. First step in the interpretation of arterial blood gases is to check:
The pH indicates whether the blood is acidic (<7.35) or alkaline (>7.45) .
Once pH is known, the next steps are:
Determine if it’s acidosis or alkalosis (based on pH).
Look at PCO₂ → if it changes in the same direction as pH, it’s respiratory .
Look at HCO₃⁻ → if it changes in the opposite direction to pH, it’s metabolic .
Calculate anion gap or delta–delta only after the primary disorder is identified.
So in this COPD patient, the ABG shows respiratory acidosis , but the first thing to check is the pH to confirm acidemia before determining the cause.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Wrong: Anion gap:
Delta–delta gap:
HCO₃⁻ level:
PCO₂:
Think of the organ that filters the blood — when the body’s “water tank” runs dry, it’s the first to stop working.
12 / 49
Category:
Renal – Radiology/Medicine
In a patient with severe dehydration, which of the organs most commonly becomes non-functional immediately?
The kidneys are highly sensitive to blood volume and pressure .
In severe dehydration, renal perfusion falls sharply , leading to pre-renal acute kidney injury (AKI) .
The glomeruli cannot filter blood adequately, resulting in decreased urine output (oliguria or anuria) .
If uncorrected, this may progress to acute tubular necrosis and permanent kidney damage.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Wrong: Liver:
Lungs:
Pancreas:
Eyes:
When the body’s fluids are drained and consciousness fades, the first drip is the first hope.
13 / 49
Category:
Renal – Radiology/Medicine
A patient presented to the ER with complaints of diarrhea and vomiting for one day. He is semi-conscious and severely dehydrated. First line of management is:
Severe dehydration leads to hypovolemia , hypotension , and impaired consciousness .
Since the patient is semi-conscious , oral fluids are unsafe (risk of aspiration) and ineffective.
IV fluid therapy (e.g., Ringer’s lactate or normal saline) is the first line of management to restore:
Circulating volume
Electrolyte balance
Blood pressure
Renal perfusion
Once stable, oral rehydration and further management (antibiotics if indicated) can follow.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Wrong: IV antibiotics: ❌ Not the first priority. Infection may be present, but immediate correction of shock and dehydration takes precedence.
Oral fluid replacement: ❌ Contraindicated in semi-conscious patients due to risk of aspiration . Suitable only for mild to moderate dehydration in alert patients.
Oral antibiotics: ❌ Not useful in acute management; hydration comes first. Antibiotics are only given if bacterial infection is confirmed or strongly suspected (e.g., cholera, dysentery).
KYB diet (Keep Your Balance / light diet): ❌ Dietary changes are not part of emergency stabilization and only apply later during recovery.
When your judgment is questioned, remember — the ethical response is not insistence, but respect for the right to reassurance.
14 / 49
Category:
Respiration – Community Medicine/Behavioral Sciences
A 40-year-old woman with a history of breast carcinoma is brought by family in a critical care unit with complications of metastasis. You, being an expert, counsel them about the minimum chances of her survival. The family doesn’t agree with your opinion and wishes to approach another specialist. What is the most likely responsibility of the doctor in this scenario?
Patients and families have the right to seek another specialist’s opinion if they doubt a diagnosis or prognosis.
The doctor’s duty is to respect and facilitate this choice — not to react defensively.
Supporting a second opinion builds trust , ensures informed decision-making , and aligns with ethical principles of autonomy and beneficence .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Wrong: Discharge the patient immediately: ❌ Unethical and unprofessional — patients must not be abandoned, especially when critically ill.
Facilitate by counselling: ⚠️ Partially correct, but the core duty here is to support the right to a second opinion , not just offer counselling.
Offer palliative care: ⚠️ Important in advanced cancer, but that comes after the family accepts the diagnosis; this option ignores their current request for another opinion.
Offer psychoeducation: ⚠️ Helpful, but secondary. The ethical issue here is respecting the right to seek another medical opinion , not just providing information.
Think of the circle of care — if the person is inside that circle, sharing helps the patient; if they’re outside , it’s a privacy breach.
15 / 49
Category:
Renal – ComMed/BehSci
During your posting in the behavioral sciences department, you were taught about informational care and sharing of a patient’s personal information when someone else is sometimes important for patient care. Which of the following people would be classified as an “authorized person” or would “need-to-know” personal information?
An authorized person or someone who needs to know patient information is:
Directly involved in the patient’s care , and
Requires the information to provide safe, effective, and coordinated treatment .
For example, a nurse, doctor, psychologist, or social worker involved in the same patient’s case can access relevant information as part of multidisciplinary care .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Wrong: A senior worker not involved in supporting the individual:
A member of the family of the individual that you support:
A colleague who is not involved in supporting care:
Another health personnel from another team providing support to another individual:
Think of a one-time citywide snapshot — you’re not following people or treating them, just counting how many already have it .
