Report a question What’s wrong with this question? You cannot submit an empty report. Please add some details. 123456789101112131415161718192021222324252627282930313233343536373839404142434445464748495051525354555657585960616263646566676869707172737475767778798081828384858687888990919293949596979899100 NeuroScience NEUROSCIENCE – 2023 Questions from the 2023 Module Exam Focus on the body vs. face distinction for sensory input. 1 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Physiology A 65-year-old male patient suffers from a cerebrovascular accident resulting in a complete loss of sensation on the right side of the body sparing the head and face. Which of the following nuclei of the thalamus is most likely to be affected by this lesion? Ventral posterolateral Ventral lateral Ventral posteromedial Lateral geniculate Ventral anterior The ventral posterolateral (VPL) nucleus of the thalamus is responsible for relaying sensory information from the body (excluding the head and face) to the somatosensory cortex. The sensory modalities processed by the VPL include: Touch Pain Temperature Proprioception Vibration The VPL receives input from: The spinothalamic tract (carrying pain and temperature) The dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway (carrying fine touch, vibration, and proprioception) A lesion in the VPL nucleus results in contralateral loss of sensation in the body, sparing the head and face because sensory input from the face is processed in the ventral posteromedial (VPM) nucleus. Why not the other options? Ventral anterior: Involved in motor planning and relays signals from the basal ganglia and cerebellum to the motor cortex, not sensory processing. Ventral lateral: Also involved in motor functions, relaying signals from the basal ganglia and cerebellum, not sensory inputs. Ventral posteromedial (VPM): Relays sensory information from the head and face via the trigeminal and gustatory pathways, not the body. Lateral geniculate: Part of the visual pathway, relaying input from the retina to the primary visual cortex, unrelated to somatic sensation. Think about which cranial nerve nucleus controls pupil constriction and its vulnerability in conditions like diabetes, where parasympathetic fibers may be affected without impairing motor function. 2 / 100 Category: NeuroSciences – Anatomy A diabetic patient is observed to have mydriasis while undergoing an examination in an ophthalmology clinic. All other eye movements are normal. The nerve most likely affected in this case arises from which of the following brain stem nuclei? – 2023 Nucleus Ambiguus Superior salivatory nucleus Edinger-Westphal nucleus Spinal nucleus of CN V Motor nucleus of CN III The Edinger-Westphal nucleus is the parasympathetic nucleus associated with the oculomotor nerve (CN III). It is responsible for the pupillary constriction (miosis) and lens accommodation by sending parasympathetic fibers to the sphincter pupillae and ciliary muscles via the ciliary ganglion. In this case: Mydriasis (dilated pupil) occurs due to damage to the parasympathetic fibers originating from the Edinger-Westphal nucleus. Normal eye movements indicate that the motor fibers of CN III, which control most of the extraocular muscles, are intact, but the parasympathetic fibers are selectively affected. This selective involvement is common in diabetic neuropathy because the parasympathetic fibers are more superficial and vulnerable to ischemic damage. Why not the other options? Superior salivatory nucleus: Parasympathetic nucleus for the facial nerve (CN VII), involved in lacrimation and salivation, not pupil control. Nucleus Ambiguus: Motor nucleus for CN IX, X, and XI, involved in swallowing, phonation, and parasympathetic control of the heart, not the eye. Motor nucleus of CN III: Controls extraocular muscles but does not contribute to parasympathetic innervation; eye movements are normal in this case. Spinal nucleus of CN V: Involved in sensory processing (pain and temperature) for the face, unrelated to pupil size or eye movements. Focus on the tight junction proteins that are essential for sealing spaces between endothelial cells, preventing unwanted substances from entering the brain. 3 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Biochemistry At the interface between blood and brain, endothelial cells are tightly packed together by the help of tight junctions that are specialized transmembrane proteins such as? Selectins Rhodopsins Integrins Claudins Glycophorins In the blood-brain barrier (BBB), tight junctions are formed between endothelial cells to prevent the passage of most substances from the bloodstream into the brain. These tight junctions are composed of specialized transmembrane proteins, primarily claudins, which are critical for: Maintaining the integrity of the barrier. Regulating paracellular transport (the movement of substances between cells). Other tight junction proteins, such as occludins and junctional adhesion molecules (JAMs), also contribute to the tight junction complex, but claudins are the primary structural components. Why not the other options? Glycophorins: Found in red blood cell membranes, they play a role in maintaining the RBC’s shape and charge, not in tight junction formation. Integrins: Mediate cell adhesion to the extracellular matrix and other cells but are not involved in tight junctions. Selectins: Facilitate leukocyte adhesion during inflammation and are not related to the BBB’s tight junctions. Rhodopsins: Light-sensitive proteins involved in vision, unrelated to the blood-brain barrier. Think about the pathway of the fornix and the portion that curves anteriorly near the ventricles to connect with the diencephalon structures. 4 / 100 Category: NeuroSciences – Anatomy Which of the following structures forms the anterior boundary of the interventricular foramen of Monro? – 2023 Body of fornix Anterior column of fornix Crura of fornix Fimbria of fornix Posterior column of fornix The interventricular foramen of Monro is a small opening that connects each lateral ventricle to the third ventricle. The anterior boundary of the foramen of Monro is formed by the anterior column of the fornix, a bundle of white matter fibers that originate from the hippocampus and curve anteriorly to join the mammillary bodies. The other structures mentioned do not form the anterior boundary: Crura of fornix: Posterior part of the fornix, extending from the hippocampus. Posterior column of fornix: Incorrect terminology; this is part of the crura. Body of fornix: Lies superior to the foramen and is not part of its boundaries. Fimbria of fornix: Part of the hippocampus, not near the foramen of Monro. Think about the structure connecting the third and fourth ventricles in the midbrain. Obstruction here would cause hydrocephalus affecting the ventricles upstream. 5 / 100 Category: NeuroSciences – Anatomy A neonate is diagnosed with obstructive hydrocephalus. The parents were counseled and told that this condition is due to the blockage of a conduit between two ventricles of the brain. Which of the following is the most likely conduit obstructed in this case? – 2023 Paired foramen of Luschka Foramen of Monro Aqueduct of Sylvius Foramen of Magendie Foramen of Luschka The Aqueduct of Sylvius (also known as the cerebral aqueduct) is the narrow conduit that connects the third ventricleto the fourth ventricle in the midbrain. It is a common site of obstruction in cases of obstructive hydrocephalus, especially in neonates. When the aqueduct is blocked, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) cannot flow from the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle, causing dilation of the lateral ventricles and third ventricle, while the fourth ventricle remains normal or collapsed. This type of hydrocephalus is often associated with congenital conditions like aqueductal stenosis or may result from infection, hemorrhage, or tumors. Why not the other options? Foramen of Monro: This connects the lateral ventricles to the third ventricle. Obstruction here would cause dilation of only the lateral ventricles, not the third ventricle. Foramen of Magendie: This is the median aperture of the fourth ventricle, allowing CSF to enter the subarachnoid space. Obstruction here would affect the fourth ventricle and subarachnoid space, not the third and lateral ventricles. Foramen of Luschka: These are the paired lateral apertures of the fourth ventricle. Similar to the foramen of Magendie, obstruction would affect CSF flow into the subarachnoid space, not between the third and fourth ventricles. Paired foramen of Luschka: Same as above—this option is redundant. 6 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Pathology The parents of a 9-year-old child take him to a pediatrician because he has become more clumsy and complaining of headaches. For the past three weeks, the child’s parents have noticed that he has trouble using his right hand to grab or pick up items like cups or toys. He also has a significant decline in his ability to draw lines and figures for around two weeks. He’s been complaining about worsening headaches for the previous four days. The boy has been properly immunized and reached all developmental milestones. On examination an intention tremor of the right hand is observed. There is a lack of finger-nose coordination and impairment of rapid alternating movements. His further examination revealed that he was unable to stop movement precisely at the intended spot preventing the overshoot. The patient showed deterioration of both fine and gross skilled movements. An MRI shows a cyst at the junction of vermis and intermediate zone of the right cerebellum. Lumbar puncture showed a slight increase in intracranial pressure. Which of the following best reflects his inability to perform rapid alternating movements? Dysdiadochokinesis Intention tremor Nystagmus Hypotonia Dysmetria Dysdiadochokinesis refers to the inability to perform rapid alternating movements, such as pronation and supination of the hand. This is a hallmark of cerebellar dysfunction, particularly involving the spinocerebellum. Focus on the distinction between short association fibers (connecting nearby gyri) and long association fibers(connecting distant areas within the same hemisphere). Pay attention to the size and connections of these fibers. 7 / 100 Category: NeuroSciences – Anatomy Which of the following statements regarding the long association fibers is incorrect? – 2023 The cingulum is an example of long association fibers Composed of white matter Lie deep beneath the cerebral cortex Superior longitudinal fasciculus is the largest bundle of nerve fibers They connect adjacent gyri Long association fibers are white matter tracts that lie deep beneath the cerebral cortex and connect different lobes of the brain within the same hemisphere. They allow for communication between distant cortical areas. Examples include: Superior longitudinal fasciculus: The largest bundle of long association fibers, connecting the frontal, parietal, occipital, and temporal lobes. Cingulum: Runs within the cingulate gyrus and connects parts of the limbic system. In contrast, short association fibers, not long association fibers, connect adjacent gyri within the same hemisphere. This makes the statement “They connect adjacent gyri” incorrect. Focus on whether the strategy occurs before or after the emotional response is triggered. John’s behavior fits into post-emotional response regulation. 8 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Community Medicine + Behavioural Sciences John diverts his attention to stop thinking about disturbing events in order to prevent himself from experiencing any overwhelming negative emotions. Which of the following term best corresponds to this strategy? Cognitive reappraisal Response modulation Situation selection Antecedent based strategies Response focused strategies Response modulation refers to efforts to influence one’s emotional response after the emotional reaction has been fully triggered. In John’s case, he is diverting his attention from disturbing events to manage and suppress overwhelming negative emotions. This falls under the category of response-focused emotion regulation strategies, as it occurs after the emotional response has been activated. Why not the other options? Cognitive reappraisal: Involves changing the way one interprets or thinks about a situation to alter its emotional impact. This is a cognitive process and occurs earlier in the emotion regulation timeline compared to response modulation. Antecedent-based strategies: Refer to emotion regulation strategies used before an emotional response is fully triggered. Examples include situation selection and cognitive reappraisal. Response-focused strategies: A broader category that includes response modulation, but John’s action is specifically diverting attention to regulate his emotional reaction, making response modulation the best fit. Situation selection: Refers to choosing or avoiding certain situations to influence emotions. John is not altering his environment but modulating his response to it. 9 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Pathology The parents of a 9-year-old child take him to a pediatrician because he has become more clumsy and complaining of headaches. For the past three weeks, the child’s parents have noticed that he has trouble using his right hand to grab or pick up items like cups or toys. He also has a significant decline in his ability to draw lines and figures for around two weeks. He’s been complaining about worsening headaches for the previous four days. The boy has been properly immunized and reached all developmental milestones. On examination an intention tremor of the right hand is observed. There is a lack of finger-nose coordination and impairment of rapid alternating movements. His further examination revealed that he was unable to stop movement precisely at the intended spot preventing the overshoot. The patient showed deterioration of both fine and gross skilled movements. An MRI shows a cyst at the junction of vermis and intermediate zone of the right cerebellum. Lumbar puncture showed a slight increase in intracranial pressure. Failure of which of the following processes is responsible for the problems in movement in this case? Cognition Myelination Damping Equilibrium Feedback The cerebellum operates as a feedback mechanism, continuously adjusting motor commands by comparing intended and actual movements. A disruption in this feedback loop leads to the observed issues, such as intention tremor, dysdiadochokinesis, and impaired coordination. Focus on the condition where pain arises from nerve dysfunction rather than tissue damage, often manifesting as allodynia. 10 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Physiology A 40-year-old male was diagnosed to have increased sensitivity to pain, without major tissue damage. He complained that even touching cloth is painful for him 🙁 . Which one of the following types of pain is my guy suffering from? Phantom Neuropathic Referred Psychogenic Nociceptive Neuropathic pain results from damage or dysfunction in the nervous system rather than tissue injury or inflammation. A classic feature of neuropathic pain is allodynia, where normally non-painful stimuli (e.g., touch or light pressure) are perceived as painful. This condition is often associated with conditions like peripheral neuropathy, postherpetic neuralgia, or nerve damage. Why not the other options? Nociceptive pain: Caused by tissue injury or inflammation (e.g., cuts, burns) and involves activation of nociceptors, which is not the case here. Psychogenic pain: Pain influenced by psychological factors, often without a clear physiological cause, does not explain the increased sensitivity to touch in this case. Phantom pain: Refers to pain experienced in a missing limb or body part after amputation, unrelated to the described scenario. Referred pain: Pain perceived in a location different from the actual source of the problem (e.g., heart attack causing arm pain), which is not the case here. Focus on the neuron type located in dorsal root ganglia, specialized for transmitting sensory information from the periphery to the CNS. 11 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Physiology A Neurophysician wants to conduct research on the properties of sensory neurons. Which one of the following types of neuron is appropriate for the study? Multipolar neurons Interneurons Motor neurons Unipolar neurons Bipolar neurons Unipolar neurons (more accurately called pseudounipolar neurons) are the most appropriate type of neuron for studying sensory neurons. These neurons are found in the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord and cranial nerve ganglia. They have a single process that splits into two branches: One branch acts as a peripheral axon, carrying sensory information from the periphery (e.g., skin, muscles) to the neuron. The other branch acts as a central axon, transmitting this information to the spinal cord or brainstem. This unique structure is ideal for studying sensory functions, including touch, pain, temperature, and proprioception. Why not the other options? Motor neurons: Multipolar neurons involved in transmitting motor commands from the CNS to muscles; they are not sensory neurons. Bipolar neurons: Found in specialized sensory systems like the retina (vision) and olfactory epithelium (smell), but they are not the primary type for general sensory studies. Multipolar neurons: Commonly found in the CNS and associated with motor or interneuron functions, not peripheral sensory input. Interneurons: Multipolar neurons found in the CNS that connect sensory and motor pathways but are not involved in directly receiving sensory input. Focus on the receptor subtype that opioids like morphine and fentanyl primarily target for their potent pain-relieving effects. 12 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Pharmacology The analgesic properties of opioids are primarily mediated by which of the following receptors? Mu receptor Delta receptor Adrenergic receptor Kappa receptor Cholinergic receptor The analgesic properties of opioids are primarily mediated by the mu opioid receptor (MOR). When opioids bind to this receptor, they: Inhibit pain transmission: By reducing neurotransmitter release in the presynaptic neurons and hyperpolarizing postsynaptic neurons, opioids block the ascending pain signals. Activate descending pain modulation pathways: Enhancing the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters like GABA and serotonin. The activation of mu receptors is responsible for: Analgesia (pain relief). Euphoria. Side effects such as respiratory depression, sedation, and physical dependence. Why not the other options? Adrenergic receptor: Involved in sympathetic nervous system activity but not in opioid-mediated analgesia. Kappa receptor: Opioids can bind to kappa receptors, but they mediate dysphoria and less potent analgesic effects than mu receptors. Delta receptor: Also involved in analgesia, but their role is less significant compared to mu receptors. Cholinergic receptor: Involved in parasympathetic nervous system functions, unrelated to opioid-mediated pain relief. Focus on endogenous opioids released by interneurons that play a central role in inhibiting pain signals. 13 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Physiology Which of the following substances is released by interneurons in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord to inhibit ascending pain signals? Enkephalin GABA Acetylcholine Glutamate Serotonin Enkephalins are endogenous opioid peptides released by interneurons in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord. These interneurons play a key role in the descending pain modulation system, which inhibits ascending pain signals. Enkephalins act by binding to opioid receptors (primarily δ and μ receptors) on presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons to: Presynaptic inhibition: Reduce the release of excitatory neurotransmitters like substance P and glutamate from primary afferent fibers. Postsynaptic inhibition: Hyperpolarize postsynaptic neurons, making them less responsive to pain signals. This mechanism reduces the perception of pain and is part of the body’s endogenous pain control system. Why not the other options? Serotonin: Modulates pain in the descending pathway but is released from the raphe nuclei, not interneurons in the dorsal horn. Glutamate: An excitatory neurotransmitter that amplifies pain signals, not inhibits them. GABA: An inhibitory neurotransmitter found in the CNS, including the dorsal horn, but its role in pain modulation is secondary to enkephalins. Acetylcholine: Primarily involved in motor control and autonomic functions, not pain modulation in the dorsal horn Think about the vitamin that is converted into PLP, a coenzyme required for decarboxylation and transamination reactions in neurotransmitter pathways. 14 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Biochemistry Which of the following vitamins is required for the synthesis of neurotransmitters like dopamine, serotonin, and GABA? Riboflavin Cyanocobalamin Niacin Pyridoxine Thiamine Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) is essential for the synthesis of several key neurotransmitters, including dopamine, serotonin, and GABA. It acts as a coenzyme in the form of pyridoxal phosphate (PLP) for several enzymatic reactions involved in neurotransmitter production: Dopamine synthesis: PLP is required for the conversion of L-DOPA to dopamine by the enzyme aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase. Serotonin synthesis: PLP is necessary for converting 5-hydroxytryptophan (5-HTP) to serotonin. GABA synthesis: PLP acts as a cofactor for glutamate decarboxylase, which converts glutamate to GABA. Vitamin B6 deficiency can lead to irritability, depression, confusion, and seizures due to impaired neurotransmitter synthesis. Why not the other options? Thiamine (Vitamin B1): Required for energy metabolism and nervous system function but not directly involved in neurotransmitter synthesis. Niacin (Vitamin B3): Plays a role in NAD/NADP production for cellular metabolism, not in neurotransmitter synthesis. Riboflavin (Vitamin B2): Involved in energy production and oxidative metabolism but does not directly participate in neurotransmitter synthesis. Cyanocobalamin (Vitamin B12): Important for myelin synthesis and DNA production but not directly required for neurotransmitter synthesis. Think about the location of the sinuses. The cavernous sinus is located around the sella turcica and primarily drains the orbit and nearby regions. Is the sinus in question near this area, or does it lie elsewhere in the cranial cavity? 