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Renal – 2019
Questions from The 2019 Module + Annual Exam of Renal
Think about which contraceptive method is easiest to access, inexpensive, usable without medical procedure, and can be used both for spacing births and immediate protection. Which one of the listed methods fits those criteria best?
1 / 98
Think of the fluid that most closely mimics blood plasma for quickly restoring circulating volume .
2 / 98
Think of the substance that “carries” other molecules around but doesn’t really carry electricity on its own
3 / 98
Think of a chronic kidney infection with obstruction and lipid-laden macrophages , often associated with urease-producing bacteria .
4 / 98
Think of a glomerular disease with immune complexes, mesangial cell proliferation, and “tram-track” basement membranes .
5 / 98
Category:
Renal – Pathology
Which of the following is a disease that includes the proliferation of cells, infiltration of leukocytes, and deposition of immune complexes in glomerular mesangium and basement membrane?
MPGN is a chronic glomerular disease characterized by:
Proliferation of glomerular cells (mesangial and endothelial cells)
Infiltration of leukocytes
Deposition of immune complexes in the mesangium and along the glomerular basement membrane (GBM)
Histologically: “Tram-track” appearance of GBM on light microscopy
Clinical features:
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: Nephritic syndrome: Clinical syndrome, not a specific histologic pattern
Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis: Immune complex deposition in GBM, usually diffuse and subepithelial , not primarily mesangial proliferation
Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis: Segmental sclerosis of glomeruli; no significant immune complex deposition
None of these: Incorrect; MPGN fits the description
Think of the level of the pylorus of the stomach (transpyloric plane) —the kidney hilum is roughly at the same horizontal line .
6 / 98
Think of the small “extra push” the kidney gives to clear creatinine beyond what is filtered at the glomerulus.
7 / 98
Category:
Renal – Physiology
Which is true about creatinine during glomerular filtration at normal levels?
Creatinine is a breakdown product of creatine phosphate in muscle.
Renal handling:
Clinical relevance:
Because creatinine is mostly filtered and slightly secreted , its plasma levels slightly overestimate GFR .
This tubular secretion increases as kidney function declines , which is important to consider when estimating renal function.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: Excreted by the tubule: Excretion is mostly due to filtration , not active tubular excretion.
Reabsorbed by the tubule: False; creatinine is not reabsorbed.
Neither secreted nor reabsorbed: False; there is minor tubular secretion .
Secreted and reabsorbed: False; only secretion occurs.
Think of the tiny gaps between podocyte foot processes —small enough to let water and solutes pass but block most proteins .
8 / 98
Think of the cortical tubule with the fuzzy inner lining (brush border) that actively reabsorbs most of the filtrate
9 / 98
Category:
Renal – Histology
Which of the following is a histological feature of the renal cortex?
Renal cortex histology:
Proximal convoluted tubules (PCT):
Lined by simple cuboidal epithelium with a brush border (microvilli)
Brush border increases surface area for reabsorption of water, electrolytes, and nutrients
Distal convoluted tubules (DCT):
Glomerulus:
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: Cuboidal epithelium lining Bowman’s capsule: Only the parietal layer ; not a functional feature like PCT
Simple columnar epithelium in DCT: DCT is cuboidal, not columnar
Glomerulus containing podocytes: True, but not considered a tubular cortical histological feature
None of these: Incorrect
Think of the activated ribose sugar molecule that acts as the backbone for purine nucleotide assembly .
10 / 98
Category:
Renal – Biochemistry
Ribosyl moiety in purine synthesis is donated by which of the following?
In de novo purine synthesis , the ribose sugar for the nucleotide is donated by phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate (PRPP) .
PRPP:
Synthesized from ribose-5-phosphate (from the pentose phosphate pathway)
Provides the ribose-phosphate backbone to which purine bases are attached to form IMP, AMP, GMP
Other options:
Glutamine: Donates nitrogen atoms for purine ring
Inosine monophosphate (IMP): Intermediate nucleotide, not a ribose donor
Tetrahydrofolate: Donates one-carbon groups (formyl groups)
Aspartate: Donates nitrogen and carbon in ring formation
Think of the hormonal system that constricts blood vessels and retains sodium to increase blood pressure .
11 / 98
Think of the definitive proof — what you can see under the microscope directly from the affected joint .
12 / 98
Think of a pyrimidine synthesis defect that leads to DNA synthesis problems and orotic acid buildup in urine .
13 / 98
Category:
Renal – Biochemistry
Megaloblastic anemia is associated with which of the following defects in nucleotide metabolism?
Megaloblastic anemia is caused by impaired DNA synthesis , often due to defective nucleotide metabolism .
Orotic aciduria:
Rare autosomal recessive disorder
Caused by deficiency of UMP synthase , an enzyme in de novo pyrimidine synthesis
Leads to accumulation of orotic acid and defective DNA synthesis → megaloblastic anemia
Not responsive to vitamin B12 or folate (distinguishing feature)
Other options:
Lesch-Nyhan syndrome (LNS): Purine salvage defect → hyperuricemia, neurological symptoms, not anemia
Hyperuricemia and gout: Result of purine degradation, unrelated to anemia
Adenosine deaminase deficiency: Causes SCID , not megaloblastic anemia
Think of tissues with high energy and nucleic acid demands versus tissues that mostly recycle purines instead of making them from scratch .
14 / 98
Think of an enzyme that oxidizes uric acid into a more water-soluble compound , allowing easier excretion in most mammals — but this enzyme is absent in humans and other primates .
15 / 98
Category:
Renal – Biochemistry
Mammals other than primates synthesize which of the following substances from uric acid?
In most mammals (non-primate species) , uric acid is further metabolized by the enzyme uricase (urate oxidase) into allantoin , a compound that is much more soluble in water and thus more easily excreted in urine.
The reaction is as follows:
Uric acid+O2+H2O→Allantoin+H2O2+CO2\text{Uric acid} + O_2 + H_2O → \text{Allantoin} + H_2O_2 + CO_2Uric acid+O2+H2O→Allantoin+H2O2+CO2
Humans and higher primates lack the uricase enzyme , which is why uric acid remains the end product of purine metabolism and must be excreted directly. This evolutionary loss is associated with higher serum uric acid levels — beneficial as an antioxidant but also predisposing to gout when levels become excessive.
❌ Explanation of Incorrect Options Glyoxylic acid: Involved in glycine and oxalate metabolism, not purine catabolism. It has no connection to uric acid breakdown.
Ammonia: Ammonia arises mainly from amino acid deamination , not from uric acid oxidation. Uric acid metabolism involves oxidative steps, not deamination.
Urea: Urea is produced in the urea cycle from ammonia and CO₂ — not from uric acid. The two processes are distinct: urea cycle handles nitrogen disposal, while uric acid metabolism handles purine degradation.
It is excreted directly in urine without being converted: This is true only for humans and higher primates , not for most mammals. Other mammals convert uric acid into allantoin before excretion.
Think of the diuretic that works on the “loop” of Henle and is more potent than thiazides .
16 / 98
Category:
Renal – Pharmacology
Which of the following is an example of loop diuretics?
Loop diuretics act on the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle :
Mechanism: Inhibit the Na⁺-K⁺-2Cl⁻ symporter , causing significant sodium, chloride, and water excretion .
Examples:
Furosemide
Bumetanide
Torsemide
Other options:
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Think of a child with edema, cola-colored urine, and hypertension after a sore throat or skin infection — classic nephritic picture .
17 / 98
Category:
Renal – Pathology
Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis causes which of the following?
Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN) is an immune-mediated kidney disorder that occurs after a streptococcal infection (usually pharyngitis or skin infection ).
Key features:
Hematuria: Often cola-colored urine
Oliguria: Reduced urine output
Mild proteinuria (not massive, unlike nephrotic syndrome)
Edema and hypertension
Lab findings:
Classification:
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: Urinary tract infection: PSGN is not caused by active infection of the urinary tract.
Alport syndrome: Genetic disorder affecting collagen in GBM; not post-infectious.
Nephrolithiasis: Kidney stones; unrelated.
Nephrotic syndrome: Characterized by heavy proteinuria (>3.5 g/day), hypoalbuminemia, edema , which is not typical of PSGN .
Think of the most frequent intrinsic kidney injury caused by ischemia or nephrotoxins , often seen in hospitalized patients.
18 / 98
Category:
Renal – Pathology
Which of the following is the most common cause of acute renal failure?
Acute renal failure (ARF) , also called acute kidney injury (AKI) , can result from:
Pre-renal causes: Decreased renal perfusion (hypovolemia, shock)
Intrinsic renal causes: Damage to kidney tissue
Post-renal causes: Obstruction of urinary tract
Most common cause of intrinsic AKI: Acute tubular necrosis (ATN)
Etiology: Ischemia (prolonged hypoperfusion) or nephrotoxins (drugs, toxins)
Pathophysiology: Death of tubular epithelial cells → impaired filtration and reabsorption
Clinical clue: Oliguria/anuria, muddy brown granular casts in urine
Other options:
Renal papillary necrosis: Less common, associated with analgesic overuse or diabetes
Polycystic kidney disease: Chronic, not acute
Acute interstitial nephritis: Allergic/drug-induced, less common than ATN
Decreased blood flow to kidney: Pre-renal cause; can lead to ATN if prolonged
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: Renal papillary necrosis: Rare, usually secondary to another condition
Polycystic kidney disease: Chronic disease, not acute
Acute interstitial nephritis: Accounts for a smaller percentage of AKI cases
Decreased renal blood flow: Pre-renal, often reversible; ATN is the leading intrinsic cause
Think of a condition where acidosis occurs without accumulating unusual acids , and the chloride rises to keep the gap normal .
19 / 98
Category:
Renal – Physiology
Normal anion gap with metabolic acidosis is seen in which of the following conditions?