16 / 49
Category:
Respiration – Community Medicine/Behavioral Sciences
Daya, a researcher wants to conduct a research study to find the prevalence of diabetes mellitus in Karachi city. Which epidemiological study design is applicable for the above-mentioned study?
A cross-sectional study (also called a prevalence study ) measures both the presence of disease (outcome) and exposure factors at the same time in a defined population.
It is ideal for assessing the burden of disease (like diabetes) in a community — in this case, Karachi .
It helps public health authorities plan interventions and allocate resources.
Example: Surveying a random sample of adults in Karachi, measuring their fasting glucose levels, and recording how many have diabetes — all done once — gives prevalence data .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Wrong: Cohort study:
Case control study:
Experimental study:
Case series:
Think of the immune “fine print”
17 / 49
Category:
Renal – Pathology
Which statement is most appropriate about renal transplantation?
Matching of ABO blood group and major HLA (human leukocyte antigen) types is crucial for reducing rejection risk.
However, minor histocompatibility antigens — though they can contribute to mild rejection — are not required to be matched , as they don’t cause severe immune reactions.
Even with optimal matching, lifelong immunosuppressive therapy is necessary to maintain graft tolerance.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Wrong: ABO compatibility between donor and recipient is a must: ❌ Usually true and preferred , but not an absolute requirement anymore — ABO-incompatible transplants are possible with plasmapheresis and immunosuppressive conditioning , especially in living donors.
Allergen test is performed on potential recipient: ❌ Irrelevant — allergies don’t determine transplant compatibility; HLA typing and crossmatching do.
HLA compatibility is sometimes not required: ❌ Incorrect — HLA matching is always assessed (especially for living donors), though not necessarily perfect; better matching means better long-term graft survival.
Immunosuppressant drugs are prescribed to selective transplant patients: ❌ Wrong — all transplant recipients require lifelong immunosuppive therapy (e.g., tacrolimus, cyclosporine, steroids, mycophenolate).
Think of a chronic bacterial invader that makes the kidney look like a tumor — not a virus in disguise.
18 / 49
Category:
Renal – Pathology
Which statement is least likely to be correct about Xanthogranulomatous Pyelonephritis?
XGP has no association with viral infections — especially not Polyomavirus .
It’s purely bacterial and obstructive in nature, resulting from long-standing infection and poor drainage.
Microscopically, there are foamy (lipid-laden) macrophages , plasma cells , lymphocytes , and multinucleated giant cells .
Grossly, the kidney shows yellow-orange nodules , often mimicking renal cell carcinoma on imaging or at surgery.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Correct (and thus not the answer): Accumulation of foamy macrophages with plasma cells, lymphocytes, giant cells: ✅ True — classic histological hallmark of XGP.
Grossly resembles Renal cell carcinoma: ✅ True — both show yellow nodules; differentiation requires histology.
Rare form of Chronic Pyelonephritis: ✅ True — XGP is an uncommon chronic suppurative infection .
Shows large yellow-orange nodules: ✅ True — due to lipid-laden macrophages , giving a characteristic yellow hue.
Think of the syndrome where proteins, not blood , escape the glomerulus — the urine is frothy, not red.
19 / 49
Category:
Renal – Pathology
Which of the following conditions is least likely to be seen in nephrotic syndrome?
Nephrotic syndrome primarily involves damage to podocytes , which allows protein (not blood) to leak into urine.
The hallmark features are:
Heavy proteinuria (>3.5 g/day)
Hypoalbuminemia
Edema
Hyperlipidemia and lipiduria
Decreased plasma colloid osmotic pressure (due to low plasma proteins)
Hematuria (blood in urine) , on the other hand, is a feature of nephritic syndrome , which involves inflammatory glomerular injury (e.g., post-streptococcal GN, IgA nephropathy).
❌ Why the Other Options Are Wrong: Heavy proteinuria: ✅ Defining feature of nephrotic syndrome — due to glomerular capillary leak.
Selective proteinuria: ✅ Often seen in minimal change disease , a cause of nephrotic syndrome, where mainly albumin is lost.
Hypoalbuminemia: ✅ Result of excessive urinary protein loss.
Decreased plasma colloid osmotic pressure: ✅ Caused by low serum albumin → leads to edema formation.
Think of the aggressive form of GN where the immune system attacks the basement membrane itself — and the glomeruli respond by forming a crescent-shaped scar.
20 / 49
Category:
Renal – Pathology
Anti-GBM antibody-induced glomerulonephritis accounts for fewer than 5% of causes of human glomerulonephritis. Which of the following is an example of this nephropathy?