15 / 100 Category: NeuroSciences – Anatomy Which of the following veins is not a tributary of the cavernous sinus? – 2023 Inferior ophthalmic vein Central vein of retina Superior ophthalmic vein Straight sinus Sphenoparietal sinus The cavernous sinus is a venous sinus located on either side of the sella turcica and receives blood from multiple tributaries, including: Superior ophthalmic vein: Drains directly into the cavernous sinus. Inferior ophthalmic vein: May drain directly or indirectly into the cavernous sinus. Central vein of retina: Typically drains into the cavernous sinus via the ophthalmic veins. Sphenoparietal sinus: Drains directly into the cavernous sinus. The straight sinus, however, is not a tributary of the cavernous sinus. It connects the inferior sagittal sinus to the confluence of sinuses, and its location is midline and posterior, unrelated to the cavernous sinus. Focus on the hormone secreted during fasting that stimulates hunger and overrides satiety signals. 16 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Physiology Which of the following hormones/factors is responsible for inhibiting the action of leptin on the ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus and stimulating the lateral hypothalamic nucleus producing a sense of hunger? Ghrelin α-MSH Stretch of the Gastrointestinal tract Leptin Insulin Ghrelin is a hormone secreted by the stomach, particularly during fasting, and it plays a key role in stimulating hunger. It acts on the lateral hypothalamic nucleus to promote feeding behavior and inhibits the effects of leptin on the ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus (the satiety center), thereby overriding the feeling of satiety. Ghrelin increases appetite and food intake by activating neuropeptide Y (NPY) and agouti-related peptide (AgRP) neurons in the hypothalamus. Why not the other options? Stretch of the gastrointestinal tract: Signals satiety to the brain by activating vagal afferents, reducing hunger, rather than promoting it. α-MSH (alpha-melanocyte-stimulating hormone): A product of the POMC neurons in the arcuate nucleus, it suppresses hunger by acting on melanocortin receptors in the hypothalamus, opposing the effect of ghrelin. Leptin: Produced by adipose tissue, leptin acts on the hypothalamus to reduce hunger by inhibiting NPY/AgRP neurons and activating POMC neurons. Insulin: Similar to leptin, insulin reduces hunger by acting on the hypothalamus, promoting satiety, and decreasing food intake. Focus on the combination of macrocephaly and ventriculomegaly, which are hallmark features of CSF accumulation.. 17 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Pathology A female infant born after a full-term pregnancy weighing 3.4kg has an enlarged head with the occipitofrontal circumference (OFC) being 49.5 cm. A cranial ultrasound reveals bilateral ventriculomegaly. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? Herniation Meningitis Encephalitis Hydrocephalus Cerebral edema The female infant presents with: Enlarged head circumference: The occipitofrontal circumference (OFC) of 49.5 cm is significantly above the normal range for a full-term newborn, indicating macrocephaly. Bilateral ventriculomegaly: Enlargement of the cerebral ventricles suggests accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). These findings are classic for hydrocephalus, which occurs due to: Obstructive (non-communicating hydrocephalus): Blockage in the CSF pathways (e.g., at the cerebral aqueduct or foramina). Communicating hydrocephalus: Impaired CSF absorption at the arachnoid villi or excessive production of CSF. Hydrocephalus leads to increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in infants, causing head enlargement due to the pliable cranial sutures that have not yet fused. Why not the other options? Herniation: Refers to displacement of brain tissue (e.g., transtentorial or tonsillar herniation), typically causing severe neurological symptoms, not isolated ventriculomegaly and head enlargement. Encephalitis: Inflammation of the brain parenchyma due to infection, presenting with fever, altered mental status, and seizures, not ventriculomegaly or head enlargement. Meningitis: Involves inflammation of the meninges, presenting with fever, neck stiffness, and irritability, but it does not typically cause head enlargement or ventriculomegaly. Cerebral edema: Refers to brain swelling due to fluid accumulation, often secondary to trauma or hypoxia, but it does not specifically cause enlarged ventricles or head circumference. Focus on the combination of autoimmune symptoms, neurological deficits, and oligoclonal bands in the CSF, which are hallmark findings 18 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Pathology A 50-year-old female patient who is a known case of an autoimmune disorder visits the neurology clinic with complaints of fatigue, tingling, numbness, muscle weakness, and muscle spasms. CSF analysis reveals oligoclonal bands. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case? Multiple sclerosis Cerebral edema Subdural hematoma Central pontine myelinolysis Cerebral herniation The patient’s symptoms—fatigue, tingling, numbness, muscle weakness, muscle spasms—along with the presence of oligoclonal bands in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), strongly suggest multiple sclerosis (MS). MS is a chronic autoimmune demyelinating disorder of the central nervous system (CNS), characterized by: Relapsing-remitting neurological symptoms (or progressive forms). Immune-mediated destruction of myelin, leading to slowed or disrupted nerve signal conduction. CSF findings: Oligoclonal bands represent intrathecal synthesis of immunoglobulins, a hallmark of MS. These features align with the classic presentation of MS. Why not the other options? Cerebral edema: Swelling of the brain caused by trauma, infection, or stroke, typically presenting with increased intracranial pressure symptoms, not oligoclonal bands. Cerebral herniation: Involves displacement of brain tissue due to elevated intracranial pressure; presents with rapid neurological deterioration, not fatigue or sensory symptoms. Central pontine myelinolysis: A condition associated with rapid correction of hyponatremia, presenting with quadriparesis or “locked-in syndrome,” not sensory disturbances or oligoclonal bands. Subdural hematoma: Collection of blood beneath the dura mater, usually following trauma, causing symptoms of increased ICP or focal neurological deficits but unrelated to oligoclonal bands or autoimmune processes. Think about the cranial nerve responsible for the sense of smell and the bone that separates the nasal cavity from the cranial cavity. Which cranial nerve would pass through this structure? 19 / 100 Category: NeuroSciences – Anatomy A 24-year-old patient presents to the emergency department after a road accident with complaints of headache, nausea, vomiting & an altered level of consciousness. An X-ray of the skull reveals a fracture of the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone. Which of the following cranial nerves passes through the foramina of this fractured bone? – 2023 CN II CN III CN I CN V CN IV The cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone contains small foramina through which the olfactory nerve fibers (CN I)pass. These fibers arise from the olfactory epithelium in the nasal cavity, traverse the cribriform plate, and synapse in the olfactory bulb located on the superior surface of the bone. A fracture of the cribriform plate can result in damage to these nerves, causing anosmia (loss of the sense of smell) and may allow the leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), leading to rhinorrhea. Why not the other options? CN II (Optic nerve): Passes through the optic canal, not the cribriform plate. CN III (Oculomotor nerve): Passes through the superior orbital fissure, not the cribriform plate. CN IV (Trochlear nerve): Also passes through the superior orbital fissure. CN V (Trigeminal nerve): Different divisions of the trigeminal nerve pass through the superior orbital fissure (V1), foramen rotundum (V2), and foramen ovale (V3), none of which involve the cribriform plate. Focus on the anatomical origin of the cranial nerves. Does the nerve in question arise from the brainstem or elsewhere in the nervous system? Remember, the first two cranial nerves (olfactory and optic) bypass the brainstem. 20 / 100 Category: NeuroSciences – Anatomy Which of the following cranial nerves does not originate at the pontomedullary junction of the brainstem? – 2023 Facial nerve Nervus intermedius Vestibulocochlear nerve Olfactory nerve Abducens nerve The olfactory nerve (Cranial Nerve I) does not originate from the brainstem. It arises from the olfactory epithelium in the nasal cavity and sends its axons directly to the olfactory bulb, bypassing the brainstem entirely. The other nerves mentioned—facial nerve (Cranial Nerve VII), vestibulocochlear nerve (Cranial Nerve VIII), abducens nerve (Cranial Nerve VI), and nervus intermedius (a part of Cranial Nerve VII)—originate from the pontomedullary junction, a region at the junction between the pons and medulla oblongata in the brainstem. Think about the vitamin critical for methylation reactions, myelin maintenance, and DNA synthesis, whose deficiency causes both anemia and neurological damage. 21 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Biochemistry The deficiency of which of the following vitamins is marked by anemia, impaired neurotransmitter production, increased homocysteine levels, and neuronal demyelination? Vitamin B1 Vitamin B2 Vitamin B3 Vitamin B6 Vitamin B12 A deficiency of Vitamin B12 (cobalamin) can lead to the following clinical features: Anemia: Megaloblastic anemia due to impaired DNA synthesis in rapidly dividing cells like red blood cells. Impaired neurotransmitter production: Vitamin B12 is essential for synthesizing neurotransmitters and maintaining neurological health. Increased homocysteine levels: B12 is required as a cofactor for methionine synthase, which converts homocysteine to methionine. Deficiency leads to elevated homocysteine levels, increasing the risk of cardiovascular disease. Neuronal demyelination: B12 is critical for methylation reactions necessary for maintaining myelin. Deficiency causes subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, characterized by demyelination in the dorsal and lateral columns, leading to neurological symptoms. Why not the other options? Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin): Deficiency causes cheilosis, glossitis, and seborrheic dermatitis, but it does not lead to anemia or demyelination. Vitamin B3 (Niacin): Deficiency causes pellagra, with symptoms of diarrhea, dermatitis, and dementia, but no neurological demyelination or increased homocysteine levels. Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine): Deficiency can cause microcytic anemia, peripheral neuropathy, and seizures, but not megaloblastic anemia or demyelination. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine): Deficiency causes beriberi or Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, with neurological symptoms due to energy metabolism dysfunction, but no direct link to demyelination or elevated homocysteine. 22 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Physiology The myelin sheath of the neurons is altered due to the formation of plaques in which of the following disorders of the nervous system? Multiple sclerosis Parkinson's disease Neurosyphilis Cerebral palsy Epilepsy Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a chronic autoimmune disorder characterized by the formation of plaques in the central nervous system (CNS). These plaques represent areas of demyelination, where the immune system attacks the myelin sheath surrounding the axons of neurons. The loss of myelin disrupts nerve signal conduction, leading to various neurological symptoms, such as: Weakness Sensory disturbances Visual problems (e.g., optic neuritis) Coordination and balance issues MS primarily affects the CNS and can result in progressive neurological disability. Why not the other options? Epilepsy: A disorder characterized by recurrent seizures due to abnormal electrical activity in the brain. Myelin is not typically affected. Parkinson’s disease: Involves degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra, leading to motor symptoms such as tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia. It does not involve demyelination. Cerebral palsy: A group of non-progressive motor disorders caused by brain injury or abnormal development, often occurring during birth or early life. Myelin is not specifically affected. Neurosyphilis: A late-stage complication of syphilis infection that affects the CNS. It damages neurons but does not involve plaque formation or demyelination. Think about a disorder involving autoimmune demyelination and the formation of plaques within the CNS. Think about the term that describes the lack of coordination between different components of a movement, resulting in fragmented or jerky motor activity. 23 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Physiology Which of the following cerebellar disorders results in an inability to combine the various components of a movement to create a smooth action? Dysdiadochokinesia Ataxia Dysmetria Asthenia Asynergia Asynergia is a cerebellar disorder characterized by the inability to coordinate and integrate the various components of a movement into a smooth and harmonious action. This results in fragmented or jerky movements. It occurs due to damage to the cerebellum, which disrupts its role in timing, precision, and coordination of motor activities. Why not the other options? Ataxia: Refers to the general lack of coordination and control over voluntary movements, often causing unsteady gait and clumsy actions. It is broader than asynergia and does not specifically address the failure to combine movement components. Dysmetria: Inability to judge distances accurately, resulting in overshooting (hypermetria) or undershooting (hypometria) a target. It affects the precision of movements rather than their integration. Asthenia: Refers to muscle weakness or reduced strength, which is not directly related to the lack of smoothness in combining movements. Dysdiadochokinesia: Difficulty in performing rapid, alternating movements (e.g., pronation and supination of the forearm) due to impaired timing and rhythm, but it does not directly involve the integration of movement components. 24 / 100 Category: NeuroSciences – Anatomy Destruction of this tract produces contralateral loss of pain and thermal sensibilities below the level of the lesion. B D E C A The spinothalamic tract transmits pain and temperature sensations. Its fibers cross to the contralateral side of the spinal cord shortly after entering and then ascend to the brain. A lesion in this tract causes a contralateral loss of pain and thermal sensation below the level of the lesion Think about the structure responsible for fear responses and emotional regulation, which, when damaged, results in loss of fear and hyperorality. 25 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Physiology In an animal laboratory, the change in the behavior of a monkey is observed. The monkey has a loss of fear, forgetfulness, and the tendency to place everything in its mouth. Ablation (medical procedure that destroys or removes tissues, cells, or functions in the body) of which of the following structures of the limbic system is the most likely cause for these behavioral changes? Hypothalamus Cingulate gyrus Amygdala Hippocampus Prefrontal cortex The amygdala is a key structure in the limbic system that plays a crucial role in emotional regulation, including fear responses, aggression, and social behavior. The behavioral changes described in the monkey—loss of fear, forgetfulness, and hyperorality (placing everything in its mouth)—are classic symptoms of Klüver-Bucy syndrome, which occurs following bilateral ablation of the amygdala. Key symptoms of Klüver-Bucy syndrome include: Loss of fear: Reduced emotional responses, particularly to threatening stimuli. Hyperorality: The tendency to explore objects by placing them in the mouth. Forgetfulness (amnesia): Difficulty in memory recall or learning new information. Why not the other options? Cingulate gyrus: Involved in emotional regulation and behavior, but its dysfunction does not cause hyperorality or loss of fear. Hypothalamus: Regulates autonomic functions, hunger, and endocrine responses but is not directly associated with the described behavioral changes. Prefrontal cortex: Involved in executive functions, decision-making, and social behavior, but its dysfunction does not specifically result in hyperorality or loss of fear. Hippocampus: Essential for memory formation but not directly related to emotional responses or oral exploration behavior. Focus on the smallest and unmyelinated fibers, as they are blocked first by local anesthetics, which target pain sensation. 26 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Physiology Before a minor surgical procedure, a local anesthetic is injected by the surgeon to ensure that the patient feels no pain. Which of the following nerve fibers is most likely to be blocked by the local anesthetic? A alpha fibers Type C fibers Type B fibers A beta fibers A gamma fibers Type C fibers are unmyelinated, small-diameter nerve fibers that conduct pain and temperature sensations at a slow conduction velocity. Local anesthetics preferentially block smaller, unmyelinated or lightly myelinated fibers because: Smaller fibers are more susceptible to the effects of anesthetics due to their greater surface area-to-volume ratio. The lack of myelin in Type C fibers makes them more easily inhibited by local anesthetics, which block sodium channels and prevent action potential generation. Pain fibers (Type C) are typically blocked first by local anesthetics, followed by fibers responsible for touch and motor functions. Why not the other options? Type B fibers: Myelinated fibers associated with autonomic preganglionic function, but they are less sensitive than Type C fibers to local anesthetics. A alpha fibers: Large, heavily myelinated fibers responsible for motor control and proprioception; these are the least likely to be affected by local anesthetics. A beta fibers: Myelinated fibers involved in touch and pressure sensation, but they are less sensitive than Type C fibers. A gamma fibers: Myelinated fibers controlling muscle spindle sensitivity, less sensitive to local anesthetics than Type C fibers. Focus on the layer where dendrites of Purkinje cells branch extensively and interact with parallel fibers and interneurons. 27 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Histology The cerebellar cortex is composed of three layers. Which of the following layers is a synaptic zone that is mainly composed of dendritic arborizations of Purkinje cells? – 2023 Molecular layer Pyramidal cell layer Thalamus Purkinje cell layer Granular cell layer The molecular layer of the cerebellar cortex is the outermost layer and serves as a synaptic zone. It is primarily composed of: Dendritic arborizations of Purkinje cells, which form extensive branching. Axons of granule cells (parallel fibers) that synapse on the dendrites of Purkinje cells. Interneurons, such as basket cells and stellate cells, which modulate Purkinje cell activity. This layer is where most of the synaptic interactions within the cerebellar cortex occur, contributing to the integration of sensory and motor signals. Why not the other options? Pyramidal cell layer: Pyramidal cells are found in the cerebral cortex, not the cerebellar cortex. Thalamus: A relay center in the diencephalon, unrelated to the cerebellar cortex. Purkinje cell layer: The middle layer of the cerebellar cortex; it contains the soma of Purkinje cells, not their dendritic arborizations. Granular cell layer: The innermost layer, composed of granule cells and their axons, which project into the molecular layer as parallel fibers. Focus on neutrophilic dominance, decreased glucose, and elevated protein as classic findings in bacterial meningitis. 28 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Pathology A 1-year-old girl is diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. Which of the following findings in the CSF analysis are suggestive of bacterial meningitis? Clear CSF No lymphocytes and polymorphs 100-500 lymphocytes Increased glucose content in CSF 100-2000 polymorphs In bacterial meningitis, the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) typically shows: Increased white blood cells (WBCs): Predominantly polymorphonuclear leukocytes (neutrophils), in the range of 100–2000/mm³. This neutrophilic pleocytosis is a hallmark of bacterial meningitis. Elevated protein levels: Due to the breakdown of the blood-brain barrier and the inflammatory process. Decreased glucose levels: Bacteria consume glucose and impair its transport, leading to hypoglycorrhachia (CSF glucose <40% of blood glucose). Turbid CSF: Due to the presence of inflammatory cells and proteins. Why not the other options? Increased glucose content in CSF: In bacterial meningitis, glucose levels are typically reduced, not increased. No lymphocytes and polymorphs: Bacterial meningitis is characterized by significant polymorph (neutrophil) infiltration. Clear CSF: The CSF is usually turbid in bacterial meningitis due to inflammation, not clear. 100-500 lymphocytes: Lymphocytic pleocytosis is characteristic of viral, fungal, or tuberculous meningitis, not bacterial meningitis. 29 / 100 Category: NeuroSciences – Anatomy Destruction of this tract produces contralateral loss of light touch and pressure sensibilities 2–3 segments below the level of the lesion. F E D G H The spinothalamic tract also transmits light touch and pressure. Due to the ascending fibers’ crossing at different levels within the spinal cord, the sensory loss occurs 2–3 segments below the level of the lesion and on the contralateral side. Focus on the process that results in lasting synaptic changes 30 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Physiology Which of the following mechanisms is involved in the conversion of short-term memory to long-term memory? Sensitization Long term potentiation Post-tetanic contraction Circuit of reverberating neurons Habituation Long-term potentiation (LTP) is a process involved in the conversion of short-term memory to long-term memory. It occurs at the synapses of neurons, particularly in the hippocampus, a brain region critical for memory formation. LTP strengthens synaptic connections through: Increased synaptic efficiency: Repeated stimulation enhances the responsiveness of postsynaptic neurons to subsequent stimuli. NMDA receptor activation: Leads to calcium influx, which triggers signaling cascades that strengthen the synaptic connection. Structural changes: Over time, LTP results in the growth of dendritic spines and increased synaptic connections, solidifying the memory trace. Why not the other options? Post-tetanic potentiation: A transient increase in synaptic strength following high-frequency stimulation, but it does not result in long-term memory formation. Circuit of reverberating neurons: A mechanism for maintaining short-term memory by continuous neuronal firing, not involved in forming long-term memory. Habituation: A decrease in response to a repeated, non-threatening stimulus, not related to memory enhancement. Sensitization: An increased response to a repeated stimulus, involved in short-term behavioral changes rather than long-term memory. 