Metabolic acidosis can be classified based on the anion gap (AG):
AG=[Na+]−([Cl−]+[HCO3−])AG=[Na+]−([Cl−]+[HCO3−])
Normal AG (~12 ± 4 mEq/L) → hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis
Increased AG → accumulation of organic acids (lactic acidosis, ketoacidosis, uremia)
Renal tubular acidosis (RTA):
Defect in renal tubular H⁺ secretion (distal RTA) or HCO₃⁻ reabsorption (proximal RTA)
Leads to normal AG metabolic acidosis because Cl⁻ rises to maintain electroneutrality (hyperchloremic)
Commonly associated with hypokalemia
Other conditions:
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: Chronic kidney disease: Accumulation of organic acids → high AG
Lactic acidosis / Ketoacidosis: High AG metabolic acidosis
None of these: Incorrect because RTA clearly produces normal AG acidosis
Think of a child with heavy proteinuria, edema, and normal urine sediment except for lipids , with foot process effacement on electron microscopy .
20 / 98
Category:
Renal – Pathology
A 12-year-old girl is brought to the clinic because of swelling around her eyes. On physical examination, she is afebrile and has periorbital edema. Laboratory findings show proteinuria on dipstick urinalysis, but no gross or microscopic hematuria. Microscopic examination of the urine shows numerous oval fat bodies. Serum creatinine level is 2.3 mg/dL. On electron microscopy, effacement of foot processes is seen. What is most likely the diagnosis?
Clues from the case:
Patient: 12-year-old girl
Symptoms:
Urinalysis:
Microscopy:
Serum creatinine: 2.3 mg/dL → indicates some degree of renal impairment
Electron microscopy:
Other features of MCD:
Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children
Often idiopathic or triggered by allergies/viral infections
Usually normal complement levels
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis: Nephritic syndrome → hematuria, hypertension, low complement
Pyelonephritis / Cystitis: Infection → fever, dysuria, WBCs in urine; does not cause heavy proteinuria or foot process effacement
Acute kidney injury: Can occur secondary to various insults; does not explain isolated nephrotic features with foot process effacement
Think of the most frequent gut bacterium that ascends the urinary tract to infect the kidneys.
21 / 98
Think of the urea transporters in the inner medulla that ADH uses to help the kidney concentrate urine by recycling urea.
22 / 98
This molecule is a key crossroad — it can start the TCA cycle, help in gluconeogenesis , and is regenerated at the end of the cycle. Think of it as the “doorway” through which many metabolic pathways meet.
23 / 98
Category:
GIT – Biochemistry
Aspartate enters the tricarboxylic acid cycle (TCA cycle) in the form of which of the following?
Aspartate enters the TCA cycle after undergoing transamination — a reversible reaction where it donates its amino group to α-ketoglutarate, forming glutamate and oxaloacetate .
Aspartate+α-ketoglutarate⇌Oxaloacetate+Glutamate\text{Aspartate} + \alpha\text{-ketoglutarate} ⇌ \text{Oxaloacetate} + \text{Glutamate}Aspartate+α-ketoglutarate⇌Oxaloacetate+Glutamate
This reaction is catalyzed by aspartate transaminase (AST or GOT) . Oxaloacetate then serves as an intermediate of the TCA cycle , condensing with acetyl-CoA to form citrate in the first step of the cycle.
Thus, aspartate contributes to the anaplerotic replenishment of oxaloacetate, helping maintain TCA cycle function — a vital link between amino acid metabolism and cellular respiration.
❌ Explanation of Incorrect Options α-Ketoglutarate: This is the recipient of aspartate’s amino group during transamination, not the product. Aspartate helps form α-ketoglutarate indirectly via glutamate, but it itself becomes oxaloacetate.
Succinic acid (succinate): Formed later in the TCA cycle from fumarate, not directly from aspartate. Aspartate doesn’t bypass into this step.
Fumarate: Produced from aspartate in the urea cycle , not in the TCA cycle. Specifically, in the argininosuccinate lyase step, aspartate contributes to fumarate formation — but that fumarate then enters the TCA cycle secondarily, not directly.
Citrate: Citrate is the first product of the TCA cycle, formed from oxaloacetate and acetyl-CoA. Aspartate never directly becomes citrate — it first must become oxaloacetate.
Think of the enzyme that removes the phosphate from nucleotides to produce free nucleosides , the first step in purine degradation.
24 / 98
Category:
Renal – Biochemistry
During degradation of purine nucleotides to uric acid, inosine monophosphate and guanosine monophosphate are broken down by which of the following enzymes?
During purine degradation :
Inosine monophosphate (IMP) and guanosine monophosphate (GMP) are nucleotides , which must first be converted to nucleosides .
5′-nucleotidase removes the phosphate group from IMP and GMP → forming inosine and guanosine , respectively.
These nucleosides are then further broken down:
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: Guanylate kinase: Converts GMP → GDP (phosphorylation), not degradation.
Adenosine deaminase: Acts on adenosine → inosine , not IMP or GMP.
Ribonucleotide reductase: Converts ribonucleotides → deoxyribonucleotides, not degradation.
Xanthine oxidase: Acts later in the pathway (xanthine → uric acid), not at the nucleotide-to-nucleoside step.
Think of the pathway that recycles purine bases . If it fails, you get high uric acid and neurological symptoms .
25 / 98
Category:
Renal – Biochemistry
Lesch Nyhan syndrome is due to a defect in which of the following processes?
Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is a rare X-linked recessive disorder caused by a deficiency of the enzyme hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase (HGPRT) .
HGPRT is critical for the purine salvage pathway , which recycles hypoxanthine and guanine into IMP and GMP .
Defect in HGPRT → purine bases cannot be salvaged → increased degradation of purines to uric acid → hyperuricemia .
Clinical features:
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: Purine biosynthesis: De novo synthesis is unaffected.
Purine degradation: Degradation is actually increased , not defective.
Pyrimidine degradation / synthesis: Unrelated to Lesch-Nyhan syndrome.
Think of the first fully formed purine nucleotide that can then be converted into the two main purine nucleotides .
26 / 98
Think of the cortical “bridges” that pass between the triangular medullary pyramids — they are not part of the urine-collecting system.
27 / 98
Think of the two most common systemic diseases that gradually damage the kidneys over years , often silently until late stages.
28 / 98
Category:
Renal – Pathology
Which of the following is the most common cause of chronic renal failure?
Chronic renal failure (CRF) , also called chronic kidney disease (CKD) , is a progressive loss of kidney function over months to years.
Most common causes worldwide:
Diabetes mellitus (type 1 or type 2):
Hypertension:
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: Central or nephrogenic diabetes insipidus: Cause polyuria , not progressive kidney failure.
Hypotension: May cause acute kidney injury , not chronic kidney disease.
None of these: Incorrect because diabetes and hypertension are well-established major causes.
Think of the hormone that helps conserve water when the blood becomes too concentrated .
29 / 98
Category:
Renal – Physiology
Which of the following would stimulate the release of antidiuretic hormone?
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH / vasopressin) is secreted by the posterior pituitary in response to:
Increased plasma osmolality:
Detected by osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus .
ADH promotes water reabsorption in the collecting ducts → dilutes plasma, concentrating urine.
Decreased blood volume or pressure (less sensitive trigger):
Opposing factors:
Decreased osmolality: Inhibits ADH release.
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP): Inhibits ADH to promote sodium and water excretion.
Increased blood pressure / volume: Inhibits ADH to prevent further water retention.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: Decreased osmolality: Reduces ADH secretion.
Atrial natriuretic peptide: Antagonizes ADH.
Increase in blood pressure/volume: Inhibits ADH, opposite effect.
Think of the diuretic that acts on the loop of Henle , where the kidney reabsorbs the largest fraction of sodium , making it the most potent.
30 / 98
Think of the initial filtrate in the nephron — it’s essentially plasma without proteins , so its concentration is about the same as blood.
31 / 98
Category:
Renal – Physiology
What is the osmolality of filtrate in Bowman’s capsule?
The filtrate in Bowman’s capsule is formed by glomerular filtration of plasma.
Since filtration is non-selective for water and small solutes , the osmolarity of the filtrate is roughly equal to plasma osmolarity .
Normal plasma osmolarity: ~285–295 mOsm/L → filtrate ≈ 300 mOsm/L .
Key point:
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: 100, 200 mOsm/L: Too dilute; filtrate hasn’t undergone dilution yet.
400 mOsm/L: Slightly hypertonic; not typical at Bowman’s capsule.
1200 mOsm/L: Maximal urine concentration, occurs at the tip of the collecting duct , not at the start.
Think about the hormone that makes collecting ducts permeable to water and the salt gradient in the medulla that pulls water out.
32 / 98
Category:
Renal – Physiology
Which of the following contribute towards making the urine concentrated?
Concentrated urine formation depends on two main factors:
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH / vasopressin):
Hyperosmotic medullary interstitium:
Created by the countercurrent multiplier system in the loop of Henle and urea recycling .
This osmotic gradient pulls water out of the collecting ducts when ADH is present, concentrating urine.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: Aldosterone and renin: Mainly regulate Na⁺ and K⁺ , not directly responsible for urine concentration.
ADH and hypoosmotic medullary interstitium: Wrong because water needs a hyperosmotic gradient to be reabsorbed.
Aldosterone and cortical nephrons: Cortical nephrons don’t significantly contribute to the medullary osmotic gradient.
Aldosterone and hyperosmotic medullary interstitium: Aldosterone affects sodium, not water reabsorption via ADH.
Think of the kidney’s upper limit for concentrating urine during severe dehydration — it’s several times the plasma osmolality.
33 / 98
Think of the “open channel from bladder to umbilicus” that allows urine to escape — complete patency is required.
34 / 98
Category:
Renal – Embryology
What causes urine to flow through a patent urachus to the umbilicus?
The urachus is a fetal structure connecting the apex of the bladder to the umbilicus , which normally obliterates after birth to form the median umbilical ligament .
Failure to close completely can lead to:
Patent urachus (urachal fistula):
Urachal cyst:
Urachal sinus:
Umbilical end remains patent, but bladder end closed
May drain mucus , but not urine
Renal agenesis / ectopic kidney:
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: Urachal cyst: Closed at both ends → no urine discharge
Urachal sinus: Closed at bladder → only mucus may drain
Renal agenesis / ectopic kidney: Kidney anomaly, unrelated to urachal urine leakage
Think of the solution that has more than three times the salt concentration of plasma — it will pull water out of cells instead of staying neutral
35 / 98
Category:
Renal – Physiology
Which of these is not an isotonic solution?