Anti-GBM antibody–induced GN is a type of rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN) characterized histologically by:
Crescent formation in Bowman’s space (due to proliferation of parietal epithelial cells and macrophage infiltration).
Linear IgG deposition on immunofluorescence along the GBM.
Rapid loss of renal function, often progressing to renal failure within weeks.
Hence, it is classified under crescentic nephropathy — a hallmark of RPGN Type I (anti-GBM disease) .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Wrong: Proliferative nephropathy:
Membranous nephropathy:
Membranoproliferative nephropathy (MPGN):
Mesangioproliferative nephropathy:
Think of the glomerular disease that scars in patches and shows trapped immune footprints
21 / 49
Category:
Renal – Pathology
Which of the following is least frequently associated with focal segmental glomerulosclerosis?
FSGS is not an immune complex–mediated disease , so IgA deposition is not a feature .
On immunofluorescence , FSGS may show nonspecific trapping of IgM and C3 in sclerotic segments — but not IgA .
The hallmark lesion is segmental sclerosis and hyalinosis involving some glomeruli, with podocyte effacement visible on electron microscopy.
Clinically, it presents with proteinuria (often nephrotic range), edema, and hypoalbuminemia.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Wrong: Nephrotic syndrome:
✅ Common presentation of FSGS.
Especially in adults and in secondary causes (HIV, obesity, heroin use).
Some of the glomeruli are normal:
Some of the glomeruli are sclerosed:
IgM deposition on immunofluorescence:
Think of the gut dweller that’s everyone’s usual suspect — when it escapes its home turf and travels upward, it’s almost always behind a simple UTI.
22 / 49
Category:
Renal – Pathology
Which organism is most frequently involved in community-acquired UTI?
E. coli accounts for ~80–85% of community-acquired UTIs .
It possesses fimbriae (pili) that help it adhere to the uroepithelium and resist flushing during urination.
Commonly causes cystitis (burning micturition, frequency, urgency) and sometimes pyelonephritis .
Risk factors include female sex, sexual activity, pregnancy, and diabetes.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Wrong: Klebsiella:
Can cause UTIs, but is more often hospital-acquired .
Often seen in catheterized or immunocompromised patients.
Proteus:
Staphylococcus saprophyticus:
Streptococcus faecalis (Enterococcus faecalis):
Think of the classic “rule of three parts” — your body is roughly two-thirds water, and one-third of that lives outside your cells.
23 / 49
Category:
Renal – Physiology
A 40-year-old man came to the Emergency Room with fever, lethargy, and severe diarrhea for 2 days. An intravenous infusion is started, and his blood sample is sent to the lab for electrolytes. In an average adult male (70 kg in weight or ~155 lb), approximately what percentage of the total body weight is composed of water?
In an average 70 kg adult male , about 60% of body weight is water , distributed as:
💡 Mnemonic:
“60–40–20 rule” → 60% total body water, 40% inside cells, 20% outside.
During severe diarrhea , ECF volume decreases, leading to hypovolemia and electrolyte imbalance — hence why IV fluid replacement is critical.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Wrong: 10% / 20% / 30%:
50%:
Closer, but still underestimates the normal average for healthy adult males.
Women typically have slightly less (~50%) due to higher fat content.
Think of a condition where sugar “pulls” water out with it — the urine becomes both more plentiful and heavier .
24 / 49
Category:
Renal – Physiology
Increased volume (polyuria): Due to osmotic diuresis — glucose pulls water into the tubular lumen.
Increased specific gravity: Because of the presence of glucose and other solutes in urine, which makes it denser.
This combination is typical of uncontrolled diabetes mellitus , often accompanied by polydipsia and polyphagia .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Wrong: Increased volume and decreased specific gravity:
Seen in diabetes insipidus , not diabetes mellitus.
In diabetes insipidus, there’s water loss without solute loss, so urine is dilute and of low specific gravity .
Decreased volume and increased specific gravity:
Normal volume and decreased specific gravity / Normal volume and increased specific gravity:
Think of the vitamin that “carries tiny one-carbon parcels” — without it, your DNA factory runs short on building blocks.
25 / 49
Category:
Renal – Biochemistry
Which of the following serves as the cofactor for the de novo synthesis of purine metabolism?
Folate (in its active form, tetrahydrofolate — THF ) donates one-carbon units during the synthesis of purine rings.
Specifically, N¹⁰-formyl-THF contributes carbon atoms at positions C₂ and C₈ of the purine structure.
Without folate, purine synthesis — and thus DNA and RNA production — slows dramatically, leading to megaloblastic anemia due to impaired cell division.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Wrong: Thiamine (Vitamin B₁):
Functions as thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP) in carbohydrate metabolism (e.g., pyruvate dehydrogenase, α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase).
Plays no role in purine synthesis.