31 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Pathology The parents of a 9-year-old child take him to a pediatrician because he has become more clumsy and complaining of headaches. For the past three weeks, the child’s parents have noticed that he has trouble using his right hand to grab or pick up items like cups or toys. He also has a significant decline in his ability to draw lines and figures for around two weeks. He’s been complaining about worsening headaches for the previous four days. The boy has been properly immunized and reached all developmental milestones. On examination an intention tremor of the right hand is observed. There is a lack of finger-nose coordination and impairment of rapid alternating movements. His further examination revealed that he was unable to stop movement precisely at the intended spot preventing the overshoot. The patient showed deterioration of both fine and gross skilled movements. An MRI shows a cyst at the junction of vermis and intermediate zone of the right cerebellum. Lumbar puncture showed a slight increase in intracranial pressure. Which of the following functions will be affected due to the lesion of the above-mentioned area? Recognize emotionally potent stimuli Learn and control novel movement pattern Planning movements and motor learning Generate motor patterns in spinal cord Coordination of the central body movements The spinocerebellum is crucial for coordinating movements of the trunk and proximal limbs. A lesion here results in impaired gross and fine motor coordination. Focus on the chronic meningitis with high fibrin content in CSF, leading to the formation of the cobweb-like clot. 32 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Biochemistry On CSF Examination, Cobweb coagulum is a characteristic finding of? Subarachnoid hemorrhage Bacterial meningitis Brain tumour Viral meningitis Tuberculous meningitis A cobweb coagulum is a characteristic finding in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) of patients with tuberculous meningitis (TBM). This occurs due to the presence of a high concentration of fibrinogen in the CSF, which forms a delicate web-like clot when the CSF is allowed to stand. TBM is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis infecting the meninges and typically presents with: Subacute onset of headache, fever, and neck stiffness. Cranial nerve palsies and altered mental status in advanced cases. Key findings in CSF analysis for TBM: Elevated protein levels. Low glucose levels. Lymphocytic pleocytosis. Cobweb coagulum formation when the CSF is left standing. Why not the other options? Viral meningitis: CSF in viral meningitis is typically clear with mild lymphocytic pleocytosis, normal or slightly elevated protein, and normal glucose levels. Cobweb coagulum is not a feature. Subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH): CSF in SAH shows xanthochromia (yellow discoloration due to bilirubin from hemolyzed RBCs), not cobweb coagulum. Bacterial meningitis: CSF shows elevated neutrophilic pleocytosis, high protein, and low glucose but no cobweb coagulum. Brain tumor: CSF findings depend on the tumor type and may include increased pressure or malignant cells, but cobweb coagulum is not a characteristic finding. Focus on the linear acceleration of the utricle and saccule, which are unique to the otolith organs. 33 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Physiology A 60-year-old male patient is suspected to be suffering from impairment of the otolith organs based on a detailed neurological examination and a CT scan. Which of the following functions is most likely to be disturbed in this case? Prediction of disequilibrium of body with a sudden turn Elicitation of the vestibulo-ocular reflex Recognition of angular acceleration of head Rotation of head to one side Detection of the position of the head with respect to gravity The otolith organs in the vestibular system consist of the utricle and saccule, which are responsible for detecting: Linear acceleration (e.g., forward/backward or up/down movements). Head position relative to gravity (e.g., tilting of the head). These functions are mediated by hair cells in the maculae of the utricle and saccule, which respond to the displacement of otoliths (calcium carbonate crystals) when the head changes position or during linear acceleration. Damage to the otolith organs results in disturbances in detecting head position relative to gravity and sensing linear acceleration, leading to issues like imbalance and difficulty maintaining posture. Why not the other options? Prediction of disequilibrium of body with a sudden turn: Relates to the semicircular canals, which detect angular acceleration, not the otolith organs. Elicitation of the vestibulo-ocular reflex (VOR): Primarily mediated by the semicircular canals during head rotation, enabling the eyes to remain fixed on a target. Rotation of head to one side: This is controlled by motor pathways, not directly influenced by the otolith organs. Recognition of angular acceleration of head: The semicircular canals detect angular acceleration, not the otolith organs. Focus on the sensory modality processed by structures in the brainstem and midbrain 34 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Physiology The lateral lemniscus is part of a pathway carrying which of the following sensations? Pain Touch Auditory Proprioception Temperature The lateral lemniscus is a key structure in the auditory pathway, transmitting sound information from the lower brainstem to the midbrain. It carries signals from the cochlear nuclei and the superior olivary complex to the inferior colliculus in the midbrain. The lateral lemniscus plays a critical role in the processing of auditory information, including sound localization and temporal aspects of hearing. Why not the other options? Temperature: This sensation is carried by the spinothalamic tract, not the lateral lemniscus. Touch: Touch sensation is transmitted via the dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway, not the lateral lemniscus. Pain: Pain sensation is carried by the spinothalamic tract, not the lateral lemniscus. Proprioception: Proprioceptive signals are transmitted through the dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway and spinocerebellar tracts, not the lateral lemniscus. Focus on preventative vaccination strategies for individuals who are at continuous risk of handling rabies-related viruses. 35 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Community Medicine + Behavioural Sciences A 36-year-old man is hired as a laboratory worker and he will be handling Rabies related viruses and vaccines. Which of the following vaccines is he advised to get? Tetanus H-RIG (human rabies immunoglobulin) Pre-exposure prophylaxis E-RIG (equine rabies immunoglobulin) Post-exposure prophylaxis Pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) is recommended for individuals at high risk of exposure to the rabies virus, such as laboratory workers handling rabies-related viruses, veterinarians, and animal handlers. The vaccine consists of: Three doses of inactivated rabies vaccine administered on days 0, 7, and 21 (or 28). PrEP provides immunity and reduces the need for post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) if the person is exposed to the virus. However, in case of exposure, additional booster doses are still required for optimal protection. Why not the other options? H-RIG (human rabies immunoglobulin): Used in post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) for individuals who have already been exposed to the rabies virus and have not received prior vaccination. It is not part of pre-exposure prophylaxis. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP): Administered after potential exposure to the rabies virus, combining the rabies vaccine with rabies immunoglobulin (if unvaccinated previously). E-RIG (equine rabies immunoglobulin): Similar to H-RIG, it is used in PEP and not recommended for pre-exposure scenarios. Tetanus: A completely different vaccine, unrelated to rabies prophylaxis. Think of the final step as ensuring ongoing support and preventing further distress by formalizing a follow-up plan. 36 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Community Medicine + Behavioural Sciences During a flood, a mental health professional is given the responsibility to provide psychological first aid and conduct crisis intervention. Which of the following is the 7th and last stage of the crisis intervention model? Develop and formulate an action plan Deal with feelings and emotions Establish follow-up plan and agreement Plan and conduct a crisis intervention Generate and explore alternatives The 7th and final stage of the crisis intervention model involves creating a structured follow-up plan and ensuring agreement between the mental health professional and the individual in crisis. This stage is critical for: Ensuring the person has access to support and resources after the initial intervention. Monitoring progress and preventing a recurrence of the crisis. Strengthening coping strategies and reinforcing any action plans made during the intervention. Why not the other options? Develop and formulate an action plan: This is the 6th stage, where immediate strategies are developed to help resolve the crisis and stabilize the individual. Plan and conduct a crisis intervention: This is the 2nd stage, focused on initiating the intervention after assessing the situation. Generate and explore alternatives: This is the 5th stage, where different coping strategies and solutions are discussed. Deal with feelings and emotions: This is the 4th stage, where the professional helps the individual process their emotional response to the crisis. Focus on the side of the body with symptoms and remember that motor pathways cross over. The contralateral substantia nigra will show more prominent early degeneration. 37 / 100 Category: NeuroSciences – Anatomy A 62-year-old male patient is diagnosed with early-stage Parkinson’s disease. The neurological examination reveals a slight resting tremor of the left hand, slow gait, and lack of the normal range of facial expression. Which of the following is the most likely site of the degenerative changes at this stage of the patient’s disease? – 2023 Bilateral substantia niagra Left globus pallidus Right substantia niagra Left substantia niagra Right globus pallidus In early-stage Parkinson’s disease, symptoms often begin asymmetrically due to uneven degeneration in the substantia nigra. Since the patient presents with a left-hand resting tremor, it suggests greater degeneration in the right substantia nigra, which controls motor function on the opposite side of the body. While Parkinson’s disease is a bilateral neurodegenerative condition, the asymmetry of symptoms reflects the side with more significant degeneration in the early stages. Think about the brain wave patterns seen during deep sleep and how the same waves may appear in abnormal conditions like brain damage in awake individuals. 38 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Physiology Which of the following brain waves are most likely to be present in the EEG of a healthy sleeping person and a brain-damaged awake person? Alpha waves Beta waves Gamma waves Theta waves Delta waves Delta waves are low-frequency, high-amplitude brain waves that are normally observed in the EEG of a healthy sleeping person, especially during deep sleep (Stage 3 and 4 of NREM sleep). However, their presence in an awake person can indicate brain damage or dysfunction, as delta waves in the awake state are abnormal and suggest impaired cortical activity. Why not the other options? Alpha waves: These are seen in relaxed, awake individuals with closed eyes and are not typically present during sleep or in brain-damaged individuals. Gamma waves: High-frequency waves associated with cognitive activities like memory and attention, not seen in sleep or brain damage. Beta waves: Associated with active thinking and alertness in awake individuals, not in sleep or brain damage. Theta waves: Seen during light sleep (Stage 1 of NREM sleep) and in certain meditative states but not prominent in deep sleep or significant brain damage. Think about the inhibitory interneurons that regulate motor neuron activity and prevent overexcitation through feedback loops. 39 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Physiology Which of the following types of inhibition is mediated by inhibitory interneurons in the spinal cord and tends to produce the effect of lateral inhibition? Indirect inhibition Presynaptic inhibition Postsynaptic inhibition Renshaw cell inhibition Reciprocal inhibition Renshaw cells are inhibitory interneurons in the spinal cord that receive collateral input from motor neurons and, in turn, provide inhibitory feedback to those same motor neurons or nearby motor neurons. This type of feedback inhibition is sometimes referred to as lateral inhibition because it helps fine-tune and regulate motor neuron activity, preventing excessive excitation and ensuring smooth, coordinated movements. Renshaw cell inhibition is crucial for: Limiting motor neuron overactivity. Enhancing motor precision by inhibiting nearby neurons (lateral inhibition). Why not the other options? Presynaptic inhibition: Reduces neurotransmitter release at the presynaptic terminal, often by modulating calcium influx. This is not mediated by interneurons in the spinal cord. Reciprocal inhibition: Involves the inhibition of antagonist muscles during agonist contraction, mediated by spinal interneurons, but it does not produce lateral inhibition. Postsynaptic inhibition: Refers to the direct inhibition of postsynaptic neurons, typically via hyperpolarization, but it is not specific to lateral inhibition or Renshaw cells. Indirect inhibition: A general term for inhibition mediated indirectly through other pathways or neurons, not specific to Renshaw cells or lateral inhibition. Think about the arteries that form a “ring” at the base of the brain. Focus on whether the artery contributes to the circular structure or branches off to supply other regions directly. 40 / 100 Category: NeuroSciences – Anatomy Which of the following arteries is not a part of the circle of Willis? – 2023 Posterior cerebral artery Posterior communicating artery Anterior cerebral artery Middle cerebral artery Anterior communicating artery The circle of Willis is an arterial ring located at the base of the brain that provides collateral blood flow between the anterior and posterior circulations. The arteries that form the circle of Willis include: Anterior cerebral artery (ACA) Anterior communicating artery Posterior cerebral artery (PCA) Posterior communicating artery Internal carotid artery (part of it contributes to the circle) The middle cerebral artery (MCA), although it is a major branch of the internal carotid artery, does not participate in forming the circle of Willis. Instead, it extends laterally to supply a large portion of the lateral surface of the cerebral hemispheres. Focus on a reflex response that becomes stronger after a period of suppression, as seen when inhibitory control is lifted. 41 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Physiology During a study, the response of a particular reflex is inhibited for a while and then released suddenly, resulting in a response that is stronger than normal. This is known as which of the following properties of a reflex? Central delay Rebound phenomenon Habituation Reciprocal innervation Summation The rebound phenomenon refers to the exaggerated response of a reflex after a period of inhibition. When the inhibitory input is suddenly released, the reflex response becomes stronger than normal because the excitatory signals have been “unmasked.” This is often observed in conditions where inhibitory control, typically exerted by higher centers of the nervous system, is temporarily or permanently lost. Why not the other options? Central delay: Refers to the time delay between the arrival of the sensory input and the initiation of the motor output in a reflex arc, not the strengthening of a reflex after inhibition. Habituation: A decrease in response to a repeated, non-threatening stimulus over time, which is the opposite of an exaggerated response. Summation: Refers to the additive effect of multiple stimuli (temporal or spatial) to generate a stronger reflex response but does not involve prior inhibition. Reciprocal innervation: Refers to the activation of one muscle group (agonist) and simultaneous inhibition of its antagonist, ensuring smooth movement, but it is unrelated to rebound effects. Focus on the location of the tumor (midbrain) and the pathway of CSF. Think about which structure in the midbrain could block the flow from the third to the fourth ventricle. 42 / 100 Category: NeuroSciences – Anatomy A 50-year-old male patient undergoes a CT scan which reveals a tumor of the midbrain. It shows symmetrical distension of the lateral ventricles and the third ventricle. Which of the following structures is most likely obstructed by the tumor in this case? – 2023 Foramen of Magendie Foramen of Luschka Central canal Foramen of Monroe Cerebral aqueduct The cerebral aqueduct (aqueduct of Sylvius) is a narrow channel in the midbrain that connects the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle. A tumor in the midbrain can obstruct the cerebral aqueduct, leading to non-communicating (obstructive) hydrocephalus. This results in the symmetrical distension of the lateral ventricles and the third ventriclebecause cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) cannot flow from the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle. The fourth ventricle remains unaffected in such cases. Other options: Central canal: A structure in the spinal cord that plays no role in the ventricular system distension seen here. Foramen of Magendie: A median aperture in the fourth ventricle; obstruction here would affect the fourth ventricle and subarachnoid space, not the lateral and third ventricles. Foramen of Monro: Connects the lateral ventricles to the third ventricle. Obstruction here would cause dilation of the lateral ventricles only. Foramen of Luschka: Lateral apertures in the fourth ventricle; obstruction here would not explain third and lateral ventricle dilation. Think of the midline suture running between the two parietal bones, forming the “roof” of the skull. 43 / 100 Category: NeuroSciences – Anatomy The two parietal bones form the sides and the roof of the skull and articulate with each other in the midline. Which of the following sutures is present between these bones? – 2023 Squamous suture Lambdoid suture Sphenofrontal suture Coronal suture Sagittal suture The sagittal suture is the fibrous joint located along the midline of the skull, where the two parietal bones articulate with each other. It extends from the bregma (where it meets the coronal suture) to the lambda (where it meets the lambdoid suture). The sagittal suture forms part of the calvaria and contributes to the roof of the skull. Why not the other options? Sphenofrontal suture: Located between the sphenoid bone and the frontal bone, not between the parietal bones. Coronal suture: Located between the frontal bone and the parietal bones, forming the anterior boundary of the parietal bones. Lambdoid suture: Located between the parietal bones and the occipital bone, forming the posterior boundary of the parietal bones. Squamous suture: Located between the parietal bone and the squamous part of the temporal bone, not the midline. Think about the distribution of inputs from multiple neurons acting at the same time to create a combined effect on the postsynaptic neuron. 44 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Physiology In an experimental lab, multiple stimuli from different neurons are applied to a post-synaptic neuron simultaneously to generate an action potential. Which one of the following phenomena of a synapse is displayed here? Presynaptic inhibition Convergence Divergence Spatial summation Temporal summation Spatial summation occurs when multiple simultaneous stimuli from different presynaptic neurons act on a postsynaptic neuron. These inputs, arriving at different locations on the postsynaptic membrane, combine their effects to bring the neuron to the threshold for generating an action potential. This phenomenon allows for the integration of signals from various sources. Why not the other options? Presynaptic inhibition: Refers to the reduction in neurotransmitter release from a presynaptic neuron due to inhibitory input, not the combined effect of multiple stimuli. Divergence: Refers to one presynaptic neuron sending its signal to multiple postsynaptic neurons, not multiple inputs converging on one neuron. Convergence: Involves multiple presynaptic neurons sending signals to a single postsynaptic neuron but does not emphasize the simultaneous nature required for action potential generation as in spatial summation. Temporal summation: Involves a single presynaptic neuron sending rapid, repeated signals to a postsynaptic neuron, leading to their cumulative effect over time, not simultaneous input. Think about cranial nerves involved in autonomic control of glands, the pupil, and thoracoabdominal viscera. 45 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Physiology Which of the following cranial nerves are a part of the parasympathetic nervous system? V, IX, X, and XII III, V, IX, and X IV, V, IX, and X III, VII, IX, and X III, IV, VII, and IX The parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for “rest and digest” activities and is associated with cranial nerves that carry parasympathetic fibers. These cranial nerves include: Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor nerve): Provides parasympathetic innervation to the sphincter pupillae and ciliary muscles, controlling pupil constriction and lens accommodation. Cranial nerve VII (Facial nerve): Supplies parasympathetic fibers to the lacrimal glands, submandibular glands, and sublingual glands, controlling tear and saliva production. Cranial nerve IX (Glossopharyngeal nerve): Sends parasympathetic fibers to the parotid gland, controlling saliva secretion. Cranial nerve X (Vagus nerve): Provides parasympathetic innervation to most of the thoracic and abdominal viscera, including the heart, lungs, and digestive organs, promoting functions such as heart rate reduction and digestion. Why not the other options? III, V, IX, and X: The trigeminal nerve (V) does not carry parasympathetic fibers; it is primarily sensory with a motor component for mastication. III, IV, VII, and IX: The trochlear nerve (IV) is purely motor and does not have a parasympathetic function. V, IX, X, and XII: The hypoglossal nerve (XII) is purely motor, controlling tongue movement, and does not carry parasympathetic fibers. IV, V, IX, and X: The trochlear (IV) and trigeminal (V) nerves do not carry parasympathetic fibers. Focus on the connection between the pons and the cerebellum. Damage in this region is likely to disrupt pathways that facilitate motor coordination, not autonomic or sensory functions. 