Isotonic solutions have an osmolarity similar to plasma (~285–295 mOsm/L) and do not cause significant fluid shifts between compartments.
0.9% normal saline (NS): Isotonic (~308 mOsm/L) ✅
5% dextrose (D5W): Isotonic in the bag but becomes effectively hypotonic after metabolism of glucose; still often classified as isotonic initially. ✅
Lactated Ringer’s (LR): Isotonic (~273 mOsm/L) ✅
3% normal saline is hypertonic (~1027 mOsm/L) → draws water out of cells → not isotonic .
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: 0.9% NS: True isotonic solution.
5% dextrose: Initially isotonic.
Lactated Ringer’s: Isotonic solution.
None of these: Incorrect because 3% saline is clearly hypertonic.
Think about the stretchable lining and the involuntary muscle that squeezes urine out — no voluntary skeletal muscle is in the bladder wall itself.
36 / 98
Category:
Renal – Histology
Which of the following is correct about the wall of the urinary bladder?
The urinary bladder has a wall composed of:
Mucosa: Lined by transitional epithelium (urothelium) , which can stretch as the bladder fills.
Muscular layer: Smooth muscle arranged in three layers (inner longitudinal, middle circular, outer longitudinal) called the detrusor muscle , responsible for bladder contraction during urination.
Adventitia/serosa: Outer connective tissue layer depending on location.
Key points:
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: Outer smooth, inner skeletal muscle: Wrong arrangement; bladder has only smooth muscle .
Skeletal muscle layer lined by transitional epithelium: Skeletal muscle is absent in the bladder wall.
None of these: Incorrect because one option is true.
Smooth muscle lined by pseudostratified columnar epithelium: Incorrect epithelial type.
Think of the sensor cells in the distal tubule that detect low salt and trigger a hormonal cascade to raise blood pressure .
37 / 98
Category:
Renal – Physiology
Decrease in the sodium and chloride levels causes macula densa to do which of the following?
The macula densa is a specialized group of cells in the distal convoluted tubule that senses sodium (Na⁺) and chloride (Cl⁻) concentrations in the tubular fluid.
Low Na⁺/Cl⁻ in the distal tubule → macula densa signals the juxtaglomerular (JG) cells of the afferent arteriole to release renin .
Renin then catalyzes the conversion of angiotensinogen → angiotensin I , eventually leading to angiotensin II formation , which:
Constricts efferent arterioles
Stimulates aldosterone secretion from the adrenal cortex
Increases sodium and water reabsorption
This is part of the tubuloglomerular feedback and renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) .
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: Cause systemic vasodilation: Incorrect; angiotensin II causes vasoconstriction , not dilation.
Release angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE): ACE is produced in endothelial cells , not by macula densa.
Stimulate JG cells to produce erythropoietin: Erythropoietin is produced by interstitial fibroblasts in the kidney , not JG cells.
Inhibit JG cells to prevent prostaglandin release: Opposite effect; macula densa stimulates , not inhibits.
Think about the force that pushes plasma out of the glomerular capillaries into Bowman’s space — the main driving force for filtration.
38 / 98
Category:
Renal – Physiology
Which of the following favors glomerular filtration?
Glomerular filtration is determined by the net filtration pressure (NFP) across the glomerular capillaries. The forces involved are:
Favoring filtration:
Opposing filtration:
Bowman’s capsule hydrostatic pressure: Pushes fluid back into capillaries.
Glomerular capillary colloid osmotic pressure: Due to plasma proteins, pulls water back into capillaries.
Peritubular capillary hydrostatic pressure and Bowman’s capsule colloid osmotic pressure are not significant contributors to glomerular filtration.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: Peritubular capillary hydrostatic pressure: Affects reabsorption in the peritubular capillaries, not filtration.
Bowman’s capsule colloid osmotic pressure: Normally negligible (very few proteins in filtrate).
Glomerular capillary colloid osmotic pressure: Opposes filtration.
Bowman’s capsule hydrostatic pressure: Opposes filtration.
Think of which organ stores water internally and doesn’t directly expel it to the outside environment.
39 / 98
Category:
Renal – Physiology
From which of the following organs, water loss from the body does not occur?
Water is lost from the body through several routes:
Skin (sweat): Insensible and sensible perspiration.
Lungs: Water vapor lost during respiration.
Kidneys: Water excreted in urine.
Nose: Insensible water loss through humidification of inhaled air.
Skeletal muscles , however, do not directly contribute to water loss . While muscles contain water and metabolic activity produces heat, they do not secrete water externally .
Why the other options are incorrect: Nose: Water lost via exhaled air.
Skin: Primary route of insensible water loss and sweat.
Lungs: Water vapor exhaled with each breath.
Kidneys: Major route of regulated water excretion via urine.
Think of the hormone form of vitamin D that’s activated in the kidney and works to boost calcium uptake in the gut .
40 / 98
Category:
Renal – Physiology
Which of the following products of the kidney helps in the absorption of calcium in the intestines?
The kidney plays a vital role in vitamin D metabolism .
The proximal tubules of the kidney convert 25-hydroxycholecalciferol (calcidiol) into 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (calcitriol) through the enzyme 1α-hydroxylase .
Calcitriol is the active form of vitamin D and:
Increases calcium absorption in the intestines.
Enhances phosphate absorption .
Works synergistically with parathyroid hormone (PTH) to regulate calcium homeostasis.
Why the other options are incorrect: 24,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol: Less active form, not significant for calcium absorption.
Calcidiol: Precursor stored in the liver; not biologically active in absorption.
Erythropoietin: Stimulates RBC production; unrelated to calcium metabolism.
All of these: Incorrect since only 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol is directly responsible.
Think of the amino acid that acts as the “universal nitrogen donor” in both major nucleotide pathways.
41 / 98
Think of the body trying to “hold on to CO₂” to counteract a high-bicarbonate (alkaline) state.
42 / 98
Category:
Renal – Physiology
Which of the following is seen in compensated metabolic alkalosis?
Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by a primary increase in plasma bicarbonate (HCO₃⁻) , which raises blood pH.
Key points:
The compensation does not fully normalize pH , it only mitigates it.
The kidneys may also eventually adjust by excreting HCO₃⁻, but respiratory compensation is rapid and primary .
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: HCO₃⁻ increased, pCO₂ decreased – This pattern is seen in metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation , not alkalosis.
HCO₃⁻ decreased, pCO₂ increased – Opposite pattern (metabolic acidosis or respiratory alkalosis).
Both decreased – Seen in primary metabolic acidosis without compensation.
Both increased – Correct pattern for compensated metabolic alkalosis .
HCO₃⁻ increased, pCO₂ normal – This represents uncompensated metabolic alkalosis , not compensated.
Think of the “box” drawn on the back to locate the kidney — one of the suggested horizontal levels doesn’t match the true superior or inferior edges .
43 / 98
Category:
Renal – Anatomy
Which of the following is not one of the lines of the parallelogram of Morris used to identify the kidneys from the surface of the back?
The parallelogram of Morris is a surface landmark used to approximate the position of the kidneys on the posterior abdominal wall . Its borders are:
Vertical lines:
Horizontal lines:
The kidney lies roughly between T12 and L3 vertebral levels , so L1 is not used as a horizontal border of the parallelogram.
Why the Other Options Are Correct: Vertical line 9.5 cm from midline – Part of the parallelogram.
Horizontal border at T11 tips – Superior boundary.
Vertical line 2.5 cm from midline – Medial boundary.
Horizontal border at L3 spinous process – Inferior boundary.
Think of the tips of the renal pyramids being most vulnerable during a severe kidney infection.
44 / 98
Category:
Renal – Pathology
Which of the following is a complication of acute pyelonephritis?
Acute pyelonephritis is an infection of the renal pelvis and parenchyma, usually bacterial in origin (commonly E. coli ). Complications can arise if the infection is severe or recurrent.
Papillary necrosis is a recognized complication, especially in:
It involves ischemic necrosis of the renal papillae , which may slough into the urinary tract and cause hematuria, obstruction, or infection.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: Pulmonary embolism: Not a direct complication of pyelonephritis.
Necrotic syndrome: Likely referring to nephrotic syndrome; not caused by acute infection.
Cholecystitis: Inflammation of the gallbladder; unrelated.
Chronic renal failure: Can result from recurrent or chronic pyelonephritis , but not a complication of a single acute episode .
Think of the fastest, most detailed imaging that can detect almost all types of stones , even the tiny ones.
45 / 98
Category:
Renal – Radiology/Medicine
Which of the following is the most reliable diagnostic test for urolithiasis?
Urolithiasis (kidney stones) requires imaging for diagnosis. Among available modalities:
Non-contrast CT scan of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder (NCCT KUB) is the most sensitive and specific test for detecting urinary stones.
Detects stones as small as 1–2 mm.
Identifies stone location, size, and density.
Can detect stones of all compositions except very rare radiolucent stones (like some uric acid stones).
X-ray (KUB) – Can detect radio-opaque stones (like calcium stones) but misses radiolucent stones .
Intravenous pyelogram (IVP) – Older method; uses contrast to outline urinary tract; less commonly used now due to CT availability and speed.
MRI – Poor for stones; not used routinely for urolithiasis.
Blood test – Cannot reliably detect stones; may show secondary effects like elevated creatinine or uric acid, but not diagnostic.
Think about where urine flows or pools versus where it is microscopically processed .
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Category:
Renal – Anatomy
Which part of the kidney can not have stones?
Kidney stones (renal calculi) can form or get lodged in areas where urine collects or flows, such as the renal pelvis, calyces, ureter, or bladder . These are parts of the urinary tract that deal with the passage or storage of urine, making them common sites for stone obstruction.
The nephron , however, is the microscopic functional unit of the kidney that filters blood and forms urine. It is too small for stone formation or retention — stones are far larger than the microscopic tubules of the nephron.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Ureter: Narrow tubes — stones often get stuck here.
Bladder: Stones can form or accumulate here, especially in urinary retention.
Calyces: Stones often form in the minor or major calyces where urine first collects.
Pelvis: Common site for stone lodging before entering the ureter.