Biotin:
Acts as a CO₂ carrier in carboxylation reactions (e.g., acetyl-CoA carboxylase, pyruvate carboxylase).
Not involved in transferring one-carbon units for purines.
Flavin (Vitamin B₂):
Component of FAD/FMN , coenzymes for oxidation-reduction reactions.
Does not donate carbon groups for nucleotide synthesis.
Caltrate:
Think of a test that measures how quickly your body clears a small, constant “waste signal” from the blood — the same one we track to adjust kidney-safe drug doses.
26 / 49
Category:
Renal – Physiology
A 60-year-old man with a history of diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney failure presents with a 15-day history of dyspnea, cough, malaise, and fever. Which test can be used to determine GFR?
Creatinine clearance is the most commonly used test to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) — the rate at which the kidneys filter plasma.
It measures how efficiently creatinine, a muscle metabolism byproduct, is cleared from the blood into urine over time.
GFR helps assess the stage of renal disease , monitor diabetic nephropathy , and guide drug dosage adjustments in renal failure.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Wrong: Renal scan:
Used mainly for visualizing renal perfusion, function asymmetry, or obstruction , not for calculating exact GFR.
It provides a qualitative idea of renal function, not a precise numerical GFR.
Urinalysis:
Checks for protein, glucose, blood, or infection in urine.
It can indicate kidney damage , but not the filtration rate .
Intravenous pyelogram (IVP):
Serum pyruvate dehydrogenase:
Think of situations where acid is lost or neutralized — the pH shifts where?
27 / 49
Category:
Renal – Biochemistry
Urine retention in the bladder, chronic cystitis, anemia, obstructing gastric ulcers, and alkaline therapy result in:
All the listed conditions — urine retention, chronic cystitis, anemia, obstructing gastric ulcers, and alkaline therapy — contribute to a rise in systemic or urinary pH , leading to a state of alkalosis (excess alkalinity) .
Mechanisms:
Urine retention & chronic cystitis: allow bacterial decomposition of urea → ammonia formation , which makes the urine alkaline .
Obstructing gastric ulcers: cause loss of gastric acid (HCl) through vomiting → increased blood bicarbonate → metabolic alkalosis .
Alkaline therapy: direct intake of bicarbonate or antacids → increases systemic alkalinity.
Anemia may occur secondarily (e.g., from chronic gastric loss) but isn’t the direct cause — it’s part of the overall systemic disturbance.
Hence, collectively these conditions point toward excess alkalinity (alkalosis) .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Wrong Excess acidity: opposite effect — would occur in metabolic acidosis.
Retention of acid metabolites: linked to renal failure or poor perfusion, not to these conditions.
Raised pCO₂: seen in respiratory acidosis , not relevant here.
Raised specific gravity: depends on dehydration, not acid–base status.
When the kidney fails to reclaim its base buffer, the blood turns acidic , even if the lungs are doing their job.
28 / 49
When blood becomes too acidic, the kidneys act like a proton pump , pushing out acid and pulling base back in.
29 / 49
Category:
Renal – Physiology
In response to acidosis, the kidneys may enhance the:
During acidosis , the blood pH drops (H⁺ concentration increases). To restore acid–base balance, the kidneys play a compensatory role by: 1️⃣ Increasing secretion of H⁺ ions into the tubular lumen (mainly in the proximal tubule , distal tubule , and collecting duct ). 2️⃣ Reabsorbing filtered bicarbonate (HCO₃⁻) to conserve base. 3️⃣ Generating new bicarbonate ions through processes like ammonium (NH₄⁺) and phosphate buffering .
This renal compensation helps raise blood pH back toward normal over hours to days.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Wrong Secretion of HCO₃⁻: Would worsen acidosis — this happens during alkalosis , not acidosis.
N₂ retention: Nitrogen gas isn’t regulated in acid–base balance.
Secretion of Na⁺ ions: Sodium is reabsorbed, not secreted, especially when the body is trying to conserve volume.
Secretion of K⁺ ions: H⁺ secretion actually tends to reduce K⁺ secretion ; in acidosis, cells take up fewer K⁺ ions, often leading to hyperkalemia .
The problem isn’t that purines can’t be recycled — it’s that too many are being made right from the start.
30 / 49
Category:
Renal – Biochemistry
A 46-year-old male presents to the emergency department with severe right toe pain. On examination, he was found to have a temperature of 100.8°F (38.2°C) and was in moderate distress secondary to the pain in his right toe. The right big toe was swollen, warm, red, and exquisitely tender. The remainder of the exam was normal. Synovial (joint) fluid was obtained and revealed rod- or needle-shaped crystals. Which enzyme is/are deficient in this disease?