46 / 100 Category: NeuroSciences – Anatomy A 67-year-old male patient admitted to the neurology ward is observed to have intention tremor and cerebellar ataxia. Radiological scans reveal a pontine infarct. Which of the following fibers is most likely damaged in this case? – 2023 Corticospinal tract Auditory fibers Corticopontocerebellar tract Sympathetic fibers Parasympathetic fibers The corticopontocerebellar tract is part of the pathway connecting the cerebral cortex to the cerebellum via the pons. This tract is critical for coordination of voluntary movements and motor planning. Damage to this tract, such as in a pontine infarct, can result in intention tremor (tremor during purposeful movement) and cerebellar ataxia(uncoordinated, clumsy movements). The other fibers are less likely to be implicated in this case: Parasympathetic fibers: Primarily control autonomic functions and are not related to motor coordination or tremor. Auditory fibers: Carry information related to hearing and are not connected to motor coordination. Sympathetic fibers: Control autonomic responses (e.g., fight-or-flight) and are unrelated to intention tremor or ataxia. Corticospinal tract: Mediates voluntary motor control but damage to this tract typically causes weakness or paralysis, not intention tremor or cerebellar ataxia. Try to remember that K complexes and sleep spindles are unique markers of a certain stage of sleep and play a role in transitioning from light to deeper stages of sleep. 47 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Physiology A 55-year-old male presented to the neurology clinic with the complaint of excessive daytime sleepiness. He was advised to undergo a sleep study. Just after midnight, the lab technician notices the EEG wave showing K complexes and sleep spindles. Which of the following stages of sleep is the patient in at that moment? Stage 4 REM sleep Stage 2 (N2) of NREM sleep Stage 1 (N1) of NREM sleep Stage 3 (N3) of NREM sleep Stages 1-3 of NREM sleep The presence of K complexes and sleep spindles on an EEG is characteristic of Stage 2 (N2) of non-rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep. This stage represents light sleep and accounts for approximately 50% of the total sleep cycle in adults. Sleep spindles: Short bursts of high-frequency (12-14 Hz) waves, thought to be involved in memory consolidation. K complexes: Large, sharp waveforms followed by slower waves, which are believed to suppress cortical arousal and help in sleep maintenance. Why not the other options? Stage 3 (N3) of NREM sleep: This stage is deep sleep (slow-wave sleep) and is characterized by delta waves on the EEG, not K complexes or sleep spindles. Stages 1-3 of NREM sleep: While N2 is part of NREM sleep, this broad answer does not specifically identify the stage where K complexes and spindles occur. Stage 4 REM sleep: REM sleep is characterized by low-amplitude, mixed-frequency waves, rapid eye movements, and muscle atonia, without K complexes or sleep spindles. Stage 1 (N1) of NREM sleep: This is the lightest sleep stage, characterized by theta waves, but it does not feature K complexes or sleep spindles. Think about the location of the largest fontanelle in the newborn’s skull. It lies at the junction of the coronal and sagittal sutures on the top of the head. 48 / 100 Category: NeuroSciences – Anatomy During a routine examination of a newborn baby in the pediatric clinic, the physician notices a depression of the anterior fontanelle (membranous gap in between bones of the skull). The depressed fontanelle lies between which of the following bones? – 2023 Parietal and temporal bone Parietal and mastoid part of temporal bone Parietal and petrous part of temporal bone Frontal and parietal bone Parietal and occipital bone The anterior fontanelle is the largest membranous gap in the fetal and newborn skull and lies at the junction of the frontal bone and parietal bones. It is located at the midline on the top of the skull where the coronal and sagittal sutures meet. This fontanelle is normally soft and flat in a healthy newborn, and its depression may indicate dehydration, while bulging could suggest increased intracranial pressure. Why not the other options? Parietal and temporal bone: These bones meet at the squamous suture, which does not include any fontanelles. Parietal and petrous part of temporal bone: The petrous part of the temporal bone is located deeper and does not form part of a fontanelle. Parietal and mastoid part of temporal bone: These bones meet at the posterolateral (mastoid) fontanelle, not the anterior fontanelle. Parietal and occipital bone: These bones meet at the posterior fontanelle, not the anterior one. Focus on the dorsal column system when you see discriminative touch, vibration, or proprioception. The fasciculus gracilis handles input from the lower limbs, and the medial lemniscus continues this pathway to the brain. 49 / 100 Category: NeuroSciences – Anatomy The sensation of discriminative touch, vibratory sense, and conscious muscle joint proprioception of the lower limbs passes from the posterior root ganglia to the postcentral gyrus through which of the following pathways? – 2023 Fasciculus gracilis and spinal lemniscus pathway Lateral spinothalamic and medial lemniscus pathway Anterior spinothalamic and spinal lemniscus pathway Fasciculus gracilis and medial lemniscus pathway Lateral spinothalamic and spinal lemniscus pathway The sensation of discriminative touch, vibration, and conscious proprioception from the lower limbs is carried by the dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway. The pathway works as follows: First-order neurons: The sensory information from the lower limbs enters the spinal cord via the posterior root ganglia. These fibers ascend in the fasciculus gracilis, which specifically carries sensations from the lower half of the body (below T6). Second-order neurons: In the medulla oblongata, the fibers synapse in the nucleus gracilis. From here, the axons cross (decussate) to the opposite side and form the medial lemniscus. Third-order neurons: The medial lemniscus fibers synapse in the ventral posterolateral (VPL) nucleus of the thalamus. From the thalamus, projections go to the postcentral gyrus (primary somatosensory cortex) via the posterior limb of the internal capsule. Why not the other options? Lateral spinothalamic and spinal lemniscus pathway: The lateral spinothalamic tract carries pain and temperature, not discriminative touch or proprioception. Anterior spinothalamic and spinal lemniscus pathway: The anterior spinothalamic tract carries crude touch and pressure, not discriminative touch. Fasciculus gracilis and spinal lemniscus pathway: The spinal lemniscus refers to spinothalamic tracts, which carry pain and temperature, not proprioception or vibration. Lateral spinothalamic and medial lemniscus pathway: The lateral spinothalamic tract does not carry discriminative touch, vibration, or proprioception. Think about the term that describes diseases that are regularly present and expected in a specific population or area. 50 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Community Medicine + Behavioural Sciences Which of the following terms refers to the constant presence of a disease or infectious agent within its usual or expected frequency in a given geographical area or population group? Prevalence Incidence Sporadic Epidemic Endemic An endemic disease refers to the constant presence and usual frequency of a disease or infectious agent in a particular geographical area or population group. It reflects a steady-state level of the disease within the community, often influenced by local environmental, social, and host factors. Examples: Malaria in certain tropical regions. Chickenpox in regions without widespread vaccination. Why not the other options? Sporadic: Refers to cases that occur infrequently and irregularly, without a predictable pattern (e.g., rabies in humans). Epidemic: Refers to an unexpected increase in the number of cases of a disease in a specific population over a short time (e.g., COVID-19 outbreaks in specific regions). Incidence: Refers to the number of new cases of a disease occurring in a specific population during a specific time period. It is a measurement, not a pattern of disease occurrence. Prevalence: Refers to the total number of cases (new and existing) of a disease in a population at a given time. It is also a measurement, not a pattern. Think about the glial cells specific to the peripheral nervous system that actively support axonal regeneration and remyelination. 51 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Physiology A 40-year-old woman sustained a peripheral nerve injury while cutting vegetables. The distance between the cut ends was less than 3 mm. Which of the following cells is responsible for the regeneration of this nerve? Oligodendrocyte Schwaan cells Microglia Ependymal cells Astrocytes Schwann cells are the key players in the regeneration of damaged peripheral nerves. After a peripheral nerve injury: Schwann cells proliferate at the site of the injury. They secrete neurotrophic factors and form a guiding structure called Bands of Büngner, which direct the regrowth of axons from the proximal stump to the distal stump. Schwann cells also produce the myelin sheath around regenerated axons, restoring nerve function. The regeneration is more likely to be successful if the gap between the two nerve ends is small, as in this case. Why not the other options? Oligodendrocytes: These are responsible for myelination in the central nervous system (CNS), not the peripheral nervous system. They do not promote regeneration and may inhibit it. Ependymal cells: Line the ventricles and central canal of the spinal cord and are involved in CSF production, not nerve regeneration. Microglia: These are the resident immune cells of the CNS and are involved in phagocytosis and inflammatory responses, not peripheral nerve repair. Astrocytes: Found in the CNS, they play a supportive role but form glial scars that inhibit axonal regeneration, rather than aiding it. HIV encephalitis is a neurological complication of HIV infection, often presenting with symptoms such as cognitive decline, motor deficits, and behavioral changes. The characteristic histopathological findings of HIV encephalitis include: Microglial nodules: Focal aggregates of activated microglial cells. Multinucleated giant cells: Formed by the fusion of infected macrophages or microglia, these are considered pathognomonic for HIV encephalitis. Perivascular inflammation: Often with macrophages and lymphocytes. These findings result from the infection of macrophages and microglia by HIV, leading to neuroinflammation and neuronal damage. Why not the other options? Microglial nodules: Present in HIV encephalitis but are not sufficient alone; multinucleated giant cells are also required for diagnosis. Eosinophilia: Typically seen in parasitic infections or allergic conditions, not in HIV encephalitis. Gliosis: A nonspecific response to CNS injury, commonly seen in many neurological conditions, but it is not a defining feature of HIV encephalitis. Neutrophil infiltration: Characteristic of bacterial infections, not viral encephalitis like HIV. 52 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Pathology A 35-year-old male who has a history of HIV is admitted to the neurology ward with signs and symptoms of encephalitis. Which of the following is a characteristic histopathological finding of HIV encephalitis? Gliosis Microglial nodules and multinucleated giant cells Microglial nodules Neutrophil infiltration Eosinophilia Focus on the hallmark symptoms which are specific to HIV encephalitis. Think about which nerve/s play a role in pupillary reflex, and then what’s the location of the nuclei to which those nerve/s are linked to. 53 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Physiology A 32-year-old male presents to the emergency department with head trauma after he fell from a ladder. A physician shines a flashlight into the patient’s eyes and observes that the pupillary reflexes are normal. This reflex is used to test the functioning of which of the following structures of the brain? Hypothalamus Midbrain Pons Medulla Motor cortex The pupillary reflex (light reflex) involves the constriction of the pupils in response to light and is mediated by neural structures located in the midbrain. The key components involved are: Afferent pathway: Light stimulates the retina, and the signal travels via the optic nerve (CN II) to the pretectal nucleus in the midbrain. Efferent pathway: The pretectal nucleus projects bilaterally to the Edinger-Westphal nuclei in the midbrain, which send parasympathetic fibers through the oculomotor nerve (CN III) to the sphincter pupillae muscle, causing pupillary constriction. The normal pupillary reflex confirms the integrity of these midbrain structures. Why not the other options? Pons: Involved in eye movement coordination and facial sensation/movement but not directly in the pupillary reflex. Hypothalamus: Regulates autonomic and endocrine functions but is not involved in the pupillary reflex. Medulla: Controls vital functions such as respiration and cardiovascular regulation, but not the pupillary reflex. Motor cortex: Controls voluntary movements and has no role in reflexes mediated by the midbrain. 54 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Pathology The parents of a 9-year-old child take him to a pediatrician because he has become more clumsy and complaining of headaches. For the past three weeks, the child’s parents have noticed that he has trouble using his right hand to grab or pick up items like cups or toys. He also has a significant decline in his ability to draw lines and figures for around two weeks. He’s been complaining about worsening headaches for the previous four days. The boy has been properly immunized and reached all developmental milestones. On examination an intention tremor of the right hand is observed. There is a lack of finger-nose coordination and impairment of rapid alternating movements. His further examination revealed that he was unable to stop movement precisely at the intended spot preventing the overshoot. The patient showed deterioration of both fine and gross skilled movements. An MRI shows a cyst at the junction of vermis and intermediate zone of the right cerebellum. Lumbar puncture showed a slight increase in intracranial pressure. Which of the following tests best verifies the aforementioned incapacity to halt motion precisely when needed? Examination of gait Heel to shin test negative Pronator drift positive Romberg's test Finger nose test The finger-nose test is used to evaluate coordination and the ability to halt movements precisely. In cerebellar lesions, patients often overshoot or miss the target due to a lack of fine motor control and inability to regulate movement (dysmetria). Focus on the slow, writhing movements of the hands and face. Damage to the globus pallidus is specifically associated with this type of involuntary movement. 55 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Physiology A 45-year-old male presented to a neurology clinic with complaints of spontaneous and continuous writhing movement of hands, an arm, and face. MRI scans reveal a lesion of the globus pallidus. The patient is manifesting which of the following signs in this case? Nystagmus Chorea Parkinson's disease Athetosis Hemiballismus Athetosis refers to spontaneous, continuous, slow, writhing movements, typically affecting the hands, arms, face, and sometimes other parts of the body. It results from damage to the globus pallidus or its connections within the basal ganglia, which are critical for regulating motor control. The lesion disrupts the inhibitory output from the basal ganglia, leading to excessive, involuntary movements. Why not the other options? Parkinson’s disease: Characterized by bradykinesia, resting tremor, rigidity, and postural instability due to dopaminergic neuron degeneration in the substantia nigra, not the globus pallidus. Nystagmus: Refers to involuntary eye movements and is associated with vestibular, brainstem, or cerebellar dysfunction, not globus pallidus lesions. Chorea: Involves sudden, jerky, irregular movements, but these are faster and less sustained compared to athetosis. Chorea is more commonly associated with lesions in the striatum (caudate and putamen) rather than the globus pallidus. Hemiballismus: Characterized by violent, flinging movements of a limb, typically caused by damage to the subthalamic nucleus, not the globus pallidus. Focus on the medial-to-lateral organization of the cerebellar nuclei. The fastigial nucleus is closest to the midline, near the vermis. 56 / 100 Category: NeuroSciences – Anatomy A cross-section of the cerebellum shows the cerebellar nuclei embedded in the white matter which is surrounded by the cortex. Which of the following nuclei is located most medially? – 2023 Dentate Globose Putamen Emboliform Fastigial The cerebellum contains four deep nuclei embedded in its white matter, from lateral to medial: dentate, emboliform, globose, and fastigial nuclei. The fastigial nucleus is the most medial of these nuclei and is located near the midline, close to the vermis. It is involved in maintaining balance and posture through connections with the vestibular and reticular systems. Why not the other options? Emboliform nucleus: Located lateral to the globose nucleus and medial to the dentate nucleus. Globose nucleus: Located medial to the emboliform nucleus but still lateral to the fastigial nucleus. Dentate nucleus: The largest and most lateral of the cerebellar nuclei, involved in planning and coordination of voluntary movements. Putamen: Part of the basal ganglia, not a cerebellar nucleus, and therefore unrelated to this question. Focus on the neurotransmitter produced by neurons in the substantia nigra that is critical for motor control and affected in Parkinson’s disease. 57 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Biochemistry Parkinson’s disease is associated with the loss of specific neurons containing which of the following neurotransmitters? Norepinephrine Indolamines Dopamine GABA Serotonin Parkinson’s disease is primarily caused by the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra pars compacta, a part of the midbrain. Dopamine is critical for regulating motor control through its action on the basal ganglia, particularly the direct and indirect pathways. The loss of dopamine leads to: Motor symptoms: Bradykinesia, rigidity, tremor, and postural instability. Non-motor symptoms: Depression, cognitive impairment, and sleep disturbances. Reduced dopamine levels impair the balance between excitatory and inhibitory signaling in the basal ganglia circuits, causing the characteristic motor deficits. Why not the other options? GABA: An inhibitory neurotransmitter involved in the basal ganglia, but Parkinson’s disease is not primarily due to GABAergic neuron loss. Indolamines: Refers to serotonin-related neurotransmitters, which are not primarily involved in Parkinson’s disease. Serotonin: A neurotransmitter associated with mood regulation, sleep, and appetite; it is not the primary neurotransmitter affected in Parkinson’s disease. Norepinephrine: Important for autonomic and stress responses but not directly linked to the pathogenesis of Parkinson’s disease. Focus on the embryological organization of the neural tube. The dorsal part is associated with sensory processing, while the ventral part relates to motor control. Which embryological structure matches this description? 58 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Embryology Which of the following embryological structures gives rise to the dorsal sensory horn of the spinal cord? – 2023 Marginal layer Roof plate Basal plate Alar plate Floor plate The dorsal (sensory) horn of the spinal cord develops from an embryological structure located in the dorsal part of the neural tube. This structure is responsible for processing sensory information during development. Its differentiation is influenced by signaling from adjacent structures like the roof plate. Other structures: Roof plate: Acts as a signaling center but does not form part of the sensory horn. Floor plate: Located ventrally and plays a role in guiding motor development. Marginal layer: Forms white matter of the spinal cord but does not give rise to sensory or motor horns. Basal plate: Contributes to motor structures rather than sensory ones. Think about the medial surface of the brain and the artery (ACA) supplying it. Consider which areas control the lower limbs, as this region is typically involved in infarctions affecting the medial cerebral hemispheres. 59 / 100 Category: NeuroSciences – Anatomy An unconscious male patient is brought to the emergency room. An MRI of the brain is performed and reveals infarction of the medial surface of the cerebral hemispheres. Which of the following cortical areas is likely to be affected in this case? Inferior frontal gyrus Superior temporal gyrus Superior parietal lobule Paracentral lobule Middle frontal gyrus The paracentral lobule is located on the medial surface of the cerebral hemispheres and includes portions of both the frontal and parietal lobes. It is responsible for motor and sensory functions of the contralateral lower limb. An infarction affecting the medial surface of the brain is typically due to occlusion of the anterior cerebral artery (ACA), which supplies this region. In such cases, patients may present with: Motor deficits (e.g., paresis) or sensory deficits in the lower limbs due to involvement of the paracentral lobule. Why not the other options? Superior parietal lobule: Located on the lateral surface of the parietal lobe, involved in spatial orientation and sensory integration, but not on the medial surface. Superior temporal gyrus: Located on the lateral surface of the temporal lobe and associated with auditory processing, not on the medial surface. Middle frontal gyrus: Located on the lateral surface of the frontal lobe, involved in higher-order cognitive functions, not on the medial surface. Inferior frontal gyrus: Also located on the lateral surface of the frontal lobe and associated with speech production (Broca’s area), not on the medial surface. Think about the structure most commonly associated with memory processing and learning. It is part of the limbic system and is critical for creating lasting memories. 