Think about the hormone that helps your body retain salt and water to maintain blood pressure, while letting go of another ion to keep things balanced.
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Category:
Renal – Physiology
Which of the following is the effect of aldosterone on kidneys?
Aldosterone , a hormone secreted by the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex , acts mainly on the principal cells of the distal convoluted tubule and collecting ducts of the nephron.
Its effects are:
Increased reabsorption of Na⁺ (sodium) and Cl⁻ (chloride), leading to water retention and increased blood volume/pressure.
Increased excretion of K⁺ (potassium) into the urine, helping regulate serum potassium levels.
Indirectly increases H⁺ excretion , affecting acid-base balance.
Why the other options are incorrect: Decreases Na⁺ and Cl⁻ reabsorption, and K⁺ excretion: Opposite of aldosterone’s actual function.
Increases Na⁺ and K⁺ reabsorption: Incorrect because aldosterone increases K⁺ excretion , not reabsorption.
Increases Na⁺ and Cl⁻ excretion, and K⁺ reabsorption: This reverses aldosterone’s effects.
Increases Na⁺, Cl⁻, and K⁺ excretion: Completely opposite of aldosterone’s primary role in sodium retention .
Think of the muscular tubes that actively propel urine from the kidney down to the bladder.
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Category:
Renal – Anatomy
The kidney is connected to the bladder through which of the following?
The ureters are muscular tubes that connect each kidney to the urinary bladder .
They originate from the renal pelvis at the hilum of the kidney.
They descend retroperitoneally along the posterior abdominal wall.
They finally enter the bladder at the posterolateral angles , allowing urine to flow from the kidney to the bladder for storage before excretion.
Why the other options are incorrect: Transversalis fascia: This is a fascial layer of the abdominal wall, not involved in urinary drainage.
Lumbar nodes: These are lymph nodes, not a physical connection between kidney and bladder.
Perinephric fat: This surrounds and protects the kidney but doesn’t connect it to the bladder.
Aorta: The main artery of the body; supplies blood but is unrelated to urine transport.
Think about the ion that is most actively reabsorbed in the PCT and drives many other transport processes, including acid-base balance.
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Think of the kidney’s smallest filter-and-processing unit that directly handles blood filtration and urine formation.
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Think about the special type of epithelium that allows the bladder to expand and contract without tearing.
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Think of the drug commonly prescribed to lower uric acid levels in patients with gout .
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Category:
Renal – Biochemistry
Which of the following is an inhibitor of xanthine oxidase?
Xanthine oxidase is an enzyme involved in purine metabolism , converting hypoxanthine → xanthine → uric acid .
Allopurinol is a structural analog of hypoxanthine and acts as a competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase.
By inhibiting this enzyme, it reduces the production of uric acid , making it the drug of choice for conditions like gout and hyperuricemia (including tumor lysis syndrome).
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: Mycophenolic acid – Inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase , blocking de novo guanine nucleotide synthesis (used as an immunosuppressant).
5-fluorouracil (5-FU) – Inhibits thymidylate synthase , interfering with pyrimidine synthesis.
Methotrexate – Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase , blocking folate metabolism and purine/pyrimidine synthesis.
Hydroxyurea – Inhibits ribonucleotide reductase , preventing DNA synthesis, often used in sickle cell disease.
Think about where ADH exerts its action — the “last checkpoint” where water balance is finely tuned.
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Category:
Renal – Physiology
Which of the following parts of the nephron is involved in the facultative reabsorption of water?
Water reabsorption in the nephron occurs in two main ways:
Obligatory Reabsorption – Happens in the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) and descending loop of Henle . This process is independent of hormonal control and reabsorbs about 80–85% of filtered water .
Facultative Reabsorption – Takes place in the collecting ducts (including the duct of Bellini) and is regulated by antidiuretic hormone (ADH) . When ADH levels rise, it increases the insertion of aquaporin-2 channels into the apical membrane of the collecting duct cells, allowing additional water reabsorption depending on the body’s hydration needs.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: Loop of Henle – Mainly involved in creating a medullary osmotic gradient; not where ADH-dependent reabsorption occurs.
Proximal convoluted tubule – Handles obligatory water reabsorption, not facultative.
Bowman’s capsule – Site of filtration, not reabsorption.
None of these – Incorrect, because the collecting ducts (duct of Bellini) are the actual site.
Think about the pathway of the ureter — the pain doesn’t stay put, it travels along its course .
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Category:
Renal – Pathology
Which of the following is correct about the quality of pain in the case of nephrolithiasis?
In nephrolithiasis (kidney stones) , pain is caused by obstruction of the urinary tract, leading to spasmodic ureteral contractions and increased intraluminal pressure. This results in renal colic , a sharp, severe, and colicky pain that:
Starts in the flank or back region (costovertebral angle)
Radiates towards the groin, lower abdomen, or genitalia , following the path of the ureter
Often associated with nausea, vomiting, and hematuria.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: No pain is felt – False; renal stones are typically very painful unless completely non-obstructive.
Pain is mild and is only felt when urinating – This describes urethral irritation, not nephrolithiasis.
Pain is localized to kidneys – Incorrect; the pain radiates along the ureter.
None of these – Incorrect, since the characteristic radiation pattern is well known.
Think about the early embryonic duct that also helps form structures in the male reproductive system — that’s where the ureter starts its journey.
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Think about which type of epithelium is specialized to handle stretch in the urinary system — it’s the same lining as the bladder .
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Think about the key nitrogen donors in biosynthesis — “GAG”…
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Category:
Renal – Biochemistry
Which of the following is not a source of nitrogen for de novo purine synthesis?
In de novo purine synthesis , the purine ring is built atom by atom using specific amino acids and other molecules as nitrogen and carbon donors.
Sources of Nitrogen in Purine Synthesis:
Glutamine → Provides nitrogen for N3 and N9 positions.
Aspartate → Provides nitrogen for N1 .
Glycine → Contributes to the ring as part of N7 (and carbon skeleton too).
Alanine , however, does not contribute nitrogen to the purine ring.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect Aspartate – Direct contributor to purine nitrogen.
Glycine – Supplies nitrogen and carbon atoms.
Glutamine – Important nitrogen donor in several steps.
All of these are a source – Wrong because alanine is not a donor .
Remember, pyrimidine synthesis starts with building the ring first — and the first brick laid is…
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Category:
Renal – Biochemistry
Which of the following is the first step in pyrimidine synthesis?
The first step in pyrimidine synthesis is the formation of carbamoyl phosphate , catalyzed by the enzyme carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II (CPS-II) in the cytosol .
Pathway overview:
Formation of carbamoyl phosphate – by CPS-II using glutamine, CO₂, and 2 ATP . ✅ (First and rate-limiting step)
Formation of carbamoyl aspartate – by aspartate transcarbamoylase.
Cyclization to form orotate .
Combination with PRPP to form orotidine monophosphate (OMP).
Conversion of OMP to UMP and eventually other pyrimidine nucleotides.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect Formation of carbamoylaspartate: This is the second step , not the first.
Formation of orotate: Happens later in the pathway after ring closure.
Formation of PRPP: Belongs to purine and pyrimidine synthesis but is not the first committed step in pyrimidine synthesis.
None of these: Incorrect because formation of carbamoyl phosphate is indeed the first step.
Think feedback inhibition — when the end product builds up, it signals the pathway to slow down CPS-II activity to maintain balance.
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Think of their position during surgery — if you open the peritoneum, you won’t find ureters inside ; you have to look behind it…
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Category:
Renal – Anatomy
Which of the following is true about ureters?
The ureters are muscular tubes (~25–30 cm long) that transport urine from the renal pelvis to the urinary bladder .
Key features:
Retroperitoneal : They lie behind the peritoneum throughout their course.
Originate at the renal pelvis : At the hilum of the kidney (posteriorly, not anteriorly).
Constriction sites (three) :
Ureteropelvic junction – where the renal pelvis becomes the ureter.
Pelvic brim – where ureter crosses over the iliac vessels.
Vesicoureteral junction – where ureter enters the bladder.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect “Arise from anterior side…” – Incorrect; they arise posteriorly at the hilum , not anteriorly.
“Ureters are intraperitoneal” – Incorrect; they are retroperitoneal .
“They are constricted at two regions” – Incorrect; there are three constriction sites , not two.
“None of these” – Incorrect, because the statement about being retroperitoneal is true .
Picture the kidney like an onion — the skin that sticks directly to it , while fat and fascia form the outer protective layers.
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Category:
Renal – Anatomy
Which of the following is the innermost covering of the kidney?
The kidney coverings (from inside to outside) are arranged in layers :
Fibrous capsule –
The innermost covering .
A thin, tough, fibrous membrane that directly adheres to the kidney surface, providing protection and structural integrity .
Perinephric fat (perirenal fat) –
Renal fascia (Gerota’s fascia) –
Paranephric fat (pararenal fat) –
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect Paranephric fat – Outermost fat, not innermost .
Renal fascia – Lies outside perinephric fat, not the first layer .
Perinephric fat – Surrounds but doesn’t directly touch the kidney.
None of these – Incorrect, as fibrous capsule is the true innermost covering.
Think of the glomerular filter like a sieve — small molecules pass through easily , but large, negatively charged proteins like albumin stay in the blood .
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Category:
Renal – Physiology
Which of the following component of blood is the least filtered in the renal corpuscle?
The renal corpuscle filters blood based on size, charge, and shape through the glomerular filtration barrier, which consists of:
Among the given components:
Albumin (~66 kDa, negatively charged) is the least filtered due to:
In a healthy kidney, almost no albumin is found in the filtrate (only trace amounts).
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect Lactic acid – Small molecule, freely filtered.
Water – Freely filtered due to its small size.
Glucose – Freely filtered; later reabsorbed in the proximal tubule .
Amino acids – Freely filtered and then reabsorbed in the proximal tubule.
Although the glomerular hydrostatic pressure is high (~55 mmHg) , remember that two opposing forces (Bowman’s pressure and oncotic pressure) reduce the net driving pressure…
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Category:
Renal – Physiology
Net filtration pressure (NFP) is the total pressure that promotes filtration in kidneys. What is its value?