The patient’s description — sudden, intensely painful swelling of the big toe (podagra) with needle-shaped urate crystals in the synovial fluid — is classic for gout . Although most gout is acquired (due to excess uric acid production or decreased excretion), an enzyme deficiency in purine metabolism can predispose to hyperuricemia .
The key enzyme here is HGPRT (Hypoxanthine-Guanine Phosphoribosyltransferase) , part of the purine salvage pathway , which normally salvages hypoxanthine and guanine back to IMP and GMP using PRPP.
When HGPRT is deficient or partially defective , the salvage pathway fails → PRPP accumulates → de novo purine synthesis increases → excess uric acid production → gout .
Partial deficiency = Kelley–Seegmiller syndrome (adult gout). Complete deficiency = Lesch–Nyhan syndrome (neurobehavioral issues + self-mutilation).
❌ Why the Other Options Are Wrong Alkaline phosphatase, PRPP: Alkaline phosphatase isn’t involved in purine metabolism; PRPP is a substrate, not an enzyme.
Adenosine deaminase + HGPRT: ADA deficiency → SCID , not gout.
HGPRT + PRPP: PRPP (phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate) isn’t an enzyme, so this combination is invalid.
Phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate: It’s a substrate synthesized by PRPP synthetase — overactivity of PRPP synthetase may cause gout, but deficiency does not.
Think of the fluid that doesn’t just replace water — it also brings electrolytes and a mild buffer to fix the dehydration and the metabolic acidosis.
31 / 49
Category:
Renal – Physiology
A one-year-old baby is admitted to the hospital with complaints of diarrhea and vomiting. On examination, the baby is lethargic and weak, and on pinching the abdominal skin, it goes back slowly. Which intravenous fluid is given to rehydrate the baby?
The baby presents with signs of dehydration — lethargy, weakness, vomiting, diarrhea, and poor skin turgor (skin going back slowly after pinching). This is a case of isotonic (fluid and electrolyte) dehydration , common in infants after gastrointestinal fluid loss .
The ideal IV fluid should replace both water and electrolytes , mimicking extracellular fluid composition .
Lactated Ringer’s solution (Ringer’s lactate) contains:
This makes it the best choice for rehydrating a baby with dehydration due to diarrhea and vomiting.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Wrong Normal saline (0.9% NaCl): Can restore intravascular volume but lacks K⁺ and buffer , so it doesn’t correct metabolic acidosis that often accompanies diarrhea.
Haemaccel: A colloid solution; used for hypovolemia or shock , not for simple dehydration.
5% dextrose solution: Provides free water , not electrolytes — can worsen hyponatremia in dehydrated infants.
Hypertonic saline (3% NaCl): Used for severe hyponatremia , not for rehydration; can cause dangerous fluid shifts.
Think of the pyrimidine base that “skips the blocked step” — giving the cell the U it’s missing.
32 / 49
Category:
Renal – Biochemistry
A one-year-old baby boy attends the emergency department with complaints of weakness and growth retardation. He is lethargic and anemic. Blood analysis shows megaloblastic anemia, and urine analysis shows increased excretion of orotic acid. The administration of which of the following compounds is most likely to alleviate his symptoms?
This presentation describes orotic aciduria , a rare autosomal recessive disorder caused by a deficiency of uridine monophosphate (UMP) synthase — an enzyme complex that catalyzes the final two steps of de novo pyrimidine synthesis :
1️⃣ Orotate phosphoribosyltransferase (OPRTase) converts orotic acid → orotidine monophosphate (OMP) . 2️⃣ OMP decarboxylase then converts OMP → uridine monophosphate (UMP) .
When this enzyme is deficient, orotic acid accumulates in the urine, and pyrimidine nucleotides (especially UMP) are deficient. This leads to megaloblastic anemia and growth retardation , because DNA synthesis is impaired.
Treatment: Administration of uridine bypasses the enzyme block — it gets converted to UMP , replenishing pyrimidine pools, correcting the anemia, and alleviating symptoms.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Wrong Adenine & Guanine: Purine bases — supplementing them won’t fix a pyrimidine synthesis defect.
Hypoxanthine: Also a purine precursor; relevant to Lesch–Nyhan syndrome , not orotic aciduria.
Thymidine: A pyrimidine nucleoside but downstream of UMP — it cannot substitute for the missing UMP synthase function.
If a drug disappears from plasma faster than filtration alone would allow, it’s being actively pushed out by the tubules — not passively lost.
33 / 49
Category:
Renal – Physiology
If a patient has a GFR value of 100 mL/min and is known to be clearing a therapeutic drug at a rate of 150 mL/min, which of the following statements accurately describes the renal processing of this drug? (You have no knowledge of the specific renal processing.)