60 / 100 Category: NeuroSciences – Anatomy A 44-year-old patient presents to the outpatient clinic with the complaint of being unable to recall any recently occurring events. Which of the following brain structures is responsible for converting short-term memory into long-term memory? – 2023 Parahippocampal gyrus Indusium griseum Hippocampus Fornix Prefrontal cortex The hippocampus plays a critical role in converting short-term memory into long-term memory. It is part of the limbic system and is located in the medial temporal lobe of the brain. Damage to the hippocampus impairs the ability to form new long-term memories, a condition known as anterograde amnesia, which aligns with the patient’s presentation. The other structures mentioned have different roles: Indusium griseum: A thin layer of gray matter overlying the corpus callosum; not involved in memory formation. Fornix: A white matter tract that connects the hippocampus to other parts of the brain, including the mammillary bodies, facilitating memory processing. Parahippocampal gyrus: Involved in spatial memory and navigation but not the primary site for memory conversion. Prefrontal cortex: Associated with working memory, decision-making, and executive functions, but not the conversion of short-term to long-term memory. 61 / 100 Category: NeuroSciences – Anatomy Loss of all sensations at the level of the lesion? G K E I B The posterolateral tract (Lissauer’s tract) contains incoming sensory fibers that ascend or descend for a few segments before synapsing. Destruction at this level would affect all sensations entering through that segment. Focus on the patient’s symptoms and its role in weakening small cerebral arteries, leading to hemorrhages. 62 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Pathology A 60-year-old male patient with a history of hypertension for the last 10 years is brought to the emergency department in an unconscious state. History also reveals that the patient is non-compliant with his medication for hypertension. MRI and CT scan brain show a lobar hemorrhage. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this condition? Diabetes Arteriovenous malformation Cerebral amyloid angiopathy Trauma Hypertension Chronic hypertension is the most common cause of lobar hemorrhage in elderly patients. Long-standing hypertension leads to damage of small penetrating arteries in the brain, predisposing to: Microaneurysm formation (Charcot-Bouchard aneurysms). Arterial rupture due to weakening of vessel walls. Lobar hemorrhages due to hypertension typically occur in areas supplied by small penetrating arteries, such as: Basal ganglia Thalamus Cerebellum Pons This patient’s history of hypertension and medication non-compliance makes this the most likely cause of the hemorrhage. Why not the other options? Arteriovenous malformation (AVM): AVMs are congenital vascular malformations that can cause hemorrhages, but they are less common and usually present at a younger age or with seizures or focal neurological deficits. Diabetes: Diabetes is associated with ischemic strokes rather than hemorrhagic strokes. Cerebral amyloid angiopathy (CAA): A common cause of lobar hemorrhages in elderly patients, especially without hypertension. However, CAA is not as likely in this case due to the patient’s history of uncontrolled hypertension. Trauma: While trauma can cause brain hemorrhages, there is no mention of trauma in the history, making this less likely. Focus on the swimming history, rapid onset, and flask-shaped amoebae, which are hallmark features 63 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Pathology A young male patient presents to the emergency department in an unconscious state. The parents give a history of him swimming in a pool for the last few days. CSF analysis reveals small flask-shaped amoeba. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case? Cysticercosis Naegleria fowleri Prion disease Candida albicans Acanthamoeba Naegleria fowleri, also known as the “brain-eating amoeba,” is a thermophilic free-living amoeba that causes primary amoebic meningoencephalitis (PAM). This condition is rare but rapidly fatal. The typical presentation includes: History of swimming in warm, freshwater bodies or poorly chlorinated pools (as in this case). Rapid onset of symptoms: fever, headache, nausea, vomiting, neck stiffness, and altered mental status. CSF analysis: Detects small, flask-shaped amoebae, which are characteristic of Naegleria fowleri. Naegleria fowleri enters the body through the nasal passages, penetrates the cribriform plate, and reaches the brain, causing severe inflammation and destruction of brain tissue. Why not the other options? Acanthamoeba: Another free-living amoeba that causes granulomatous amoebic encephalitis (GAE), typically in immunocompromised individuals, but its progression is slower, and it is not linked to swimming history. Cysticercosis: Caused by the larval stage of Taenia solium (pork tapeworm), leading to CNS involvement (neurocysticercosis), but it does not involve amoebae or swimming history. Candida albicans: A fungal pathogen causing meningitis in immunocompromised patients, but it is not associated with swimming or flask-shaped organisms in CSF. Prion disease: Causes neurodegenerative conditions such as Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, which present with progressive neurological decline, not acute meningoencephalitis. Think about the location of sympathetic ganglia relative to the target organs. Sympathetic fibers must often travel long distances to reach their effectors. 64 / 100 Category: NeuroSciences – Anatomy Which of the following is not a feature of postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system? – 2023 Originate away from the effector organs Unmyelinated The cell bodies of postganglionic neurons are in autonomic ganglia located peripherally Noradrenergic Are short in length In the sympathetic nervous system, postganglionic neurons are typically long, not short. This is because the sympathetic ganglia (where the postganglionic neuron cell bodies are located) are usually found in the sympathetic chain (paravertebral ganglia) or prevertebral ganglia, which are located far from the effector organs. Therefore, the postganglionic axons must travel a significant distance to reach their target organs. The other features of sympathetic postganglionic neurons are correct: The cell bodies are in autonomic ganglia located peripherally: Found in the paravertebral or prevertebral ganglia. Originate away from the effector organs: Unlike parasympathetic postganglionic neurons, which are closer to the target organs. Noradrenergic: Most sympathetic postganglionic neurons release norepinephrine (except those supplying sweat glands, which release acetylcholine). Unmyelinated: Postganglionic fibers lack myelin, whereas preganglionic fibers are myelinated. Focus on the output neurons of the cerebellar cortex and the type of interneurons that regulate their activity by targeting the soma. 65 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Histology Within the cerebellar cortex, a basket-like nest is formed around the soma of which of the following cells? – 2023 Basket cells Pyramidal cells Stellate cells Purkinje cells Granule cells The basket-like nest is formed around the soma of Purkinje cells by the axons of basket cells within the cerebellar cortex. Why not the other options? Stellate cells: Inhibitory interneurons in the molecular layer, but they synapse on the dendrites of Purkinje cells, not around their soma. Granule cells: Excitatory neurons in the granular layer; their axons (parallel fibers) synapse on the dendrites of Purkinje cells, not their soma. Pyramidal cells: Found in the cerebral cortex, not the cerebellum, and thus unrelated to this structure. Think about the cranial nerve that controls shoulder elevation and head turning through the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles. 66 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Physiology A 72-year-old female visits a physician with complaints of difficulty in raising her shoulders and turning her head for the last few weeks. Investigations reveal a lesion in the Medulla. Which one of the following nerves is involved in this lesion to have the effects mentioned above? Glossopharyngeal nerve Hypoglossal nerve Vagus nerve Abducens nerve Accessory nerve The accessory nerve (cranial nerve XI) is responsible for motor innervation to the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles, which are involved in raising the shoulders and turning the head. A lesion in the medulla affecting this nerve can result in: Weakness in shoulder elevation (trapezius muscle). Difficulty turning the head to the opposite side (sternocleidomastoid muscle). The spinal accessory nerve has both cranial and spinal components, with the cranial part originating in the medulla. Why not the other options? Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX): Involved in taste, salivation, and swallowing, but not in shoulder or neck movements. Abducens nerve (CN VI): Controls lateral eye movement, not related to the shoulder or neck. Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII): Controls tongue movements, not the shoulders or neck. Vagus nerve (CN X): Involved in parasympathetic control of the thoracic and abdominal viscera and voice modulation, not motor control of the shoulders or neck. 67 / 100 Category: NeuroSciences – Anatomy Destruction of the tract produces loss of fine touch, vibration, proprioception, and two-point discrimination ipsilaterally in the lower limbs below the level of the lesion. I B H D E The gracile fasciculus carries fine touch, vibration, and proprioception from the lower limbs. It remains ipsilateral in the spinal cord and crosses at the medulla, so a lesion here causes ipsilateral loss of these sensations below the lesion. Focus on risk factors related to immune system weakness, age extremes, or chronic infections, which predispose individuals to encephalitis. 68 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Pathology Which of the following is not a risk factor for encephalitis? Children under the age of 1 year People with a strong immune system People with a weak immune system Older age HIV infection A strong immune system is not a risk factor for encephalitis; in fact, it helps protect against infections that can lead to encephalitis. Encephalitis typically occurs when the brain becomes inflamed due to infections (most commonly viral) or autoimmune conditions, and individuals with weakened immune defenses are at higher risk. Risk factors for encephalitis include: Weak immune system: Conditions like HIV, organ transplants, or immunosuppressive therapy increase susceptibility to infections. Children under the age of 1 year: Their developing immune systems are less effective at combating infections. Older age: Age-related decline in immunity makes older adults more vulnerable to infections and complications. HIV infection: Directly increases the risk of opportunistic infections, including those that can cause encephalitis (e.g., CMV, toxoplasmosis). Why not the other options? People with a weak immune system: Increased susceptibility to infections, including those causing encephalitis. Children under the age of 1 year: Immature immune systems make infants more vulnerable to infections. HIV infection: Strongly associated with encephalitis, especially due to opportunistic infections. Older age: Age-related immunosenescence increases the risk of encephalitis. When you see bilateral sensory and motor deficits below the lesion, think about complete disruption of the spinal cord. Pay attention to whether both ascending and descending tracts are involved. 69 / 100 Category: NeuroSciences – Anatomy A 53-year-old patient was brought to the emergency department after a fall. MRI scan reveals a slipped disc at the L3 level. Neurological examination shows that the patient has a bilateral loss of pain, temperature, and light touch sensation below the level of the lesion, bilateral lower motor neuron paralysis in the segment of the lesion, and bilateral spastic paralysis below the level of the lesion. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case? – 2023 Central cord syndrome Brown-Séquard syndrome Complete cord transection syndrome Anterior cord syndrome Syringomyelia The clinical findings in this patient suggest a complete cord transection syndrome. The key features include: Bilateral loss of pain, temperature, and light touch sensation below the level of the lesion: This indicates disruption of the spinothalamic tracts on both sides. Bilateral lower motor neuron (LMN) paralysis at the level of the lesion: This results from damage to the anterior horn cells at the level of the lesion. Bilateral spastic paralysis below the level of the lesion: This is due to disruption of the corticospinal tracts, leading to upper motor neuron (UMN) signs below the lesion. These findings are consistent with a complete transection of the spinal cord, which interrupts all ascending and descending tracts. Why not the other options? Syringomyelia: Typically causes a cape-like loss of pain and temperature sensation due to damage to the anterior commissure, but it spares light touch and motor function in early stages. Anterior cord syndrome: Involves loss of pain and temperature sensation and motor paralysis below the lesion but spares dorsal column sensations (proprioception and vibration). Brown-Séquard syndrome: A hemisection of the cord would result in ipsilateral motor and proprioceptive lossand contralateral pain and temperature loss below the lesion, not bilateral findings. Central cord syndrome: Affects the cervical cord, typically leading to greater weakness in the upper limbs than the lower limbs, without complete bilateral deficits. Think about the neurotransmitter that directly inhibits neuronal activity by increasing chloride influx, leading to hyperpolarization. 70 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Pharmacology Which of the following is an inhibitory neurotransmitter that causes hyperpolarization of neurons? Glutamate Acetylcholine Dopamine GABA (gamma aminobutyric acid) Norepinephrine GABA (gamma aminobutyric acid) is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system (CNS). It functions by binding to GABA-A and GABA-B receptors, leading to: Hyperpolarization of neurons: GABA-A receptors are ionotropic and increase chloride ion (Cl⁻) influx, making the neuronal membrane potential more negative and less likely to fire an action potential. Decreased neuronal excitability: GABA reduces the likelihood of excessive excitation, which is essential for maintaining balance in neuronal circuits. This inhibition is critical for preventing seizures, reducing anxiety, and promoting relaxation. Why not the other options? Glutamate: The primary excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS, which depolarizes neurons by activating NMDA and AMPA receptors. Acetylcholine: Can have excitatory or inhibitory effects depending on the receptor type (nicotinic vs. muscarinic), but it is not primarily inhibitory. Norepinephrine: An excitatory neurotransmitter involved in the sympathetic nervous system and alertness, not hyperpolarization. Dopamine: A modulatory neurotransmitter with complex effects, but it does not directly cause hyperpolarization like GABA. Focus on the linear acceleration of the utricle and saccule, which are unique to the otolith organs. 71 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Physiology A 60-year-old male patient is suspected to be suffering from impairment of the otolith organs based on a detailed neurological examination and a CT scan. Which of the following functions is most likely to be disturbed in this case? Detection of the position of the head with respect to gravity Prediction of disequilibrium of body with a sudden turn Rotation of head to one side Recognition of angular acceleration of head Elicitation of the vestibulo-ocular reflex The otolith organs in the vestibular system consist of the utricle and saccule, which are responsible for detecting: Linear acceleration (e.g., forward/backward or up/down movements). Head position relative to gravity (e.g., tilting of the head). These functions are mediated by hair cells in the maculae of the utricle and saccule, which respond to the displacement of otoliths (calcium carbonate crystals) when the head changes position or during linear acceleration. Damage to the otolith organs results in disturbances in detecting head position relative to gravity and sensing linear acceleration, leading to issues like imbalance and difficulty maintaining posture. Why not the other options? Prediction of disequilibrium of body with a sudden turn: Relates to the semicircular canals, which detect angular acceleration, not the otolith organs. Elicitation of the vestibulo-ocular reflex (VOR): Primarily mediated by the semicircular canals during head rotation, enabling the eyes to remain fixed on a target. Rotation of head to one side: This is controlled by motor pathways, not directly influenced by the otolith organs. Recognition of angular acceleration of head: The semicircular canals detect angular acceleration, not the otolith organs. Consider whether the vein is superficial or deep. The superior sagittal sinus primarily collects blood from superficial veins on the brain’s convexity, not deep or basal structures. 72 / 100 Category: NeuroSciences – Anatomy Which of the following veins drains into the superior sagittal sinus? – 2023 Deep middle cerebral veins Superficial middle cerebral veins Striate veins Anterior cerebral veins Superior cerebral veins The superior sagittal sinus is one of the dural venous sinuses located along the midline of the brain, running in the superior border of the falx cerebri. It primarily collects venous blood from the superior cerebral veins, which drain the superficial aspects of the cerebral hemispheres. These veins course over the brain’s convex surface and directly empty into the superior sagittal sinus. The other veins listed drain into different venous structures: Deep middle cerebral veins: Drain into the basal veins or deep venous system. Superficial middle cerebral veins: Drain into the cavernous sinus or transverse sinus. Striate veins: Drain the internal structures of the brain and contribute to deep venous drainage. Anterior cerebral veins: Typically contribute to deep venous drainage, not the superior sagittal sinus. Focus on the bones forming the boundaries of the anterior cranial fossa. Consider the sphenoid bone’s unique contributions to different regions of the cranial cavity. 73 / 100 Category: NeuroSciences – Anatomy A patient who suffered from a road traffic accident is brought to the emergency room with a skull fracture involving bones of the anterior cranial fossa. Which of the following skull bones is most likely to be fractured in this case? – 2023 Temporal bone Parietal bone Greater wings of sphenoid Clivius Lesser wings of sphenoid The anterior cranial fossa forms the floor of the frontal part of the cranial cavity and primarily houses the frontal lobes of the brain. It is formed by the following bones: Frontal bone (anteriorly) Ethmoid bone (in the midline) Lesser wings of the sphenoid bone (posteriorly) A fracture involving the anterior cranial fossa commonly affects the lesser wings of the sphenoid bone because this structure forms part of the posterior boundary of the fossa and is relatively fragile. Fractures in this region may lead to complications such as CSF rhinorrhea due to damage to the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone or involvement of the optic canal. Why not the other options? Clivus: Part of the posterior cranial fossa, not the anterior cranial fossa. Parietal bone: Contributes to the calvaria (roof of the skull) and does not form part of the anterior cranial fossa. Greater wings of sphenoid: Part of the middle cranial fossa, not the anterior cranial fossa. Temporal bone: Primarily contributes to the middle and posterior cranial fossae, not the anterior fossa. Focus on the persistent low mood, anhedonia, and suicidal ideation as hallmarks 74 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Community Medicine + Behavioural Sciences A 32-year-old mother of two children visits a primary healthcare center with complaints of feeling sad, irritable, and empty, and often finds herself crying for no reason for the past three months. She has a loss of interest in all activities and finds it really hard to carry out her daily activities. She feels as if she would be better off dead and even has thoughts about taking her life at times. Which one of the following disorders is she most likely suffering from? Depression Schizophrenia Anxiety Bipolar disorder Post-traumatic stress disorder The symptoms described by the patient—persistent sadness, irritability, emptiness, loss of interest in activities, difficulty carrying out daily tasks, and suicidal thoughts—are classic indicators of major depressive disorder (MDD). Depression is characterized by: Core symptoms: Low mood and/or loss of interest or pleasure in most activities (anhedonia). Additional symptoms: Fatigue, irritability, difficulty concentrating, changes in appetite or sleep patterns, and feelings of worthlessness or hopelessness. Duration: Symptoms persisting for at least two weeks or longer. Her mention of thoughts about taking her life highlights the urgency for immediate intervention to ensure her safety and provide appropriate treatment. Why not the other options? Schizophrenia: Characterized by psychotic symptoms such as delusions, hallucinations, disorganized thinking, and behavior, which are not present in this case. Bipolar disorder: Involves episodes of both depression and mania/hypomania. There is no evidence of manic or hypomanic symptoms (e.g., elevated mood, increased energy, reduced need for sleep) in this patient. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD): Results from a traumatic event and includes symptoms such as intrusive memories, hyperarousal, and avoidance, none of which are described here. Anxiety: Primarily involves excessive worry and fear without the hallmark depressive symptoms like low mood, loss of interest, and suicidal thoughts. Think about reflexes that involve both sides of the body and help maintain balance when a sudden withdrawal occurs. 