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
15 mmHg, 20 mmHg, 25 mmHg, 30 mmHg – These all overestimate the NFP. The high hydrostatic pressure ($\text{P}_{\text{GC}}$ ) is largely countered by the opposing forces ($\text{P}_{\text{BS}} + \pi_{\text{GC}}$ ), leaving only $\mathbf{10\ \text{mmHg}}$ net pressure for filtration.
Would y
Net Filtration Pressure (NFP) Calculation The Net Filtration Pressure (NFP) in the kidney glomerulus is the force that drives plasma from the glomerular capillaries into Bowman’s space, starting urine formation. It is determined by Starling forces.
Net Filtration Pressure Formula NFP = P_GC – P_BS – π_GC
Where: P_GC = Glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure (≈ 55 mmHg) P_BS = Bowman’s space hydrostatic pressure (≈ 15 mmHg) π_GC = Glomerular oncotic pressure (≈ 30 mmHg)
Step-by-Step Calculation Substitute the values into the formula:
NFP = 55 – 15 – 30 NFP = 40 – 30 NFP = 10 mmHg
Conclusion The net filtration pressure is 10 mmHg , which drives the filtration of plasma into the nephron.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect 15 mmHg, 20 mmHg, 25 mmHg, 30 mmHg – These overestimate NFP. Although the glomerular hydrostatic pressure is high, the opposing pressures (Bowman’s space hydrostatic pressure + glomerular oncotic pressure) reduce the effective filtration pressure to only 10 mmHg.
Think of the kidneys as small organs with a disproportionately high blood supply , roughly one-quarter of the heart’s output , to handle continuous filtration needs.
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Category:
Renal – Physiology
Renal blood flow (RBF) approximates how much of the total cardiac output?
The renal blood flow (RBF) represents the amount of blood that the kidneys receive relative to the total cardiac output.
The kidneys are highly perfused organs despite their small size (~0.5% of body weight).
They receive about 20–25% of cardiac output , which translates to approximately 1.2 liters per minute in a healthy adult.
This high perfusion is crucial for:
Effective filtration of blood
Excretion of waste products
Regulation of fluid and electrolyte balance
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect 45–50% – Too high; no organ receives nearly half the cardiac output.
1–2% – Too low; such values are closer to perfusion of skeletal muscles at rest, not kidneys.
30–50% – Still an overestimation; kidneys do not receive that much.
10–15% – Underestimation; less than what is physiologically normal.
Think about the average filtering capacity of both kidneys combined — around 180 liters daily, how much would that be per min?
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Consider which condition combines ketone production, metabolic acidosis, fruity breath, and deep breathing — pointing to an insulin-deficient state rather than just hyperglycemia.
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Category:
Renal – Pathology
A 45-year-old patient is brought to the emergency room in a delirious state with weakness, blurred vision, dehydration, and hypothermia. On examination, he has a rapid pulse and his breathing is deep and labored, with a sickly sweet odor. His blood glucose is 256 mg/dL and his urinary dipstick shows +2 ketonuria. What is most likely the diagnosis?
This patient presents with symptoms consistent with Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) , which is most commonly seen in Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus .
Key findings in the scenario: Altered mental status (delirium) – due to metabolic acidosis and dehydration.
Deep and labored breathing (Kussmaul respiration) – a compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis.
Sweet/fruity breath odor – due to ketone body production (acetone).
Blood glucose: 256 mg/dL – moderate hyperglycemia (not extremely high, but high enough with ketosis to trigger DKA).
Ketonuria: +2 – confirms significant ketone body formation.
Pathophysiology: In Type 1 DM , lack of insulin → increased lipolysis → excess free fatty acids → hepatic ketogenesis → metabolic acidosis.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect Lactic acidosis – Causes metabolic acidosis and rapid breathing but does not produce ketones or fruity breath .
Addison’s disease – Features hypotension, hyperpigmentation, and electrolyte imbalances but no hyperglycemia or ketonuria .
Acute renal failure – Would show decreased urine output, elevated creatinine, but not ketones or fruity breath .
Type 2 diabetes mellitus – Usually presents with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS) , characterized by very high glucose (>600 mg/dL) and minimal or no ketosis .
Think of the range of protein loss where the kidneys are severely compromised, but the number isn’t extremely high — just above the typical threshold that signals severe glomerular damage.
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Category:
Renal – Pathology
Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by loss of how much protein in urine?
Nephrotic syndrome is a kidney disorder characterized by heavy protein loss in the urine due to increased permeability of the glomerular filtration barrier .
The diagnostic threshold for proteinuria in nephrotic syndrome is:
Other key features of nephrotic syndrome include:
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect >9.4 g/day – Too high; while severe proteinuria may reach these levels, the diagnostic cutoff is 3.5 g/day .
>5.7 g/day – Same reason; not the standard diagnostic cutoff.
>30 g/day – Unrealistically high for most clinical scenarios.
>50 g/day – Impossible and incompatible with life.
Think of the posterior abdominal wall . Which muscle in the list is not part of the retroperitoneal region , but rather found deep in the gluteal region near the hip joint ?
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Category:
Renal – Anatomy
Which of the following structures is not present posterior to the kidney?
The posterior relations of the kidney include muscles, nerves, and fascia that are located behind the kidney in the retroperitoneal space.
Posterior structures of the kidney:
Muscles:
Psoas major
Quadratus lumborum
Transversus abdominis
Nerves:
Subcostal nerve
Iliohypogastric nerve
Ilioinguinal nerve
The quadratus femoris muscle, however, is a deep gluteal muscle located in the hip region , not in the posterior abdominal wall where the kidneys are located.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect Transversus abdominis – Lies posterior-laterally to the kidney.
Ilioinguinal nerve – Runs posterior to the kidney along with iliohypogastric nerve.
Iliohypogastric nerve – Posterior to the kidney in the retroperitoneal space.
Psoas major – Lies medially and posteriorly to the kidney.
Remember the timeline of kidney development : the pronephros is transient and primitive, disappearing quickly as the mesonephros starts to function. Which week marks this transition?
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Category:
Renal – Embryology
When do pronephros degenerate during fetal development?
The pronephros is the most primitive of the three stages of kidney development (pronephros → mesonephros → metanephros ).
It appears early in the 4th week of gestation .
It is nonfunctional in humans and degenerates by the end of the 4th week , while the mesonephros takes over as the interim kidney until the permanent metanephros develops around the 5th week .
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect End of 6th week – Too late; by then, the pronephros has already degenerated and the metanephros is beginning to mature.
End of 3rd week – Too early; pronephros only starts to appear around the early 4th week .
End of 5th week – Incorrect; degeneration has already occurred by then.
End of 2nd week – Far too early; kidney structures are not forming yet.
Think of the ascending limb as the “diluting segment” of the nephron — it pumps out salts but does not let water follow . Which option matches this unique property?
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Category:
Renal – Physiology
Which of the following is a property of ascending limb of the loop of Henle?
The ascending limb of the loop of Henle , especially the thick ascending limb (TAL) , has a key role in urine concentration :
It is impermeable to water under all conditions, even in the presence of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) .
Actively reabsorbs Na⁺, K⁺, and Cl⁻ through the Na⁺-K⁺-2Cl⁻ symporter .
This creates a hyperosmotic medullary interstitium and allows the countercurrent multiplier system to function.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect Permeability to water is affected by ADH – False; this happens in the collecting ducts , not in the ascending limb.
Permeable to water – False; only the descending limb is permeable to water.
Impermeable to sodium – False; sodium is actively reabsorbed here.
Impermeable to potassium – False; potassium is also reabsorbed along with sodium and chloride.
Think about urea balance: The body needs to excrete enough nitrogen waste but also retain some urea for maintaining the kidney’s medullary osmotic gradient. Which percentage reflects this balance?
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Category:
Renal – Physiology
What is the percentage of filtered urea reabsorbed in kidneys per day?
Urea is a waste product of protein metabolism that is freely filtered at the glomerulus .
About 50% of the filtered urea is passively reabsorbed in the proximal tubule along with water.
In the loop of Henle and medullary collecting ducts , additional urea recycling occurs under the influence of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) , which helps maintain the medullary concentration gradient for water reabsorption.
The rest (~50%) is excreted in urine daily.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect 20% – Too low; more urea is reabsorbed.
1% – Far too low; much more is reabsorbed before excretion.
99.9% – Incorrect; not all urea is reabsorbed because some must be excreted as waste.
30% – Too low; actual reabsorption is around 50% .
When avoiding latex , think of the catheter material that is completely inert and hypoallergenic , making it safe for sensitive patients.
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Category:
Renal – ComMed/BehSci
For individuals with latex allergy, which material of Foley’s catheter is the next choice?
For patients with a latex allergy , the preferred alternative material for Foley’s catheters is silicone .
Silicone catheters are:
Hypoallergenic (safe for latex-sensitive patients)
Biocompatible and flexible
Suitable for long-term catheterization due to less encrustation and irritation.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect Plastic – Non-flexible, uncomfortable, and not commonly used for standard Foley catheters.
Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) – Often contains latex additives; not ideal for latex-allergic individuals.
Teflon – Sometimes used as a coating, but not typically the primary material; also not the standard alternative for latex allergy.
Silver – Used for antimicrobial coating on catheters but still often applied over a latex base , so it doesn’t eliminate allergy risk.
Think about the channel that gets inserted into the luminal membrane of collecting duct cells only when ADH is present . Which aquaporin fits this description?
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Category:
Renal – Physiology
The antidiuretic hormone controls water permeability in the collecting ducts of the kidney by regulation of which of the following water channels?
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) , also known as vasopressin , regulates water reabsorption in the collecting ducts of the nephron.
ADH binds to V₂ receptors on the basolateral membrane of principal cells in the collecting ducts.
This activates adenylate cyclase → cAMP → protein kinase A pathway , leading to:
Insertion of Aquaporin-2 (AQP2) channels into the apical (luminal) membrane .
Increased water permeability, allowing water to be reabsorbed into the hyperosmotic medullary interstitium.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect Aquaporin-1 (AQP1) – Found in the proximal tubule and descending limb of the loop of Henle ; not regulated by ADH.