When a substance’s clearance (C) is compared with the glomerular filtration rate (GFR):
C = GFR: The substance is filtered only (no secretion or reabsorption) → e.g., inulin, creatinine (approx.).
C < GFR: The substance is reabsorbed after filtration → e.g., glucose, amino acids.
C > GFR: The substance is secreted into the tubule → e.g., PAH (para-aminohippuric acid), certain drugs.
In this case:
GFR = 100 mL/min
Drug clearance = 150 mL/min
Because clearance exceeds GFR , it means additional drug is being secreted into the tubular lumen beyond what was filtered at the glomerulus.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Wrong No overall evaluation can be made: Incorrect — we can infer secretion based on clearance alone.
Similar to amino acids: Amino acids are reabsorbed , giving C < GFR , not greater.
Since clearance > GFR, the drug is likely reabsorbed: Opposite of the correct interpretation.
TM (transport maximum) exceeded: TM applies to saturable reabsorptive transport , not to explain clearance > GFR.
If nothing shows up in urine, the clearance — no matter how fast filtration occurs .. is :p
34 / 49
Category:
Renal – Physiology
Using the following values, calculate the clearance of “x”: V = 2 mL/min; U = 0 mg/mL; P = 13.6 mg/mL
To calculate renal clearance, we use the standard formula:
Clearance (C) = (U × V) / P
Where:
U = concentration of substance in urine (mg/mL)
V = urine flow rate (mL/min)
P = plasma concentration (mg/mL)
Substitute the given values:
C = (0 × 2) / 13.6
C = 0 / 13.6
C = 0 mL/min
Since U = 0 mg/mL , no substance “x” is excreted in the urine — meaning it is either completely reabsorbed or not filtered at all.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Wrong 0.5, 1, 2, or 13.6 mL/min: These would only apply if the urinary concentration (U ) were greater than zero. Here, since U = 0 , all yield zero clearance .
Think of the part of the nephron that’s a busy reabsorption hub — it reclaims nearly everything and fine-tunes acid–base balance early on.
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Category:
Renal – Physiology
The sodium–hydrogen antiporters that are involved in hydrogen ion secretion are located in which segment of the renal tubule?
The sodium–hydrogen antiporters (Na⁺/H⁺ exchangers) are located in the apical membrane of the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) . This antiporter plays a key role in acid–base balance and bicarbonate reabsorption :
Na⁺ enters the tubular cell from the lumen in exchange for H⁺ , which is secreted into the tubular fluid.
The secreted H⁺ combines with filtered HCO₃⁻ to form H₂CO₃ , which then dissociates into CO₂ + H₂O (via carbonic anhydrase).
CO₂ diffuses back into the cell, where it reforms HCO₃⁻ , which is transported into the blood.
This mechanism is secondary active transport , driven by the Na⁺ gradient established by the Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase on the basolateral membrane.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Wrong Collecting duct: H⁺ secretion here occurs via H⁺-ATPase pumps, not Na⁺/H⁺ exchangers.
Distal convoluted tubule: Mainly uses Na⁺/Cl⁻ cotransporters , not Na⁺/H⁺ antiporters.
Loop of Henle – thick segment: Uses the Na⁺–K⁺–2Cl⁻ cotransporter (NKCC2) , not Na⁺/H⁺ exchange.
Loop of Henle – thin segment: Has minimal active transport; solute movement is mostly passive diffusion.
Think of the nephron segment that pumps out salts but refuses to let water follow — it’s the architect of the kidney’s salt gradient.
36 / 49
Category:
Renal – Physiology
Which part of the renal tubule is impermeable to water, while solutes (Na⁺, Cl⁻) pass out passively into the medullary interstitial space?
The thin ascending limb of the loop of Henle is impermeable to water but allows passive diffusion of solutes (mainly Na⁺ and Cl⁻ ) into the medullary interstitium .
This occurs because:
The concentration of solutes in the tubular fluid is high after the descending limb (which reabsorbs water).
As the fluid ascends, NaCl diffuses out passively , but water cannot follow due to the wall’s impermeability to water.
This process contributes to the hyperosmotic medulla , essential for urine concentration.
❌ Incorrect Options: Thick ascending limb: Impermeable to water, but solutes (Na⁺, K⁺, Cl⁻) move actively , not passively.
Descending limb: Permeable to water , not solutes.
Proximal convoluted tubule: Permeable to both water and solutes — most reabsorption occurs here.
Distal convoluted tubule: Limited water permeability (depends on ADH) and active solute transport.
Think of the transporter that starts working first in the PCT — it grabs glucose in bulk before the fine-tuning one takes over later.
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Category:
Renal – Physiology
All of the glucose is reabsorbed from the proximal convoluted tubule. Approximately 90% of the filtered glucose is reabsorbed in the early part of the proximal convoluted tubule. Which of the following glucose transporters are involved in transporting the major amount of glucose out of the tubular lumen from the brush border epithelium into the cell?