75 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Physiology A 20-year-old male was walking barefoot when he suddenly withdrew his leg when he accidentally stepped on a nail. Which of the following reflexes is responsible for activating the antagonistic contralateral extensor muscles in this case? Crossed extensor reflex Visceral reflex Plantar reflex Babinski reflex Stretch reflex The crossed extensor reflex is responsible for activating the contralateral extensor muscles when the leg is withdrawn in response to a painful stimulus. This reflex helps maintain balance by extending the opposite leg while the affected leg is flexed to withdraw from the painful stimulus. The mechanism involves: Activation of nociceptors in the foot (due to the nail). Sensory signals travel to the spinal cord. Motor neurons on the ipsilateral side activate flexor muscles to withdraw the injured leg. Motor neurons on the contralateral side activate extensor muscles to stabilize the opposite leg and prevent falling. Why not the other options? Plantar reflex: A superficial reflex involving the stimulation of the sole, producing flexion of the toes (normal response in adults). It does not involve contralateral extensor activation. Stretch reflex: A monosynaptic reflex (e.g., patellar reflex) that maintains muscle tone and posture; it does not involve withdrawal or contralateral responses. Babinski reflex: A pathological response in adults (toes fan upward) seen during plantar stimulation and indicative of upper motor neuron lesions, unrelated to withdrawal reflexes. Visceral reflex: Involves autonomic responses such as pupillary constriction or bladder emptying, not somatic motor reflexes. Focus on the C-shaped structure that runs along the lateral ventricle and is separated from the lentiform nucleus by the internal capsule. 76 / 100 Category: NeuroSciences – Anatomy During a lecture on the basal nuclei, the professor mentions a part of the corpus striatum which is associated with the lateral ventricle medially and the internal capsule laterally. Which of the following structures of the corpus striatum is being mentioned? – 2023 Putamen Amygdaloid nucleus Globus pallidus Caudate Nucleus Claustrum The caudate nucleus is a C-shaped structure that forms part of the corpus striatum, a component of the basal nuclei. It has the following anatomical relationships: Medially: It is associated with the lateral wall of the lateral ventricle. Laterally: It is bordered by the internal capsule, which separates it from the lentiform nucleus (putamen and globus pallidus). The caudate nucleus plays a critical role in motor control and cognitive processes. Why not the other options? Globus pallidus: Lies medial to the putamen and is not directly related to the lateral ventricle or the internal capsule. Claustrum: A thin layer of gray matter located laterally to the putamen, with no connection to the lateral ventricle or internal capsule. Putamen: Lies lateral to the internal capsule and is part of the lentiform nucleus, not directly related to the lateral ventricle. Amygdaloid nucleus: Located in the temporal lobe and associated with the limbic system, not the lateral ventricle or internal capsule. Think of large signaling molecules like hormones, which require specialized mechanisms (receptor-mediated transcytosis) to cross the BBB. 77 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Biochemistry Which of the following compounds crosses the blood-brain barrier by means of receptor-mediated transcytosis? Phenylalanine Free fatty acids Glucose Leucine Insulin Insulin crosses the blood-brain barrier (BBB) via receptor-mediated transcytosis (RMT). This process involves: Binding of insulin to its specific receptor on the endothelial cells of the BBB. Internalization into vesicles. Transport across the endothelial cells and release into the brain’s interstitial space. Receptor-mediated transcytosis is used for large molecules like insulin, growth factors, and certain antibodies that cannot cross the BBB by diffusion or simple transport mechanisms. Why not the other options? Leucine: Crosses the BBB via carrier-mediated transport, specifically through the large neutral amino acid transporter (LAT1). Free fatty acids: Most free fatty acids do not cross the BBB due to their large size and hydrophobic nature, though certain short-chain fatty acids may cross via diffusion. Glucose: Crosses the BBB via facilitated diffusion, mediated by the GLUT1 transporter. Phenylalanine: Like leucine, it crosses the BBB via LAT1 carrier-mediated transport, not receptor-mediated transcytosis. Focus on the part of the cerebellum that communicates with the cerebral cortex and is involved in higher-order motor planning, especially for skilled and complex movements. 78 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Physiology Which of the following parts of the cerebellum is involved in the planning of sequential movements? Vermis Lateral zone Spinocerebellum Flocculonodular lobe Intermediate zone The lateral zone of the cerebellum, also known as the cerebrocerebellum, is involved in the planning and coordination of sequential movements, especially for skilled, voluntary, and fine motor activities. It communicates extensively with the cerebral cortex via the dentate nucleus and thalamus to plan motor actions before they are executed. Why not the other options? Spinocerebellum: Primarily involved in controlling muscle tone, coordination of ongoing movements, and posture. It does not handle planning but focuses on real-time motor adjustments. Intermediate zone: Part of the spinocerebellum that regulates limb movement and ongoing motor adjustments rather than planning. Flocculonodular lobe: Associated with balance, vestibular function, and eye movement control, not planning movements. Vermis: Responsible for maintaining posture and coordination of the trunk and proximal limb movements, not sequential motor planning. Focus on the investigation that directly assesses CSF abnormalities, which are specific for diagnosing meningitis. 79 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Pathology A 5-year-old boy is admitted to the neurology ward with complaints of headache, photophobia, and neck rigidity. He is a suspected case of meningitis. Which of the following is the best diagnostic investigation for meningitis? MRI brain Complete blood count CSF analysis Urine test X-ray The gold standard diagnostic investigation for meningitis is cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis, obtained via lumbar puncture. CSF analysis provides critical information to confirm the diagnosis and determine the etiology (bacterial, viral, fungal, or other causes). Key components of CSF analysis include: Cell count: Elevated white blood cells (WBCs), especially neutrophils in bacterial meningitis or lymphocytes in viral meningitis. Protein levels: Elevated in bacterial and fungal meningitis. Glucose levels: Reduced in bacterial and fungal meningitis, typically normal in viral meningitis. Microbiological testing: Gram stain, culture, and PCR help identify the causative organism. Why not the other options? Urine test: Useful for systemic infections or metabolic conditions, but it is not relevant for diagnosing meningitis. Complete blood count (CBC): Can indicate infection (e.g., elevated WBC count) but is nonspecific for meningitis. X-ray: Not useful in diagnosing meningitis; it is typically used for identifying other conditions like pneumonia or fractures. MRI brain: Helpful in identifying complications of meningitis (e.g., abscess, infarction, or hydrocephalus), but it is not the primary diagnostic tool for confirming meningitis. Focus on the enzyme responsible for combining choline and acetyl-CoA, which is unique to acetylcholine synthesis. 80 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Biochemistry Acetylcholine is synthesized in the presynaptic axon by? Acetylcholine synthetase Choline transferase Acyl transferase Acetylcholinesterase Choline Acetyltransferase Acetylcholine (ACh) is synthesized in the presynaptic axon by the enzyme choline acetyltransferase (ChAT). This enzyme catalyzes the reaction between: Choline (obtained from dietary sources or recycled from synaptic clefts). Acetyl-CoA (produced in the mitochondria). The reaction produces acetylcholine and CoA. Once synthesized, acetylcholine is stored in vesicles in the presynaptic neuron and released into the synaptic cleft during neurotransmission. Why not the other options? Acetylcholinesterase: This enzyme breaks down acetylcholine into choline and acetate in the synaptic cleft to terminate its action. It does not synthesize acetylcholine. Acetylcholine synthetase: This is not a real enzyme; the synthesis of acetylcholine is mediated by choline acetyltransferase. Choline transferase: Incorrect terminology; no such enzyme is involved in acetylcholine synthesis. Acyl transferase: Refers to enzymes that transfer acyl groups, unrelated to acetylcholine synthesi 81 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Pathology The parents of a 9-year-old child take him to a pediatrician because he has become more clumsy and complaining of headaches. For the past three weeks, the child’s parents have noticed that he has trouble using his right hand to grab or pick up items like cups or toys. He also has a significant decline in his ability to draw lines and figures for around two weeks. He’s been complaining about worsening headaches for the previous four days. The boy has been properly immunized and reached all developmental milestones. On examination an intention tremor of the right hand is observed. There is a lack of finger-nose coordination and impairment of rapid alternating movements. His further examination revealed that he was unable to stop movement precisely at the intended spot preventing the overshoot. The patient showed deterioration of both fine and gross skilled movements. An MRI shows a cyst at the junction of vermis and intermediate zone of the right cerebellum. Lumbar puncture showed a slight increase in intracranial pressure. Lesion in which of the following areas is responsible for above finding? Spinocerebellum Flocculonodular lobe Lateral hemisphere Cerebrocerebellum Vestibulocerebellum The spinocerebellum (vermis and intermediate zone) is involved in motor coordination, particularly for skilled and precise movements of the trunk and limbs. The lesion described (a cyst at the junction of the vermis and intermediate zone) explains the patient’s difficulties in skilled movements, finger-nose coordination, and rapid alternating movements. Focus on the receptor type specialized for detecting high-frequency vibrations in non-hairy skin, particularly under conditions of mechanical exposure. 82 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Physiology A 42-year-old jackhammer operator presents in the neurology clinic with decreased sensitivity to high-frequency vibrations in the non-hairy skin of his hands. Which of the following receptors is most likely affected in this case? Free nerve endings Merkel discs Hair sensory fibers Ruffini endings Pacinian corpuscles Pacinian corpuscles are specialized mechanoreceptors located in the skin and deeper tissues that are highly sensitive to vibration, particularly high-frequency vibrations (40–500 Hz). These receptors are found in non-hairy (glabrous) skin, as well as in deeper tissues such as the joints and fascia. Their structure consists of a central nerve ending surrounded by concentric lamellae, which allow them to detect rapid changes in pressure and vibration. In this case, the jackhammer operator’s prolonged exposure to high-frequency vibrations likely caused damage or desensitization of the Pacinian corpuscles, leading to reduced sensitivity. Why not the other options? Ruffini endings: Detect skin stretch and sustained pressure, not high-frequency vibrations. Hair sensory fibers: Found in hairy skin and are involved in detecting light touch or hair movement, not relevant in this case involving glabrous skin. Merkel discs: Detect fine touch and pressure in non-hairy skin but are not sensitive to vibration. Free nerve endings: Mediate pain, temperature, and crude touch sensations, not vibration. Think about the neurotransmitter from the Raphe nuclei that regulates mood and sleep and is involved in promoting NREM sleep. 83 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Physiology Which of the following neurotransmitters is released by the Raphe neurons nerve endings is associated with the induction of sleep? Serotonin Acetylcholine Dopamine Norepinephrine GABA The Raphe nuclei, located in the brainstem, release serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine, or 5-HT) as their primary neurotransmitter. Serotonin plays a crucial role in regulating the sleep-wake cycle, particularly in the induction of sleep. It promotes the onset of non-rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep by acting on various serotonergic receptors in the brain, particularly in the hypothalamus and cortex. Why not the other options? Dopamine: Involved in wakefulness and arousal, not sleep induction. Elevated dopamine activity is associated with alertness. Acetylcholine: Plays a role in REM sleep and cortical activation during wakefulness but is not primarily associated with initiating sleep. Norepinephrine: Released by the locus coeruleus, it promotes arousal and wakefulness. Its activity decreases during sleep, particularly REM sleep. GABA: While GABA is a key inhibitory neurotransmitter involved in sleep regulation, it is released by neurons in other brain regions (e.g., the ventrolateral preoptic nucleus), not the Raphe nuclei. Focus on the receptor that is protecting it from overexertion. 84 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Physiology During voluntary movements, the Golgi tendon organs are involved in providing which of the following information to the central nervous system? Velocity of movement Change in the joint angle produced by movement Activity of Type 1a Nerve Fibers Tension developed in the muscle being moved Length of the muscle being moved Golgi tendon organs (GTOs) are sensory receptors located at the junction of muscles and tendons. They are sensitive to tension or force generated by a muscle, whether during active contraction or passive stretch. GTOs send this information to the central nervous system via Type Ib sensory fibers, helping to: Monitor the force exerted by the muscle. Prevent excessive tension that could damage the muscle or tendon by triggering the inverse myotatic reflex (relaxation of the muscle under high tension). Why not the other options? Activity of type 1a nerve fibers: Type Ia fibers are associated with muscle spindles, not GTOs, and they detect changes in muscle length and velocity. Change in the joint angle produced by movement: Joint angles are monitored by joint receptors, not GTOs. Length of the muscle being moved: Muscle spindles detect changes in muscle length and provide this information. Velocity of movement: Muscle spindles, particularly dynamic nuclear bag fibers, detect the velocity of muscle stretch, not GTOs. Focus on factors directly affecting how fast a signal travels along the fiber, not how far it has to travel. 85 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Physiology The speed of a nerve impulse is independent of which of the following factors? Presence of Neurolemmocyte Diameter of nerve fiber Presence of myelin Length of the nerve fiber Physiological condition of the nerve The speed of a nerve impulse (conduction velocity) is determined by several factors, but the length of the nerve fiber is not one of them. The conduction speed is primarily influenced by: Diameter of the nerve fiber: Larger-diameter fibers have less resistance to ion flow, which increases conduction velocity. Physiological condition of the nerve: Healthy nerves conduct impulses faster than damaged or diseased nerves. Presence of myelin: Myelinated fibers allow for saltatory conduction, where impulses “jump” between nodes of Ranvier, significantly increasing conduction speed. Presence of neurolemmocyte (Schwann cell): These cells produce the myelin sheath, which directly impacts conduction velocity. The length of the nerve fiber does not affect the speed of impulse conduction. It may affect the total time it takes for an impulse to travel a given distance, but the rate of conduction per unit length remains constant. Think about which cranial nerve provides parasympathetic innervation to the lungs. Trace its origin back to its brainstem nucleus. 86 / 100 Category: NeuroSciences – Anatomy A parasympathetic nerve arising from the brainstem influences the lungs. The cell body of this nerve lies in which of the following nuclei? – 2023 Dorsal nucleus of vagus Lacrimatory nucleus Edinger-Westphal nucleus Inferior salivatory nucleus Superior salivatory nucleus The dorsal nucleus of the vagus nerve (cranial nerve X) is the parasympathetic nucleus located in the brainstem, specifically in the medulla. It is responsible for providing parasympathetic innervation to many visceral organs, including the lungs, heart, and gastrointestinal tract. This parasympathetic input regulates bronchoconstriction, secretion of mucus, and other autonomic functions of the lungs. Why not the other options? Inferior salivatory nucleus: Provides parasympathetic innervation via the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) to the parotid gland, not the lungs. Superior salivatory nucleus: Provides parasympathetic fibers via the facial nerve (CN VII) to the lacrimal gland, submandibular gland, and sublingual gland. Lacrimatory nucleus: Part of the superior salivatory nucleus involved in tear production via the facial nerve, not lung innervation. Edinger-Westphal nucleus: Provides parasympathetic fibers via the oculomotor nerve (CN III) for pupillary constriction and lens accommodation, unrelated to the lungs. Think about how neurons communicate intensity to the brain 87 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Physiology Brain can distinguish between the strengths of light touch and sustained pressure during sensory encoding. Which of the following properties is responsible for this action of the brain? Duration of stimulus Area of receptive field Type of stimulus Frequency of action potential Location of receptor The frequency of action potentials generated by sensory neurons encodes the intensity of a stimulus. When a sensory receptor detects a stimulus: A light touch generates a lower frequency of action potentials. A sustained pressure or stronger stimulus generates a higher frequency of action potentials. This frequency modulation allows the brain to distinguish between different strengths of stimuli, as higher frequencies are interpreted as more intense sensations. Why not the other options? Type of stimulus: Determines the sensory modality (e.g., touch, temperature, pain), not the intensity. Location of receptor: Helps the brain identify where the stimulus is occurring but does not encode its strength. Duration of stimulus: Encodes how long the stimulus lasts, not its intensity. Area of receptive field: Refers to the region of the body a receptor can sense. While it determines spatial resolution, it does not convey stimulus strength. Focus on the combination of X-linked inheritance, ABCD1 mutation, and the accumulation of very long-chain fatty acids 88 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Pathology A 5-month-old boy is brought to the outpatient clinic with complaints of global developmental delay, generalized weakness of the body, and jerky eye movement. There is also a family history of his 5-year-old brother having the same complaints. MRI scans of the brain reveal symmetrical lesions. Genetic studies reveal a mutation in the ABCD1 gene located at the X chromosome. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? Multiple sclerosis Canavan disease Adrenoleukodystrophy Alexander disease Metachromatic leukodystrophy Adrenoleukodystrophy (ALD) is a rare X-linked disorder caused by mutations in the ABCD1 gene, which encodes a peroxisomal membrane protein responsible for the transport of very long-chain fatty acids (VLCFAs) into peroxisomes for degradation. The resulting accumulation of VLCFAs leads to: Demyelination in the CNS and PNS. Adrenal insufficiency due to damage to the adrenal glands. The key clinical features include: Global developmental delay and progressive neurological deficits. Generalized weakness and jerky eye movements. Symmetrical white matter lesions on MRI, commonly involving the parieto-occipital region. Family history due to the X-linked inheritance pattern. Why not the other options? Canavan disease: An autosomal recessive leukodystrophy caused by mutations in the ASPA gene, leading to N-acetylaspartate accumulation. It primarily presents with hypotonia and macrocephaly, without X-linked inheritance or ABCD1 mutations. Alexander disease: Caused by mutations in the GFAP gene, presenting with macrocephaly, seizures, and white matter changes, but it is not X-linked. Metachromatic leukodystrophy: Caused by arylsulfatase A deficiency, leading to sulfatide accumulation. It is autosomal recessive, not X-linked, and does not involve ABCD1. Multiple sclerosis: An autoimmune demyelinating disease typically presenting in adults with relapsing-remitting neurological symptoms. It is not genetic or associated with ABCD1 mutations. Focus on the metabolic needs of nerve fibers. 89 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Physiology Type B nerve fibers are most sensitive to which one of the following stimuli? Stretch Touch Hypoxia Pressure Local anesthesia Type B nerve fibers are myelinated preganglionic autonomic fibers with a relatively small diameter and moderate conduction velocity. They are particularly sensitive to hypoxia (lack of oxygen) due to their dependence on aerobic metabolism to maintain ionic gradients and support action potential conduction. Hypoxia affects their function more severely than other factors like local anesthesia or pressure. Why not the other options? Local anesthesia: Type B fibers are less sensitive to local anesthetics compared to smaller, unmyelinated fibers like C fibers. Pressure: While nerve fibers can be affected by pressure, it primarily impacts large-diameter fibers (e.g., Type A fibers) before smaller fibers. Stretch: This is more relevant to mechanoreceptors and sensory fibers, not autonomic preganglionic fibers. Touch: Touch is mediated by sensory fibers, specifically Type A-beta fibers, not Type B fibers. Focus on the brain area responsible for speech production rather than comprehension, particularly in the dominant hemisphere. 90 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Physiology A day after a head injury, a neurologist observed that his 45-year-old patient understood spoken and written words but his speech was slow, poorly articulated with a great effort. Which of the following cerebral areas may be affected in this patient? Arcuate fasciculus Somatosensory area Wernicke's area Broca's area Angular gyrus Broca’s area, located in the posterior part of the inferior frontal gyrus of the dominant hemisphere (usually the left), is responsible for motor aspects of speech production. Damage to this area results in Broca’s aphasia (expressive aphasia), characterized by: Slow and effortful speech. Poor articulation. Reduced fluency, but with preserved comprehension of both spoken and written language. Patients with Broca’s aphasia are aware of their deficits, which can lead to frustration. Why not the other options? Arcuate fasciculus: Connects Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas. Damage here causes conduction aphasia, where comprehension and fluent speech are preserved but the ability to repeat words is impaired. Somatosensory area: Involved in processing sensory information (touch, temperature, pain), not speech production or comprehension. Angular gyrus: Plays a role in processing written language and converting it into speech but does not directly cause speech production deficits like those seen in Broca’s aphasia. Wernicke’s area: Responsible for language comprehension. Damage here leads to Wernicke’s aphasia, characterized by fluent but nonsensical speech and poor comprehension, not slow, effortful speech. 