Aquaporin-3 (AQP3) – Located on the basolateral membrane of collecting duct cells; provides water exit but is not regulated by ADH.
Aquaporin-4 (AQP4) – Found in the brain and collecting duct basolateral side; not regulated by ADH.
Aquaporin-5 (AQP5) – Present in salivary and airway glands; not involved in renal water handling.
At high altitudes, you need a drug that induces metabolic acidosis to drive more ventilation . Which drug does this by blocking carbonic anhydrase ?
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Category:
Renal – Pharmacology
Which of the following drugs can be used to treat altitude sickness?
Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor commonly used to prevent and treat acute mountain (altitude) sickness .
At high altitudes, the low oxygen levels lead to hypoxemia and respiratory alkalosis due to hyperventilation.
Acetazolamide induces a mild metabolic acidosis by promoting renal bicarbonate excretion .
This acidosis stimulates increased ventilation , improving oxygenation and reducing symptoms like headache, fatigue, and dizziness.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect Furosemide – Loop diuretic; used for edema and hypertension, not for altitude sickness .
Mannitol – Osmotic diuretic; used to reduce intracranial pressure or treat acute glaucoma, not indicated here.
Hydrochlorothiazide – Thiazide diuretic; used for hypertension and edema, not effective in altitude sickness.
Ethacrynic acid – Loop diuretic similar to furosemide, mainly for patients allergic to sulfa drugs; not used for altitude illness .
Think about gout : the painful condition linked to purine breakdown. What compound crystallizes in joints when its levels are high?
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Category:
Renal – Biochemistry
Which of the following is the end-product of purine metabolism?
The end-product of purine metabolism in humans is uric acid .
Purines such as adenine and guanine are broken down into xanthine and then converted into uric acid by the enzyme xanthine oxidase .
Uric acid is excreted mainly by the kidneys in urine.
Elevated levels can lead to gout due to deposition of monosodium urate crystals in joints.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect Ammonia – Produced mainly from amino acid deamination , not from purine catabolism.
Guanine – A purine base , but not the final product of its metabolism.
Urea – End-product of protein/amino acid metabolism , formed in the urea cycle in the liver, not purine breakdown.
Uracil – A pyrimidine base , not related to purine degradation.
Think about the kidney’s “sensor” for blood pressure: which cells in the afferent arteriole act like baroreceptors and release an enzyme that raises blood pressure through RAAS?
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Category:
Renal – Physiology
Which of the following cells release the enzyme renin?
Juxtaglomerular (JG) cells are specialized smooth muscle cells located in the wall of the afferent arteriole near its entry into the glomerulus.
Their key function is to synthesize, store, and release renin .
Renin is an enzyme that initiates the renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system (RAAS) by converting angiotensinogen → angiotensin I .
Release of renin is stimulated by:
Decreased renal perfusion pressure (sensed by baroreceptors in afferent arteriole)
Sympathetic nervous system activation (β1-receptors)
Decreased NaCl delivery to macula densa (in distal tubule)
Thus, JG cells are the renin-releasing cells of the kidney.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect Parietal epithelial cells ❌ These line Bowman’s capsule ; they have a structural role, not hormone/enzyme secretion.
Brush border cells ❌ These are present in the proximal convoluted tubule , specialized for reabsorption, not renin secretion.
Interstitial kidney cells ❌ Found in the renal medulla; they mainly secrete erythropoietin (EPO) , not renin.
Glomerulus parietal cells ❌ Similar to parietal epithelial cells of Bowman’s capsule; not involved in renin secretion.
Think about how lymph drainage follows blood vessels. The abdominal ureter is supplied by the renal artery — which lymph nodes lie alongside these vessels near the aorta?
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Category:
Renal – Anatomy
The superior portion of the ureter drains into which of the following lymph nodes?
The lymphatic drainage of the ureter is segmental , following its arterial supply:
Superior portion (abdominal ureter): drains into the lateral aortic (paraaortic) lymph nodes near the origin of the renal vessels.
Middle portion: drains into the common iliac nodes .
Inferior portion (pelvic ureter): drains into the external iliac and internal iliac nodes .
Thus, the superior portion specifically drains into the lateral aortic nodes .
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect Internal iliac nodes ❌ Drain the pelvic ureter , not the superior portion.
Vesical nodes ❌ Related to drainage of the bladder, not ureter.
Common iliac nodes ❌ Drain the middle ureter , not the superior portion.
External iliac nodes ❌ Drain the inferior ureter and bladder, not the superior portion.
Follow the pathway: Renal → Segmental → Interlobar → Arcuate → Interlobular → ? Which of these directly feeds the glomeruli?
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Category:
Renal – Anatomy
The renal arterioles are the branch of which of the following arteries?
The branching pattern of the renal blood supply is very structured:
Renal artery (branch of abdominal aorta)
→ Segmental arteries
→ Interlobar arteries (run between renal pyramids)
→ Arcuate arteries (arch over the bases of pyramids at corticomedullary junction)
→ Interlobular arteries (extend into cortex)
→ Afferent arterioles → Glomerular capillaries → Efferent arterioles
Thus, the renal arterioles (afferent and efferent) arise as branches of the interlobular arteries in the cortex.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect Abdominal aorta ❌ It gives rise to the renal arteries, but arterioles are several branches downstream.
Interlobar artery ❌ These are larger arteries running between pyramids; they give rise to arcuate arteries, not directly to arterioles.
Arcuate artery ❌ These arch over pyramid bases and give rise to interlobular arteries, not directly to arterioles.
Renal artery ❌ Major artery entering the kidney; it divides further before reaching the level of arterioles.
Remember: systemic capillary pressure is ~25 mmHg, but the kidney must filter large amounts of plasma continuously. Would its filtration-driving pressure be lower, the same, or higher than the rest of the body?
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Category:
Renal – Physiology
What is the renal capillary pressure across the glomerular capillaries?
The hydrostatic pressure in the glomerular capillaries is about 60 mmHg , which is relatively high compared to other systemic capillaries (typically ~25 mmHg).
This high pressure is necessary to drive filtration of plasma into Bowman’s capsule.
The balance of forces involved in glomerular filtration is described by Starling’s forces :
Glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure (≈ 60 mmHg, favors filtration)
Bowman’s capsule hydrostatic pressure (≈ 15 mmHg, opposes filtration)
Plasma oncotic pressure (≈ 25 mmHg, opposes filtration)
The net filtration pressure comes out to about 10 mmHg , which maintains a steady GFR (~125 ml/min).
Thus, the glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure itself is ~60 mmHg .
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect 10 mmHg ❌ This is the net filtration pressure , not the capillary hydrostatic pressure.
20 mmHg ❌ Too low; would not sustain normal GFR.
50 mmHg ❌ Closer, but still below the actual average value.
30 mmHg ❌ Represents approximate oncotic pressure , not capillary hydrostatic pressure.
Think segmentally: the abdominal ureter gets its blood supply from vessels of the upper abdomen (kidney region), while the pelvic ureter gets supply from vessels of the pelvis. Which artery near the kidney fits best?
80 / 98
Category:
Renal – Anatomy
Which of the following supplies blood to the abdominal ureter?
The ureter receives a segmental blood supply along its course from multiple nearby arteries.
In the abdominal part , the renal artery is the main contributor. Additional smaller branches may also come from the gonadal artery (testicular or ovarian) and the abdominal aorta .
In the pelvic part , the blood supply mainly comes from branches of the internal iliac artery , such as the uterine artery (in females) or the inferior vesical artery (in males).
Therefore, for the abdominal ureter , the correct supply is the renal artery .
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect Abdominal aorta ❌ While the aorta gives rise to renal, gonadal, and common iliac arteries, it does not directly supply the ureter in a primary sense.
Uterine vessels ❌ These supply the pelvic ureter in females, not the abdominal ureter.
Inferior vena cava ❌ A venous structure, not an artery — it drains blood, not supplies it.
Arcuate artery ❌ These are branches of the renal artery supplying the renal cortex, not the ureter.
In pyrimidine synthesis, ask yourself: which enzyme controls the very first committed step in the cytosol, and is regulated by feedback from UTP levels?
81 / 98
Category:
Renal – Biochemistry
Which enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step of pyrimidine biosynthesis in mammalian cells?
The rate-limiting step of pyrimidine biosynthesis in mammalian cells is catalyzed by carbamoyl phosphate synthase II (CPS II).
CPS II is located in the cytosol (unlike CPS I in mitochondria, which is part of the urea cycle).
It catalyzes the reaction:Glutamine + CO₂ + 2 ATP → Carbamoyl phosphate
This carbamoyl phosphate then combines with aspartate (via aspartate transcarbamoylase) to form carbamoyl aspartate, which eventually leads to the synthesis of orotic acid and then UMP.
Since CPS II is tightly regulated (inhibited by UTP and activated by PRPP and ATP), it is considered the rate-limiting enzyme for pyrimidine biosynthesis.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect Thymidylate synthase ❌ Converts dUMP to dTMP in DNA synthesis, but this is not the rate-limiting step of pyrimidine biosynthesis.
Aspartate transcarbamoylase ❌ Catalyzes the second step (carbamoyl phosphate + aspartate → carbamoyl aspartate). Important, but not rate-limiting in mammalian cells (though it is rate-limiting in bacteria).
Xanthine oxidase ❌ Involved in purine degradation (converting hypoxanthine → xanthine → uric acid), not in pyrimidine synthesis.
Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase (HGPRT) ❌ Part of the purine salvage pathway , deficiency of which causes Lesch–Nyhan syndrome , not related to pyrimidine biosynthesis.
f the lungs are the source of the problem (too much CO₂), which organ steps in to restore balance by adjusting bicarbonate levels?
82 / 98
Category:
Renal – Physiology
What is the compensatory mechanism in respiratory acidosis (increased PCO2)?
In respiratory acidosis , there is a primary increase in PCO₂ due to hypoventilation (e.g., COPD, airway obstruction, CNS depression).
Elevated CO₂ combines with water to form carbonic acid, which dissociates into H⁺ and HCO₃⁻ , lowering blood pH.