In the early part of the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) , about 90% of filtered glucose is reabsorbed by the Na⁺–Glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT2) located on the apical (luminal) membrane of tubular epithelial cells.
How it works:
SGLT2 couples 1 Na⁺ ion with 1 glucose molecule (1:1 ratio).
It uses the Na⁺ gradient created by the Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase on the basolateral membrane — this is a form of secondary active transport .
Once inside the cell, glucose diffuses into the peritubular capillaries via the GLUT2 transporter on the basolateral membrane .
In the late PCT , the remaining 10% of glucose is reclaimed by SGLT1 , which is more efficient but has a lower capacity.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Wrong GLUT1: Found in late PCT (S3 segment) for basolateral glucose exit, not for luminal uptake.
GLUT2: Basolateral transporter that facilitates glucose efflux into blood , not luminal entry.
GLUT4: Insulin-dependent transporter found in muscle and adipose tissue , not in renal tubules.
SGLT1: Active in the late PCT and reabsorbs the remaining ~10% of glucose, not the major portion.
Think of the fluid after it’s climbed the “waterproof” wall of the loop — salt leaves, water stays, so what’s left behind is diluted .
38 / 49
Category:
Renal – Physiology
What is the tonicity of urine as it enters the renal collecting duct?
When the tubular fluid leaves the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle and enters the collecting duct , it is hypotonic relative to plasma.
Here’s why:
The thick ascending limb actively reabsorbs Na⁺, K⁺, and Cl⁻ via the Na⁺–K⁺–2Cl⁻ cotransporter , but it is impermeable to water .
As solutes leave but water cannot follow, the tubular fluid becomes progressively dilute (hypotonic) .
By the time it reaches the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct , its osmolarity is typically around 100 mOsm/L , much lower than plasma (~300 mOsm/L).
From this point onward, ADH (vasopressin) determines the final urine tonicity:
❌ Why the Other Options Are Wrong Hypertonic: Occurs after ADH acts on the collecting ducts, not before it enters.
Hypertonic or isotonic, but never hypotonic: Incorrect — urine is dilute (hypotonic) when entering the duct.
Hypotonic or isotonic, but never hypertonic: Too broad; the entering filtrate is definitively hypotonic under normal conditions.
Isotonic: The filtrate was isotonic only at the end of the proximal tubule , not at the entry to the collecting duct.
This transporter doesn’t burn ATP directly — it just hitches a ride on the sodium gradient that does.
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Think of the nephron type that “dives deep” into the medulla — where the salt gradient becomes the key to saving water.
40 / 49
Only about one out of every five drops of plasma entering the kidney gets filtered — the rest keeps the nephron alive and working.
41 / 49
Category:
Renal – Physiology
In a healthy individual, what percentage of the effective renal plasma flow would you expect to pass into the glomerular capsule?
In a healthy individual, around 15–20% of the effective renal plasma flow (ERPF) is filtered through the glomerulus into Bowman’s capsule — this is known as the filtration fraction (FF) .
This fraction represents the portion of plasma that actually becomes glomerular filtrate , while the rest continues into the efferent arteriole to supply the renal tubules.
Formula:
Filtration Fraction (FF) = GFR / RPF
Typical values:
GFR = 125 mL/min
RPF = 600 mL/min
FF = 125 / 600 = 0.21 → ~20%
So, about one-fifth of the plasma entering the glomerulus is filtered.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Wrong Less than 5%: Way too low — would indicate severe filtration impairment.
Between 40 and 50%: Unrealistically high; kidneys would lose excessive plasma volume.
Between 70 and 80%: Physiologically impossible; filtration this high would deplete plasma rapidly.
Greater than 90%: Completely incompatible with life — no plasma would remain for renal perfusion
It’s the middle region of the urogenital sinus — the one that lies between the bladder above and the external opening below.
42 / 49
Category:
Renal – Embryology
Entire urethra in females develops from which part of the urogenital sinus?
In females, the entire urethra develops from the pelvic part of the urogenital sinus . During embryogenesis, the urogenital sinus divides into three regions:
1️⃣ Vesical part → forms most of the urinary bladder (except trigone). 2️⃣ Pelvic part → gives rise to the entire female urethra and lower part of the vagina . 3️⃣ Phallic part → contributes to the vestibule of the vagina in females (the external opening area).
Hence, the pelvic part is responsible for forming the tubular urethra extending from the bladder to the vestibule.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Wrong Tip: There’s no “tip” region in the urogenital sinus; this option is a distractor.
Vesical part: Forms the bladder , not the urethra.
Phallic part: Forms the vestibule of the vagina , not the urethra itself.