91 / 100 Category: NeuroSciences – Anatomy Destruction of the tract causes loss of position and movements of the ipsilateral upper limbs below the level of the lesion. E B D C F The cuneate fasciculus is part of the dorsal column-medial lemniscal pathway, which transmits proprioception, fine touch, and vibration from the upper limbs. Since this tract remains ipsilateral until it crosses in the medulla, a lesion causes ipsilateral loss of position and movement sensation below the lesion. Think about which layer of the developing spinal cord evolves into gray matter, where the neuronal cell bodies are located. 92 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Embryology During the development of the spinal cord, the central canal is lined by three layers. Which of the three layers contains cell bodies of neurons? – 2023 Ependymal layer Marginal layer Mantle layer Alar plate Ventricular layer During the development of the spinal cord, the mantle layer is the intermediate layer of the neural tube, and it contains the cell bodies of neurons. This layer forms the gray matter of the spinal cord, which includes the dorsal (sensory) and ventral (motor) horns. The developmental layers of the spinal cord are: Ependymal layer (ventricular layer): Innermost layer; lines the central canal and contains proliferative neuroepithelial cells that give rise to neurons and glial cells. Mantle layer: Middle layer; contains the cell bodies of neurons and forms the gray matter. Marginal layer: Outermost layer; contains the axons of neurons and forms the white matter. Why not the other options? Ependymal layer: Lines the central canal and does not directly house neuronal cell bodies. Marginal layer: Contains axons and forms the white matter, not cell bodies. Alar plate: A specific part of the mantle layer that gives rise to sensory neurons in the dorsal horn, but it is not the general answer. Ventricular layer: Synonymous with the ependymal layer; it contains proliferative neuroepithelial cells, not the final cell bodies of neurons. Focus on the unilateral pupillary dilation and impaired ocular movement, which are classic signs of CN III compression due to herniation. 93 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Pathology A 39-year-old female patient presents to the outpatient department with a severe headache for the last 3 days. On physical examination, she is afebrile and normotensive. Fundoscopic examination shows papilledema in the right eye. She was admitted to the hospital for further testing. A day later, she develops right pupillary dilation with impaired ocular movement. These findings are best explained by which of the following lesions? Subdural hematoma Ruptured berry aneurysm Hydrocephalus Transtentorial medial temporal herniation Frontal lobe abscess The patient presents with: Papilledema: Indicates increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Right pupillary dilation: Caused by compression of the oculomotor nerve (CN III), which is responsible for parasympathetic innervation to the pupil, resulting in unopposed sympathetic dilation. Impaired ocular movements: CN III also innervates most of the extraocular muscles (except lateral rectus and superior oblique). These findings are most consistent with transtentorial herniation (uncal herniation), where the medial temporal lobe (uncus) herniates through the tentorial notch due to elevated ICP. This compresses the oculomotor nerve, often first on one side, causing: Pupillary dilation (loss of parasympathetic tone). Impaired eye movement. Progression can compress the brainstem, leading to further neurological deficits and potentially fatal consequences. Why not the other options? Subdural hematoma: Can raise ICP and cause symptoms, but pupillary dilation and ocular movement issues are more specific to transtentorial herniation. Frontal lobe abscess: Rarely causes isolated pupillary changes or direct oculomotor nerve compression. Ruptured berry aneurysm: Can cause sudden, severe headache and third nerve palsy if located near the posterior communicating artery. However, papilledema and progressive symptoms like this are more consistent with herniation. Hydrocephalus: Causes increased ICP and papilledema but does not typically cause isolated CN III compression and pupillary dilation. Think about the midbrain’s role in modulating pain signals through descending pathways rather than other autonomic or motor functions. 94 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Physiology Damage to periaqeductal gray area of midbrain results in loss of which one of the following functions? Arousal and alertness of the cerebral cortex Coordination of head and neck movements Maintenance of postural muscle tone Endogenous built-in pain suppression Control of respiratory movements The peri-aqueductal gray (PAG) area of the midbrain plays a crucial role in the brain’s endogenous pain suppression system. It is involved in descending pain modulation by activating inhibitory pathways that reduce pain signals at the level of the spinal cord. The PAG interacts with the raphe nuclei and releases neurotransmitters such as serotonin and endorphins to suppress nociceptive (pain) input. Why not the other options? Arousal and alertness of the cerebral cortex: This function is mediated by the reticular activating system, not the PAG. Control of respiratory movements: Controlled by the medulla and pons, specifically the respiratory centers, not the PAG. Coordination of head and neck movements: Primarily controlled by the vestibular nuclei and associated tracts, not the PAG. Maintenance of postural muscle tone: Controlled by the reticulospinal and vestibulospinal tracts, not the PAG. Focus on the structure that is part of the brainstem and lies between the diencephalon and pons. 95 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Embryology During the 5th week of development, five brain swellings appear. These include the telencephalon, diencephalon, mesencephalon, metencephalon, and myelencephalon. The mesencephalon gives rise to which of the following structures? – 2023 Midbrain Cerebrum Pons Medulla Cerebellum The mesencephalon is one of the five secondary brain vesicles that develop during the 5th week of embryogenesis. It remains undivided and develops into the midbrain in the adult brain. The midbrain includes structures such as: Tectum (superior and inferior colliculi, involved in visual and auditory reflexes) Tegmentum (containing nuclei like the red nucleus and substantia nigra) Cerebral peduncles (important for motor signal transmission) The mesencephalon is part of the brainstem, located between the diencephalon and the pons. Why not the other options? Cerebellum: Develops from the metencephalon, not the mesencephalon. Pons: Develops from the metencephalon, not the mesencephalon. Medulla: Develops from the myelencephalon, not the mesencephalon. Cerebrum: Develops from the telencephalon, not the mesencephalon. Remember that the spinothalamic tracts cross over near their entry point in the spinal cord. So, an injury to the left sideaffects pain and temperature on the opposite side. 96 / 100 Category: NeuroSciences – Anatomy A patient suffers from a gunshot wound injuring his spinal cord on the left side. The patient now has loss of pain and temperature sensation on the right side of the body. Which of the following tracts is likely to be affected in this case? – 2023 Right lateral spinothalamic tract Left anterior spinothalamic tract Right anterior spinothalamic tract Left lateral spinothalamic tract Dorsal column medial lemniscus pathway The lateral spinothalamic tract carries pain and temperature sensation from the body to the brain. The pathway crosses (decussates) at the level of the spinal cord shortly after entering via the dorsal root. Therefore, a left-sided spinal cord injury affecting the lateral spinothalamic tract results in loss of pain and temperature sensation on the right side of the body below the level of the lesion. Why not the other options? Left anterior spinothalamic tract: The anterior spinothalamic tract carries crude touch and pressure, not pain and temperature. Dorsal column medial lemniscus pathway: This pathway carries sensations of vibration, proprioception, and discriminative touch, which are not affected in this scenario. Right lateral spinothalamic tract: The right lateral spinothalamic tract would cause loss of pain and temperature on the left side of the body, not the right side. Right anterior spinothalamic tract: The anterior spinothalamic tract is unrelated to pain and temperature sensation. Focus on the motor protein responsible for retrograde transport, moving material toward the cell body along microtubules. 97 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Physiology A 2-year-old boy was infected by polio virus and developed flaccid paralysis. This virus enters the central nervous system from periphery and reaches the soma by retrograde transport. Which of the following proteins is used by the polio virus to reach the cell body? Synaptotagmin Kinesin Synaptobrevin Syntaxin Dynein Poliovirus, like other viruses that use retrograde transport to travel from peripheral nerves to the central nervous system (CNS), relies on the motor protein dynein. Dynein is responsible for retrograde transport along microtubules, moving cargo, including viruses, toxins, and cellular components, from the axon terminal toward the soma (cell body). This allows the poliovirus to reach the neuronal soma, where it can replicate and cause damage, leading to flaccid paralysis. Why not the other options? Kinesin: A motor protein involved in anterograde transport, moving cargo from the soma to the axon terminal, opposite to the direction required by the poliovirus. Synaptobrevin: A vesicle-associated protein involved in synaptic vesicle fusion and neurotransmitter release, not in axonal transport. Synaptotagmin: A calcium-sensing protein involved in synaptic vesicle exocytosis, not in retrograde transport. Syntaxin: A protein involved in the docking and fusion of synaptic vesicles, unrelated to retrograde axonal transport. Focus on the indirect pathway, which involves the subthalamus increasing activity in the output nuclei of the basal ganglia to inhibit unwanted movements. 98 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Physiology Which of the following nuclei of the basal ganglia receives input from the sub-thalamus via the indirect pathway? Substantia niagra Lentiform nucleus Caudate nucleus Putamen Globus pallidus internus In the indirect pathway of the basal ganglia, the subthalamic nucleus sends excitatory (glutamatergic) input to the globus pallidus internus (GPi). The GPi is a critical output nucleus of the basal ganglia that projects inhibitory signals to the thalamus, helping regulate motor activity. The indirect pathway, through this excitatory input from the subthalamus, increases inhibitory output from the GPi to the thalamus, leading to suppression of unwanted motor movements. Why not the other options? Substantia nigra: While involved in the basal ganglia pathways (especially the direct pathway via the pars compacta), it does not directly receive input from the subthalamus in the indirect pathway. Lentiform nucleus: This term refers collectively to the putamen and globus pallidus but does not specify the exact structure. Caudate nucleus: Part of the input region of the basal ganglia, primarily receiving cortical inputs, not subthalamic input. Putamen: An input structure of the basal ganglia, receiving cortical signals, but it does not receive direct input from the subthalamus in the indirect pathway. The name of the enzyme signifies its function. 99 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Biochemistry Which of the following key enzymes is required for the synthesis of acetylcholine? – 2023 Choline acetylsynthetase Acetyl cholineaminase Choline synthetase Choline acetyltransferase Choline acyltransferase Acetylcholine is synthesized in cholinergic neurons by the enzyme choline acetyltransferase (ChAT). This enzyme catalyzes the transfer of an acetyl group from acetyl-CoA to choline, forming acetylcholine. Acetyl-CoA is produced in the mitochondria, while choline is taken up by the neuron through a high-affinity choline transporter. This reaction occurs in the cytoplasm of the presynaptic neuron, and the synthesized acetylcholine is then stored in vesicles for release into the synaptic cleft during neurotransmission. Focus on the schedule of routine immunization in the EPI program, where IPV is strategically given to complement oral polio vaccine doses. 100 / 100 Category: Neurosciences – Community Medicine + Behavioural Sciences Polio is now endemic only in 2 countries Pakistan and Afghanistan. Two very effective polio vaccines Oral and injectable are being given in EPI program and in addition special immunization campaigns are repeatedly conducted all over Pakistan so as to eradicate polio. In routine EPI schedule injectable polio vaccine IPV is given at age of 9 months 14 weeks 14 weeks and 9 months 6 weeks 10 weeks In Pakistan’s Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI) schedule, the injectable polio vaccine (IPV) is typically administered at 14 weeks of age as part of routine immunization. This dose is given alongside other vaccines such as Pentavalent-3 and OPV-3 (oral polio vaccine). IPV provides systemic immunity by stimulating the production of antibodies in the bloodstream, which helps prevent poliovirus from spreading to the nervous system. Why not the other options? 10 weeks: OPV-2 (oral polio vaccine) is administered at this age, not IPV. 9 months: At this age, the measles vaccine is given, not IPV. 14 weeks and 9 months: IPV is only given at 14 weeks in the EPI schedule, not at 9 months. 6 weeks: OPV-1 and Pentavalent-1 are given at this age, not IPV. Your score isThe average score is 1% 0% Restart quiz Thank you for your feedback. Send feedback By Wordpress Quiz plugin
NeuroScience
NEUROSCIENCE – 2023
Questions from the 2023 Module Exam
Focus on the body vs. face distinction for sensory input.
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Category: Neurosciences – Physiology
A 65-year-old male patient suffers from a cerebrovascular accident resulting in a complete loss of sensation on the right side of the body sparing the head and face. Which of the following nuclei of the thalamus is most likely to be affected by this lesion?
The ventral posterolateral (VPL) nucleus of the thalamus is responsible for relaying sensory information from the body (excluding the head and face) to the somatosensory cortex. The sensory modalities processed by the VPL include:
The VPL receives input from:
A lesion in the VPL nucleus results in contralateral loss of sensation in the body, sparing the head and face because sensory input from the face is processed in the ventral posteromedial (VPM) nucleus.
Think about which cranial nerve nucleus controls pupil constriction and its vulnerability in conditions like diabetes, where parasympathetic fibers may be affected without impairing motor function.
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Category: NeuroSciences – Anatomy
A diabetic patient is observed to have mydriasis while undergoing an examination in an ophthalmology clinic. All other eye movements are normal. The nerve most likely affected in this case arises from which of the following brain stem nuclei? – 2023
The Edinger-Westphal nucleus is the parasympathetic nucleus associated with the oculomotor nerve (CN III). It is responsible for the pupillary constriction (miosis) and lens accommodation by sending parasympathetic fibers to the sphincter pupillae and ciliary muscles via the ciliary ganglion.
In this case:
This selective involvement is common in diabetic neuropathy because the parasympathetic fibers are more superficial and vulnerable to ischemic damage.
Focus on the tight junction proteins that are essential for sealing spaces between endothelial cells, preventing unwanted substances from entering the brain.
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Category: Neurosciences – Biochemistry
At the interface between blood and brain, endothelial cells are tightly packed together by the help of tight junctions that are specialized transmembrane proteins such as?
In the blood-brain barrier (BBB), tight junctions are formed between endothelial cells to prevent the passage of most substances from the bloodstream into the brain. These tight junctions are composed of specialized transmembrane proteins, primarily claudins, which are critical for:
Other tight junction proteins, such as occludins and junctional adhesion molecules (JAMs), also contribute to the tight junction complex, but claudins are the primary structural components.
Think about the pathway of the fornix and the portion that curves anteriorly near the ventricles to connect with the diencephalon structures.
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Which of the following structures forms the anterior boundary of the interventricular foramen of Monro? – 2023
The interventricular foramen of Monro is a small opening that connects each lateral ventricle to the third ventricle. The anterior boundary of the foramen of Monro is formed by the anterior column of the fornix, a bundle of white matter fibers that originate from the hippocampus and curve anteriorly to join the mammillary bodies.
The other structures mentioned do not form the anterior boundary:
Think about the structure connecting the third and fourth ventricles in the midbrain. Obstruction here would cause hydrocephalus affecting the ventricles upstream.
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A neonate is diagnosed with obstructive hydrocephalus. The parents were counseled and told that this condition is due to the blockage of a conduit between two ventricles of the brain. Which of the following is the most likely conduit obstructed in this case? – 2023
The Aqueduct of Sylvius (also known as the cerebral aqueduct) is the narrow conduit that connects the third ventricleto the fourth ventricle in the midbrain. It is a common site of obstruction in cases of obstructive hydrocephalus, especially in neonates. When the aqueduct is blocked, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) cannot flow from the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle, causing dilation of the lateral ventricles and third ventricle, while the fourth ventricle remains normal or collapsed.
This type of hydrocephalus is often associated with congenital conditions like aqueductal stenosis or may result from infection, hemorrhage, or tumors.
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Category: Neurosciences – Pathology
The parents of a 9-year-old child take him to a pediatrician because he has become more clumsy and complaining of headaches. For the past three weeks, the child’s parents have noticed that he has trouble using his right hand to grab or pick up items like cups or toys. He also has a significant decline in his ability to draw lines and figures for around two weeks. He’s been complaining about worsening headaches for the previous four days.
The boy has been properly immunized and reached all developmental milestones. On examination an intention tremor of the right hand is observed. There is a lack of finger-nose coordination and impairment of rapid alternating movements. His further examination revealed that he was unable to stop movement precisely at the intended spot preventing the overshoot. The patient showed deterioration of both fine and gross skilled movements.
An MRI shows a cyst at the junction of vermis and intermediate zone of the right cerebellum. Lumbar puncture showed a slight increase in intracranial pressure.
Which of the following best reflects his inability to perform rapid alternating movements?
Dysdiadochokinesis refers to the inability to perform rapid alternating movements, such as pronation and supination of the hand. This is a hallmark of cerebellar dysfunction, particularly involving the spinocerebellum.
Focus on the distinction between short association fibers (connecting nearby gyri) and long association fibers(connecting distant areas within the same hemisphere). Pay attention to the size and connections of these fibers.
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Which of the following statements regarding the long association fibers is incorrect? – 2023
Long association fibers are white matter tracts that lie deep beneath the cerebral cortex and connect different lobes of the brain within the same hemisphere. They allow for communication between distant cortical areas. Examples include:
In contrast, short association fibers, not long association fibers, connect adjacent gyri within the same hemisphere. This makes the statement “They connect adjacent gyri” incorrect.
Focus on whether the strategy occurs before or after the emotional response is triggered. John’s behavior fits into post-emotional response regulation.
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Category: Neurosciences – Community Medicine + Behavioural Sciences
John diverts his attention to stop thinking about disturbing events in order to prevent himself from experiencing any overwhelming negative emotions. Which of the following term best corresponds to this strategy?
Response modulation refers to efforts to influence one’s emotional response after the emotional reaction has been fully triggered. In John’s case, he is diverting his attention from disturbing events to manage and suppress overwhelming negative emotions. This falls under the category of response-focused emotion regulation strategies, as it occurs after the emotional response has been activated.
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Failure of which of the following processes is responsible for the problems in movement in this case?
The cerebellum operates as a feedback mechanism, continuously adjusting motor commands by comparing intended and actual movements. A disruption in this feedback loop leads to the observed issues, such as intention tremor, dysdiadochokinesis, and impaired coordination.
Focus on the condition where pain arises from nerve dysfunction rather than tissue damage, often manifesting as allodynia.
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A 40-year-old male was diagnosed to have increased sensitivity to pain, without major tissue damage. He complained that even touching cloth is painful for him 🙁 . Which one of the following types of pain is my guy suffering from?