The compensatory mechanism is carried out by the kidneys :
This raises plasma HCO₃⁻ levels, helping restore blood pH toward normal.
Thus, the correct compensatory response is increased plasma bicarbonate concentration .
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect Decrease in plasma bicarbonate (HCO₃⁻) concentration ❌ This would worsen acidosis, not compensate.
Decreased levels of ammonia ❌ The opposite occurs — ammonia production increases to buffer and excrete more H⁺.
Decreased respiratory rate ❌ This is the cause of respiratory acidosis, not a compensation. Compensation must come from the kidneys.
Increased oxygen saturation ❌ Oxygen levels may actually fall in hypoventilation. Increasing O₂ saturation is not the main compensatory response for acidosis.
Ask yourself: which of these conditions develops slowly over years from vascular damage, rather than presenting suddenly as a metabolic emergency?
83 / 98
Category:
Endo – Pathology
Which of the following can be a chronic complication of diabetes type 1?
Chronic complications of type 1 diabetes arise due to long-term hyperglycemia and are broadly divided into:
Microvascular: retinopathy, nephropathy, neuropathy.
Macrovascular: atherosclerosis → coronary artery disease, cerebrovascular accidents, peripheral vascular disease.
Atherosclerosis is a macrovascular chronic complication , caused by endothelial injury from advanced glycation end products (AGEs), oxidative stress, and lipid abnormalities in diabetes. It develops over years , not acutely.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect Hyperosmolar hyperosmotic syndrome (HHS) ❌ This is an acute complication seen mainly in type 2 diabetes, not type 1.
Hypoglycemia ❌ An acute complication , usually due to insulin therapy, not a chronic one.
Hyperglycemia ❌ This is the fundamental feature of diabetes, but not classified as a “chronic complication.” Instead, it is the cause of complications.
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) ❌ A classic complication of type 1 diabetes, but it is acute , not chronic.
If a stone doesn’t show up on a plain X-ray but still causes obstruction symptoms, which type of crystal composition would you suspect?
84 / 98
Category:
Renal – Pathology
Which of the following renal calculi are larger and have a radiolucent appearance on X-ray?
Uric acid stones are typically:
Radiolucent on plain X-ray (they do not show up clearly), because uric acid does not absorb X-rays well.
Best detected by ultrasound or CT scan .
They may be relatively large and often occur in patients with hyperuricemia (e.g., gout, myeloproliferative disorders) or in chronic dehydration (acidic, concentrated urine favors their formation).
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect Magnesium ammonium phosphate stones (struvite stones) ❌ These are usually large, staghorn calculi , but they are radiopaque , not radiolucent.
Cystine stones ❌ These are typically moderately radiopaque (less dense than calcium stones but not radiolucent). They are also less common, linked to cystinuria.
Calcium phosphate stones ❌ Radiopaque on X-ray due to calcium content.
Calcium oxalate stones ❌ The most common type of renal stone, and they are radiopaque .
Think anatomically: the bladder is the most anterior pelvic organ. Which option in the list is actually a posterior pelvic organ in females rather than lying in front of the bladder?
85 / 98
Category:
Renal – Anatomy
Which of the following is not present anterior to the urinary bladder?
The urinary bladder lies in the anterior part of the pelvis. Its anterior relations include:
The pubic bones (pubic symphysis)
The retropubic space (space of Retzius) , which separates the bladder from the pubic symphysis
In females: the pubo-vesical ligament (attaching bladder to pubis)
In males: the puboprostatic ligament (connecting prostate and bladder to pubis)
The body of the uterus , however, lies posterior and superior to the bladder (the uterus rests on the bladder in females). Therefore, it is not an anterior relation .
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect Pubic bones ❌ The pubic symphysis and bones lie directly in front of the bladder.
Pubo-vesical ligament ❌ Present in females, connects the bladder to the pubis — anterior relation.
Puboprostatic ligament ❌ Present in males, attaching the prostate and bladder to pubis — anterior relation.
Retropubic space ❌ A fat-filled space between bladder and pubic symphysis, directly anterior.
Surgeons often remember a phrase: during hysterectomy, one vital structure runs beneath the artery that must be tied. Think about which vessel is that “bridge” and which duct is the “water.”
86 / 98
Category:
Renal – Anatomy
Ureter in female pelvis is present in close association with which of the following?
In the female pelvis , the ureter passes very close to the uterine artery .
Specifically, the uterine artery crosses anteriorly over the ureter near the lateral fornix of the vagina, about 1–2 cm lateral to the cervix .
This relationship is clinically remembered as “water under the bridge” , where the ureter (water) passes under the uterine artery (bridge).
This is highly important during hysterectomy surgeries, because the uterine artery is ligated, and the ureter is at risk of accidental injury.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect Fallopian tube ❌ The fallopian tube lies superiorly in the uterine adnexa, not in close relation to the ureter in the pelvis.
Ovarian artery ❌ The ovarian artery runs in the suspensory ligament of the ovary. While it is related to the ureter in the abdominal region, the question specifically asks about the pelvis , where the uterine artery is the key relation.
Body of uterus ❌ The ureter is related to the cervix and lateral fornix of vagina , not directly to the body of the uterus.
Inferior vesical artery ❌ This artery is more relevant in males; in females, the corresponding branches supply the bladder but are not in the same close surgical relationship with the ureter.
Think about which glomerular disease typically appears after a throat or skin infection with group A streptococcus and is known for immune complexes forming distinctive “humps” under electron microscopy.
87 / 98
Category:
Renal – Pathology
Regarding glomerular diseases, which of the following has hump-like deposits appearing as electron microscope findings?
In post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN) , the classic finding on electron microscopy is “subepithelial hump-like deposits” .
These represent immune complex deposits (antigen–antibody complexes with complement) that accumulate between the glomerular basement membrane (GBM) and podocytes.
Light microscopy typically shows enlarged hypercellular glomeruli due to proliferation of endothelial and mesangial cells along with inflammatory infiltrates.
Immunofluorescence shows a “starry sky” granular pattern of IgG, IgM, and C3 deposition.
Thus, the hump-like deposits are pathognomonic for PSGN.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect Chronic glomerulonephritis ❌ Shows nonspecific changes such as glomerular scarring, hyalinization, and tubular atrophy, not hump-like deposits.
Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (RPGN) ❌ Characterized by crescent formation in Bowman’s space due to proliferation of parietal epithelial cells and fibrin deposition, not subepithelial humps.
None of these ❌ Incorrect because one option (PSGN) is clearly associated with the finding.
Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (MPGN) ❌ Shows tram-track appearance on light microscopy due to GBM splitting, not hump-like deposits.
The penile urethra develops from the part of the urogenital sinus that lies closest to the developing external genitalia. Which portion is that?
88 / 98
Category:
Renal – Embryology
Penile urethra is mainly formed from which of the following?
The penile (spongy) urethra is derived mainly from the phallic part of the urogenital sinus .
During development, the phallic part elongates and contributes to the urethral plate.
This plate canalizes and forms the spongy urethra that runs through the corpus spongiosum of the penis.
The only exception is the terminal portion of the glanular urethra , which is formed by an ectodermal ingrowth from the tip of the glans.
Thus, the bulk of the penile urethra comes from the phallic part of the urogenital sinus.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect Surface ectoderm ❌ This forms only the distal glanular urethra (via ectodermal ingrowth), not the main penile urethra.
None of these ❌ Incorrect, because the phallic part is indeed responsible.
Vesical part of urogenital sinus ❌ This gives rise to the urinary bladder , not the penile urethra.
Pelvic part of urogenital sinus ❌ This contributes to the prostatic and membranous urethra , not the penile urethra.
The male urethra has different embryonic origins depending on the segment. If the question asks about the narrowest part, think about which portion lies deep within the pelvic floor.
89 / 98
Category:
Renal – Embryology
The least dilated part of male urethra develops from which of the following?
The male urethra has different embryological origins depending on the segment:
The prostatic urethra (the widest part) and the membranous urethra (the narrowest/least dilated part) develop from the pelvic part of the urogenital sinus .
The spongy/penile urethra develops from the phallic part of the urogenital sinus , except for its very terminal portion.
The glanular urethra (terminal tip at external meatus) develops from an ingrowth of surface ectoderm .
Since the least dilated part of the male urethra is the membranous urethra , its origin is the pelvic part of the urogenital sinus .
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect Allantois ❌ This gives rise to the urachus , which later becomes the median umbilical ligament, not the urethra.
Surface ectoderm ❌ Only contributes to the terminal glanular urethra, not the membranous portion.
Vesical part of urogenital sinus ❌ This forms the urinary bladder , not the urethra.
Phallic part of urogenital sinus ❌ This forms the spongy urethra , but not the membranous (least dilated) part.
When the glomerulus itself is inflamed, what type of cellular “imprint” in the urine would prove that blood leakage originated from the nephron rather than the lower urinary tract?
90 / 98
Category:
Renal – Pathology
Which of the following urine findings is observed in case of an infection with group A beta-hemolytic post-streptococcal infection?
A post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN) occurs after infection with group A β-hemolytic streptococcus (often pharyngitis or impetigo). The immune complexes formed deposit in the glomeruli, leading to inflammation and damage of the glomerular basement membrane .
A hallmark urine finding is the presence of red blood cell (RBC) casts , which form when RBCs leak into the nephron and get trapped in the protein matrix of Tamm–Horsfall protein within the renal tubules.
RBC casts specifically indicate glomerular bleeding , distinguishing it from lower urinary tract bleeding (where you’d only see free RBCs, not casts).
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect Massive proteinuria ❌ Massive proteinuria is more typical of nephrotic syndromes (e.g., minimal change disease, membranous nephropathy), not PSGN. In PSGN, proteinuria is present but not in massive nephrotic range.
Polyuria ❌ In acute glomerulonephritis, urine output usually decreases (oliguria), not increases.
None of these ❌ Incorrect because one option (RBC casts) is clearly associated with PSGN.
Waxy casts ❌ Waxy casts are typically seen in chronic renal failure or advanced chronic kidney disease, not in acute post-infectious glomerulonephritis.