Widest part: Anatomically imprecise — the sinus isn’t divided by width but by embryological regions (vesical, pelvic, phallic).
Think of the cell that “wraps around capillaries with tiny feet” — it doesn’t just watch filtration; it shapes it.
43 / 49
Category:
Renal – Histology
Microscopically, Bowman’s capsule consists of an inner visceral and outer parietal layer. Cells lining the inner visceral layer have star-shaped bodies with primary and secondary cell processes. Those cells are termed as:
The visceral layer of Bowman’s capsule is formed by podocytes — specialized epithelial cells with a stellate (star-shaped) body. Each podocyte gives off primary processes that branch into numerous secondary foot processes (pedicels) , which interdigitate with neighboring cells to form filtration slits . These slits are bridged by a thin slit diaphragm , a key part of the glomerular filtration barrier .
Podocytes play a vital role in maintaining selective filtration and preventing protein loss in urine. Injury to podocytes (e.g., in minimal change disease or diabetic nephropathy) leads to proteinuria .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Wrong Brushed cells: Found in the proximal convoluted tubule , not in Bowman’s capsule. Their brush border (microvilli) increases surface area for reabsorption.
Endothelium: Lines the glomerular capillaries , not Bowman’s capsule. It is fenestrated , forming part of the filtration barrier but not the visceral layer.
Mesangial cells: Located between glomerular capillaries; they provide structural support , secrete matrix and cytokines , and have phagocytic properties — but they don’t form the capsule lining.
Simple cuboidal cells: These line tubular structures like the PCT and DCT , not the visceral layer of Bowman’s capsule.
Think about the unique permeability of glomerular capillaries — they’re not sealed off like other vessels; they’re full of pores for a reason.
44 / 49
Category:
Renal – Histology
Which of the following is not part of the renal filtration barrier?
The renal filtration barrier is a highly specialized tri-layered structure designed to selectively filter blood plasma while retaining cells and large proteins. It ensures that essential molecules like glucose and amino acids can pass through while keeping albumin and blood cells inside the circulation.
It consists of three key components (from inside to outside): 1️⃣ Fenestrated endothelium of glomerular capillaries — allows plasma through but blocks blood cells. 2️⃣ Glomerular basement membrane (basal lamina) — acts as a size and charge barrier. 3️⃣ Podocyte foot processes with slit diaphragms — fine-tune filtration selectivity at the outermost layer.
There is no continuous epithelium in this barrier — the endothelium is fenestrated specifically to allow ultrafiltration.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Wrong Podocytes: These form the visceral layer of Bowman’s capsule and create slit diaphragms between foot processes — a crucial part of the filtration barrier.
Fenestrated endothelium of glomerular capillaries: The first filtration layer. Its pores (~70–100 nm) allow water and solutes but not cells to pass through.
Basal lamina (glomerular basement membrane): The shared basement membrane between endothelium and podocytes, rich in type IV collagen and heparan sulfate, providing both mechanical strength and charge selectivity.
Endothelial cells: They line the glomerular capillaries and contribute to the fenestrations forming part of the barrier.
When urine leaks continuously in a girl, but bladder control seems normal, suspect a misplaced ureter sneaking open into the vagina.
45 / 49
Follow the ureter downward — it borrows blood from whoever’s nearby: renal up top , gonadal in the middle , and vesical below .
46 / 49
Think “S for Sacral” — that’s where the spinal switch for the bladder’s reflex lives.
47 / 49
Remember it like wrapping a gift — fat (para) outside, fascia to hold it, fat (peri) to cushion it, and capsule to seal it.
48 / 49
Category:
Renal – Anatomy
The sequence of coverings of the kidney from outwards to inwards is :
Renal capsule, renal fascia, perinephric fat, paranephric fat
Renal capsule, paranephric fat, perinephric fat, renal fascia
Perinephric fat, renal fascia, paranephric fat, renal capsule
Paranephric fat, renal fascia, perinephric fat, renal capsule
Renal fascia, perinephric fat, paranephric fat, renal capsule
From outside to inside , the coverings of the kidney are arranged as follows:
1️⃣ Paranephric (pararenal) fat — outermost layer, between posterior abdominal wall and renal fascia. 2️⃣ Renal fascia (Gerota’s fascia) — encloses kidney and adrenal gland; anchors them in place. 3️⃣ Perinephric (perirenal) fat — surrounds kidney and adrenal gland within the fascia, acting as cushioning. 4️⃣ Renal capsule — tough fibrous covering tightly adherent to kidney surface.
Why others are wrong: ❌ Other options mix up the order — particularly confusing paranephric and perinephric layers.
Think of the columns as “fingers of cortex” dipping down between the medullary pyramids — not the other way around.
49 / 49
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