*”Consider the kidney’s role as a high-flow filter. To achieve a filtration rate of over 100 mL per minute, what must the total inflow of blood be, especially when nearly a fifth of the plasma is filtered?”*
91 / 98
Category:
Renal – Physiology
What is the combined blood flow through both kidneys in a normal adult man?
Renal blood flow (RBF) is a critical physiological parameter. In a healthy, resting adult, the combined blood flow through both kidneys is approximately 1100 mL/min . This value is derived from the following key points:
Cardiac Output Distribution: The kidneys receive about 20-25% of the resting cardiac output. Given a typical cardiac output of 5-6 L/min (5000-6000 mL/min), 20-25% equates to 1000-1500 mL/min . The widely accepted average within this range is ~1100 mL/min . Direct Measurements: Clinical Relevance: This high flow rate is necessary for the kidneys’ functions: filtration, waste excretion, electrolyte balance, and blood pressure regulation. Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: ❌ 1300 ml/min: This value is at the upper extreme of the range (25% of cardiac output) but is less commonly cited as the average. It overestimates the typical RBF.
❌ 750 ml/min: This is too low. It approximates renal plasma flow (RPF ~625 mL/min), not total blood flow.
❌ 150 ml/min: This is far too low. It is closer to the urinary output rate (~1 mL/min) or glomerular filtration rate (GFR ~125 mL/min), not blood flow
❌ 500 ml/min: This is also too low. It represents about 10% of cardiac output, which is insufficient for renal perfusion. Severe hypotension or shock might reduce RBF to this level, but it is not normal.
Ask yourself: if the urine contains a substance that normally shouldn’t be there in high amounts, and this substance pulls water with it, how would that explain the large urine volume?
92 / 98
Category:
Renal – Physiology
What is the reason behind polyuria seen in diabetes?
Polyuria in diabetes mellitus is primarily due to glucosuria (excess glucose in urine) .
When blood glucose levels exceed the renal threshold (~180 mg/dL), the glucose transporters in the proximal tubule become saturated.
Unreabsorbed glucose remains in the tubular fluid, creating an osmotic effect .
This osmotic diuresis pulls water into the urine, leading to polyuria (excessive urination).
The resulting fluid loss also contributes to polydipsia (excessive thirst), a classic symptom of diabetes.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect Increased hydrostatic pressure in Bowman’s capsule ❌ This occurs in urinary obstruction (e.g., stones, enlarged prostate) but is not the mechanism of polyuria in diabetes.
Decreased synthesis of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) ❌ This is the cause of diabetes insipidus , not diabetes mellitus. In diabetes mellitus, ADH production is normal.
None of these ❌ Incorrect because one option (excess glucose in urine) is the true mechanism.
Improper tubular reabsorption of solutes ❌ While glucose reabsorption is overwhelmed in diabetes, the problem is not a defect in the tubules but rather excess filtered glucose surpassing transport capacity .
Consider this: sodium reabsorption in the kidney is tightly tied to the body’s acid–base balance. Which ion, when secreted into the tubular lumen, helps reclaim bicarbonate and neutralize acidosis?
93 / 98
Category:
Renal – Physiology
Reabsorption of sodium in renal tubules is associated with the exchange of which of these ions?
In the proximal convoluted tubule , sodium is reabsorbed through several mechanisms. One key transporter is the Na⁺/H⁺ exchanger (NHE3) , which moves sodium ions into the tubular cell while secreting hydrogen ions into the tubular lumen .
This exchange is important for acid–base balance , since the secreted H⁺ ions combine with filtered bicarbonate (HCO₃⁻) in the lumen to form carbonic acid, which is then converted to CO₂ and water.
CO₂ diffuses back into the cell and helps regenerate HCO₃⁻, which is returned to the blood. Thus, Na⁺ reabsorption is directly linked with H⁺ secretion.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect Na⁺ ions ❌ Sodium is not exchanged for itself. Sodium is reabsorbed, not swapped with sodium.
HCO₃⁻ ions ❌ Bicarbonate is not exchanged with sodium; rather, sodium reabsorption indirectly helps reabsorb bicarbonate via the Na⁺/H⁺ exchange mechanism.
Cl⁻ ions ❌ Chloride reabsorption does occur in the renal tubule, but it is not via direct exchange with sodium. Instead, Cl⁻ follows passively with Na⁺ and water or uses other co-transporters later in the tubule.
K⁺ ions ❌ Potassium is not exchanged for sodium in the proximal tubule. Sodium–potassium exchange happens later in the distal nephron and collecting duct under aldosterone control, not in the proximal tubule.
Think about the body’s acid–base balance: if the blood is already too acidic, would the respiratory system try to make it more acidic or shift it back toward normal?
94 / 98
Category:
Renal – Physiology
Kussmaul’s breathing is characterized by a deep, rapid breathing pattern that is seen with diabetic ketoacidosis. What is the role of Kussmaul’s breathing?
Kussmaul’s breathing is a classic compensatory mechanism in metabolic acidosis , most notably in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) .
In acidosis, blood pH drops because of accumulation of ketoacids.
The body compensates through the respiratory system , where deep and rapid breathing helps remove CO₂ .
Since CO₂ combines with water to form carbonic acid (H₂CO₃), lowering CO₂ reduces hydrogen ion concentration, thereby increasing blood pH back toward normal . This is why Kussmaul’s breathing is considered a compensatory response, not a primary disease.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect None of these ❌ Incorrect because one option (removal of CO₂ to raise pH) is true.
To increase blood oxygen concentration ❌ While rapid breathing may incidentally raise O₂, that is not the primary role of Kussmaul’s breathing. The main purpose is to correct acidosis by eliminating CO₂.
To decrease volatile ketones from blood by exhaling them out ❌ Ketones like acetoacetate and β-hydroxybutyrate are not volatile and cannot be exhaled. Only acetone (a minor ketone) is volatile, which may cause a fruity odor on the breath, but this is not the function of Kussmaul’s respiration.
To blow out excessive carbon dioxide to lower blood pH ❌ This is the opposite of the truth. Removing CO₂ raises blood pH (makes it less acidic), not lowers it.
Think about which part of the urinary system mainly acts as a passageway only and does not provide stagnant areas where crystals can easily precipitate.
95 / 98
Which part of the brain acts as the “homeostatic center” for regulating thirst, hunger, temperature, and hormone release — making it the logical place for osmoreceptors?
96 / 98
Category:
Renal – Physiology
An increase in extracellular fluid osmolarity causes special nerve cells called osmoreceptor cells to stimulate the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from the posterior pituitary gland. Where in the brain are these osmoreceptors located?
Osmoreceptors are specialized neurons that detect changes in the osmolarity of extracellular fluid. They are located in the hypothalamus , specifically in regions such as the organum vasculosum of the lamina terminalis (OVLT) and the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei .
When extracellular fluid osmolarity increases (e.g., dehydration), these osmoreceptors shrink, triggering signals that stimulate the posterior pituitary to release antidiuretic hormone (ADH/vasopressin) .
ADH then acts on the collecting ducts of the kidney to increase water reabsorption, thereby diluting plasma osmolarity back to normal.
This is a key homeostatic mechanism for fluid balance.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect Pineal gland ❌ The pineal gland mainly secretes melatonin , regulating circadian rhythms. It is not involved in osmolarity sensing or ADH regulation.
Thalamus ❌ The thalamus is a sensory relay center for many inputs (vision, hearing, pain, etc.) but has no role in osmolar regulation or ADH release.
Cerebellum ❌ The cerebellum controls coordination, balance, and motor activity. It is unrelated to fluid balance or osmoreceptor activity.
Brainstem ❌ While the brainstem controls vital functions like respiration and cardiovascular reflexes, osmoreceptors for ADH release are not located here.
Think about this: proteins are too large to diffuse like ions or glucose. How would the tubular cells “drink in” these molecules to reclaim them before they are lost in urine?
97 / 98
Category:
Renal – Physiology
Proteins are reabsorbed in the renal tubule by which of the following processes?
Small amounts of proteins (mainly filtered plasma proteins such as albumin in trace quantities) that pass into the tubular fluid are reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule .
This reabsorption occurs via pinocytosis (endocytosis) , a process where tubular epithelial cells engulf protein molecules in small vesicles.
The vesicles then fuse with lysosomes, where proteins are broken down into amino acids, which are transported back into the blood.
This ensures that normally, only negligible amounts of protein are lost in urine.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect Paracellular transport ❌ This is the movement of solutes (like ions, water, and some small molecules) between tubular cells through tight junctions. Proteins are too large to move this way.
Phagocytosis ❌ This is the engulfment of large particles (like bacteria or cell debris), not soluble proteins. Tubular cells do not use phagocytosis for protein uptake.
Secondary active transport ❌ This is important for glucose, amino acids, and some ions, which are co-transported with sodium. Proteins are not handled this way.
Passive transport ❌ This refers to diffusion down a gradient without energy. Proteins are too large for passive diffusion across membranes.
When blood is not immediately available in acute hemorrhage, what type of solution stays in the blood vessels longer — crystalloids that distribute widely or colloids that expand plasma volume more directly?
98 / 98
Category:
Renal – Pathology
A person has lost a lot of blood in a traumatic accident. What should be given to him immediately?
Haemaccel (polygeline) is a colloid plasma expander . In many older exam references and some hospital protocols, Haemaccel is listed as the immediate fluid of choice in acute hemorrhage when blood is not available right away. The reason is that colloids like Haemaccel remain longer in the intravascular space compared to crystalloids, providing rapid plasma volume expansion in severe blood loss. It helps maintain blood pressure and tissue perfusion until blood transfusion can be arranged.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect 2% normal saline ❌ This is hypertonic saline and not used in trauma resuscitation. It would cause dangerous electrolyte disturbances.
5% dextrose ❌ Provides calories but is useless for intravascular volume replacement because glucose is rapidly metabolized, leaving only free water that shifts into cells.
3% normal saline ❌ Used mainly in severe hyponatremia or raised intracranial pressure, not for trauma or hemorrhage.
Ringer’s lactate solution ❌ RL is often used in modern trauma protocols as the first choice, but in certain exam settings and older clinical teaching, colloids like Haemaccel are highlighted as the more immediate option for plasma expansion.
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