Neuropathic pain results from damage or dysfunction in the nervous system rather than tissue injury or inflammation. A classic feature of neuropathic pain is allodynia, where normally non-painful stimuli (e.g., touch or light pressure) are perceived as painful. This condition is often associated with conditions like peripheral neuropathy, postherpetic neuralgia, or nerve damage.
Focus on the neuron type located in dorsal root ganglia, specialized for transmitting sensory information from the periphery to the CNS.
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A Neurophysician wants to conduct research on the properties of sensory neurons. Which one of the following types of neuron is appropriate for the study?
Unipolar neurons (more accurately called pseudounipolar neurons) are the most appropriate type of neuron for studying sensory neurons. These neurons are found in the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord and cranial nerve ganglia. They have a single process that splits into two branches:
This unique structure is ideal for studying sensory functions, including touch, pain, temperature, and proprioception.
Focus on the receptor subtype that opioids like morphine and fentanyl primarily target for their potent pain-relieving effects.
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Category: Neurosciences – Pharmacology
The analgesic properties of opioids are primarily mediated by which of the following receptors?
The analgesic properties of opioids are primarily mediated by the mu opioid receptor (MOR). When opioids bind to this receptor, they:
The activation of mu receptors is responsible for:
Focus on endogenous opioids released by interneurons that play a central role in inhibiting pain signals.
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Which of the following substances is released by interneurons in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord to inhibit ascending pain signals?
Enkephalins are endogenous opioid peptides released by interneurons in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord. These interneurons play a key role in the descending pain modulation system, which inhibits ascending pain signals. Enkephalins act by binding to opioid receptors (primarily δ and μ receptors) on presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons to:
This mechanism reduces the perception of pain and is part of the body’s endogenous pain control system.
Think about the vitamin that is converted into PLP, a coenzyme required for decarboxylation and transamination reactions in neurotransmitter pathways.
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Which of the following vitamins is required for the synthesis of neurotransmitters like dopamine, serotonin, and GABA?
Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) is essential for the synthesis of several key neurotransmitters, including dopamine, serotonin, and GABA. It acts as a coenzyme in the form of pyridoxal phosphate (PLP) for several enzymatic reactions involved in neurotransmitter production:
Vitamin B6 deficiency can lead to irritability, depression, confusion, and seizures due to impaired neurotransmitter synthesis.
Think about the location of the sinuses. The cavernous sinus is located around the sella turcica and primarily drains the orbit and nearby regions. Is the sinus in question near this area, or does it lie elsewhere in the cranial cavity?
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Which of the following veins is not a tributary of the cavernous sinus? – 2023
The cavernous sinus is a venous sinus located on either side of the sella turcica and receives blood from multiple tributaries, including:
The straight sinus, however, is not a tributary of the cavernous sinus. It connects the inferior sagittal sinus to the confluence of sinuses, and its location is midline and posterior, unrelated to the cavernous sinus.
Focus on the hormone secreted during fasting that stimulates hunger and overrides satiety signals.
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Which of the following hormones/factors is responsible for inhibiting the action of leptin on the ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus and stimulating the lateral hypothalamic nucleus producing a sense of hunger?
Ghrelin is a hormone secreted by the stomach, particularly during fasting, and it plays a key role in stimulating hunger. It acts on the lateral hypothalamic nucleus to promote feeding behavior and inhibits the effects of leptin on the ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus (the satiety center), thereby overriding the feeling of satiety. Ghrelin increases appetite and food intake by activating neuropeptide Y (NPY) and agouti-related peptide (AgRP) neurons in the hypothalamus.
Focus on the combination of macrocephaly and ventriculomegaly, which are hallmark features of CSF accumulation..
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A female infant born after a full-term pregnancy weighing 3.4kg has an enlarged head with the occipitofrontal circumference (OFC) being 49.5 cm. A cranial ultrasound reveals bilateral ventriculomegaly. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
The female infant presents with:
These findings are classic for hydrocephalus, which occurs due to:
Hydrocephalus leads to increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in infants, causing head enlargement due to the pliable cranial sutures that have not yet fused.
Focus on the combination of autoimmune symptoms, neurological deficits, and oligoclonal bands in the CSF, which are hallmark findings
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A 50-year-old female patient who is a known case of an autoimmune disorder visits the neurology clinic with complaints of fatigue, tingling, numbness, muscle weakness, and muscle spasms. CSF analysis reveals oligoclonal bands. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?
The patient’s symptoms—fatigue, tingling, numbness, muscle weakness, muscle spasms—along with the presence of oligoclonal bands in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), strongly suggest multiple sclerosis (MS). MS is a chronic autoimmune demyelinating disorder of the central nervous system (CNS), characterized by:
These features align with the classic presentation of MS.
Think about the cranial nerve responsible for the sense of smell and the bone that separates the nasal cavity from the cranial cavity. Which cranial nerve would pass through this structure?
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A 24-year-old patient presents to the emergency department after a road accident with complaints of headache, nausea, vomiting & an altered level of consciousness. An X-ray of the skull reveals a fracture of the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone. Which of the following cranial nerves passes through the foramina of this fractured bone? – 2023
The cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone contains small foramina through which the olfactory nerve fibers (CN I)pass. These fibers arise from the olfactory epithelium in the nasal cavity, traverse the cribriform plate, and synapse in the olfactory bulb located on the superior surface of the bone. A fracture of the cribriform plate can result in damage to these nerves, causing anosmia (loss of the sense of smell) and may allow the leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), leading to rhinorrhea.
Focus on the anatomical origin of the cranial nerves. Does the nerve in question arise from the brainstem or elsewhere in the nervous system? Remember, the first two cranial nerves (olfactory and optic) bypass the brainstem.
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Which of the following cranial nerves does not originate at the pontomedullary junction of the brainstem? – 2023
The olfactory nerve (Cranial Nerve I) does not originate from the brainstem. It arises from the olfactory epithelium in the nasal cavity and sends its axons directly to the olfactory bulb, bypassing the brainstem entirely.
The other nerves mentioned—facial nerve (Cranial Nerve VII), vestibulocochlear nerve (Cranial Nerve VIII), abducens nerve (Cranial Nerve VI), and nervus intermedius (a part of Cranial Nerve VII)—originate from the pontomedullary junction, a region at the junction between the pons and medulla oblongata in the brainstem.
Think about the vitamin critical for methylation reactions, myelin maintenance, and DNA synthesis, whose deficiency causes both anemia and neurological damage.
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The deficiency of which of the following vitamins is marked by anemia, impaired neurotransmitter production, increased homocysteine levels, and neuronal demyelination?
A deficiency of Vitamin B12 (cobalamin) can lead to the following clinical features:
22 / 100
The myelin sheath of the neurons is altered due to the formation of plaques in which of the following disorders of the nervous system?
Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a chronic autoimmune disorder characterized by the formation of plaques in the central nervous system (CNS). These plaques represent areas of demyelination, where the immune system attacks the myelin sheath surrounding the axons of neurons. The loss of myelin disrupts nerve signal conduction, leading to various neurological symptoms, such as:
MS primarily affects the CNS and can result in progressive neurological disability.
Think about a disorder involving autoimmune demyelination and the formation of plaques within the CNS.
Think about the term that describes the lack of coordination between different components of a movement, resulting in fragmented or jerky motor activity.
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Which of the following cerebellar disorders results in an inability to combine the various components of a movement to create a smooth action?
Asynergia is a cerebellar disorder characterized by the inability to coordinate and integrate the various components of a movement into a smooth and harmonious action. This results in fragmented or jerky movements. It occurs due to damage to the cerebellum, which disrupts its role in timing, precision, and coordination of motor activities.
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Destruction of this tract produces contralateral loss of pain and thermal sensibilities below the level of the lesion.
The spinothalamic tract transmits pain and temperature sensations. Its fibers cross to the contralateral side of the spinal cord shortly after entering and then ascend to the brain. A lesion in this tract causes a contralateral loss of pain and thermal sensation below the level of the lesion
Think about the structure responsible for fear responses and emotional regulation, which, when damaged, results in loss of fear and hyperorality.
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In an animal laboratory, the change in the behavior of a monkey is observed. The monkey has a loss of fear, forgetfulness, and the tendency to place everything in its mouth. Ablation (medical procedure that destroys or removes tissues, cells, or functions in the body) of which of the following structures of the limbic system is the most likely cause for these behavioral changes?
The amygdala is a key structure in the limbic system that plays a crucial role in emotional regulation, including fear responses, aggression, and social behavior. The behavioral changes described in the monkey—loss of fear, forgetfulness, and hyperorality (placing everything in its mouth)—are classic symptoms of Klüver-Bucy syndrome, which occurs following bilateral ablation of the amygdala.
Key symptoms of Klüver-Bucy syndrome include:
Focus on the smallest and unmyelinated fibers, as they are blocked first by local anesthetics, which target pain sensation.
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Before a minor surgical procedure, a local anesthetic is injected by the surgeon to ensure that the patient feels no pain. Which of the following nerve fibers is most likely to be blocked by the local anesthetic?
Type C fibers are unmyelinated, small-diameter nerve fibers that conduct pain and temperature sensations at a slow conduction velocity. Local anesthetics preferentially block smaller, unmyelinated or lightly myelinated fibers because:
Pain fibers (Type C) are typically blocked first by local anesthetics, followed by fibers responsible for touch and motor functions.
Focus on the layer where dendrites of Purkinje cells branch extensively and interact with parallel fibers and interneurons.
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Category: Neurosciences – Histology
The cerebellar cortex is composed of three layers. Which of the following layers is a synaptic zone that is mainly composed of dendritic arborizations of Purkinje cells? – 2023
The molecular layer of the cerebellar cortex is the outermost layer and serves as a synaptic zone. It is primarily composed of:
This layer is where most of the synaptic interactions within the cerebellar cortex occur, contributing to the integration of sensory and motor signals.
Focus on neutrophilic dominance, decreased glucose, and elevated protein as classic findings in bacterial meningitis.
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A 1-year-old girl is diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. Which of the following findings in the CSF analysis are suggestive of bacterial meningitis?
In bacterial meningitis, the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) typically shows:
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Destruction of this tract produces contralateral loss of light touch and pressure sensibilities 2–3 segments below the level of the lesion.
The spinothalamic tract also transmits light touch and pressure. Due to the ascending fibers’ crossing at different levels within the spinal cord, the sensory loss occurs 2–3 segments below the level of the lesion and on the contralateral side.
Focus on the process that results in lasting synaptic changes
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Which of the following mechanisms is involved in the conversion of short-term memory to long-term memory?
Long-term potentiation (LTP) is a process involved in the conversion of short-term memory to long-term memory. It occurs at the synapses of neurons, particularly in the hippocampus, a brain region critical for memory formation. LTP strengthens synaptic connections through:
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Which of the following functions will be affected due to the lesion of the above-mentioned area?
The spinocerebellum is crucial for coordinating movements of the trunk and proximal limbs. A lesion here results in impaired gross and fine motor coordination.
Focus on the chronic meningitis with high fibrin content in CSF, leading to the formation of the cobweb-like clot.
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On CSF Examination, Cobweb coagulum is a characteristic finding of?
A cobweb coagulum is a characteristic finding in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) of patients with tuberculous meningitis (TBM). This occurs due to the presence of a high concentration of fibrinogen in the CSF, which forms a delicate web-like clot when the CSF is allowed to stand. TBM is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis infecting the meninges and typically presents with:
Key findings in CSF analysis for TBM:
Focus on the linear acceleration of the utricle and saccule, which are unique to the otolith organs.
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A 60-year-old male patient is suspected to be suffering from impairment of the otolith organs based on a detailed neurological examination and a CT scan. Which of the following functions is most likely to be disturbed in this case?
The otolith organs in the vestibular system consist of the utricle and saccule, which are responsible for detecting:
These functions are mediated by hair cells in the maculae of the utricle and saccule, which respond to the displacement of otoliths (calcium carbonate crystals) when the head changes position or during linear acceleration.
Damage to the otolith organs results in disturbances in detecting head position relative to gravity and sensing linear acceleration, leading to issues like imbalance and difficulty maintaining posture.
Focus on the sensory modality processed by structures in the brainstem and midbrain
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The lateral lemniscus is part of a pathway carrying which of the following sensations?
The lateral lemniscus is a key structure in the auditory pathway, transmitting sound information from the lower brainstem to the midbrain. It carries signals from the cochlear nuclei and the superior olivary complex to the inferior colliculus in the midbrain. The lateral lemniscus plays a critical role in the processing of auditory information, including sound localization and temporal aspects of hearing.
Focus on preventative vaccination strategies for individuals who are at continuous risk of handling rabies-related viruses.
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A 36-year-old man is hired as a laboratory worker and he will be handling Rabies related viruses and vaccines. Which of the following vaccines is he advised to get?
Pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) is recommended for individuals at high risk of exposure to the rabies virus, such as laboratory workers handling rabies-related viruses, veterinarians, and animal handlers. The vaccine consists of:
PrEP provides immunity and reduces the need for post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) if the person is exposed to the virus. However, in case of exposure, additional booster doses are still required for optimal protection.
Think of the final step as ensuring ongoing support and preventing further distress by formalizing a follow-up plan.
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During a flood, a mental health professional is given the responsibility to provide psychological first aid and conduct crisis intervention. Which of the following is the 7th and last stage of the crisis intervention model?
The 7th and final stage of the crisis intervention model involves creating a structured follow-up plan and ensuring agreement between the mental health professional and the individual in crisis. This stage is critical for:
Focus on the side of the body with symptoms and remember that motor pathways cross over. The contralateral substantia nigra will show more prominent early degeneration.
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A 62-year-old male patient is diagnosed with early-stage Parkinson’s disease. The neurological examination reveals a slight resting tremor of the left hand, slow gait, and lack of the normal range of facial expression. Which of the following is the most likely site of the degenerative changes at this stage of the patient’s disease? – 2023
In early-stage Parkinson’s disease, symptoms often begin asymmetrically due to uneven degeneration in the substantia nigra. Since the patient presents with a left-hand resting tremor, it suggests greater degeneration in the right substantia nigra, which controls motor function on the opposite side of the body. While Parkinson’s disease is a bilateral neurodegenerative condition, the asymmetry of symptoms reflects the side with more significant degeneration in the early stages.
Think about the brain wave patterns seen during deep sleep and how the same waves may appear in abnormal conditions like brain damage in awake individuals.
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Which of the following brain waves are most likely to be present in the EEG of a healthy sleeping person and a brain-damaged awake person?
Delta waves are low-frequency, high-amplitude brain waves that are normally observed in the EEG of a healthy sleeping person, especially during deep sleep (Stage 3 and 4 of NREM sleep). However, their presence in an awake person can indicate brain damage or dysfunction, as delta waves in the awake state are abnormal and suggest impaired cortical activity.
Think about the inhibitory interneurons that regulate motor neuron activity and prevent overexcitation through feedback loops.
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Which of the following types of inhibition is mediated by inhibitory interneurons in the spinal cord and tends to produce the effect of lateral inhibition?
Renshaw cells are inhibitory interneurons in the spinal cord that receive collateral input from motor neurons and, in turn, provide inhibitory feedback to those same motor neurons or nearby motor neurons. This type of feedback inhibition is sometimes referred to as lateral inhibition because it helps fine-tune and regulate motor neuron activity, preventing excessive excitation and ensuring smooth, coordinated movements.
Renshaw cell inhibition is crucial for:
Think about the arteries that form a “ring” at the base of the brain. Focus on whether the artery contributes to the circular structure or branches off to supply other regions directly.
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Which of the following arteries is not a part of the circle of Willis? – 2023
The circle of Willis is an arterial ring located at the base of the brain that provides collateral blood flow between the anterior and posterior circulations. The arteries that form the circle of Willis include:
The middle cerebral artery (MCA), although it is a major branch of the internal carotid artery, does not participate in forming the circle of Willis. Instead, it extends laterally to supply a large portion of the lateral surface of the cerebral hemispheres.
Focus on a reflex response that becomes stronger after a period of suppression, as seen when inhibitory control is lifted.
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During a study, the response of a particular reflex is inhibited for a while and then released suddenly, resulting in a response that is stronger than normal. This is known as which of the following properties of a reflex?
The rebound phenomenon refers to the exaggerated response of a reflex after a period of inhibition. When the inhibitory input is suddenly released, the reflex response becomes stronger than normal because the excitatory signals have been “unmasked.” This is often observed in conditions where inhibitory control, typically exerted by higher centers of the nervous system, is temporarily or permanently lost.
Focus on the location of the tumor (midbrain) and the pathway of CSF. Think about which structure in the midbrain could block the flow from the third to the fourth ventricle.
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A 50-year-old male patient undergoes a CT scan which reveals a tumor of the midbrain. It shows symmetrical distension of the lateral ventricles and the third ventricle. Which of the following structures is most likely obstructed by the tumor in this case? – 2023
The cerebral aqueduct (aqueduct of Sylvius) is a narrow channel in the midbrain that connects the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle. A tumor in the midbrain can obstruct the cerebral aqueduct, leading to non-communicating (obstructive) hydrocephalus. This results in the symmetrical distension of the lateral ventricles and the third ventriclebecause cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) cannot flow from the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle. The fourth ventricle remains unaffected in such cases.
Other options:
Think of the midline suture running between the two parietal bones, forming the “roof” of the skull.
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The two parietal bones form the sides and the roof of the skull and articulate with each other in the midline. Which of the following sutures is present between these bones? – 2023
The sagittal suture is the fibrous joint located along the midline of the skull, where the two parietal bones articulate with each other. It extends from the bregma (where it meets the coronal suture) to the lambda (where it meets the lambdoid suture). The sagittal suture forms part of the calvaria and contributes to the roof of the skull.
Think about the distribution of inputs from multiple neurons acting at the same time to create a combined effect on the postsynaptic neuron.
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In an experimental lab, multiple stimuli from different neurons are applied to a post-synaptic neuron simultaneously to generate an action potential. Which one of the following phenomena of a synapse is displayed here?
Spatial summation occurs when multiple simultaneous stimuli from different presynaptic neurons act on a postsynaptic neuron. These inputs, arriving at different locations on the postsynaptic membrane, combine their effects to bring the neuron to the threshold for generating an action potential. This phenomenon allows for the integration of signals from various sources.
Think about cranial nerves involved in autonomic control of glands, the pupil, and thoracoabdominal viscera.
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Which of the following cranial nerves are a part of the parasympathetic nervous system?
The parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for “rest and digest” activities and is associated with cranial nerves that carry parasympathetic fibers. These cranial nerves include:
Focus on the connection between the pons and the cerebellum. Damage in this region is likely to disrupt pathways that facilitate motor coordination, not autonomic or sensory functions.
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A 67-year-old male patient admitted to the neurology ward is observed to have intention tremor and cerebellar ataxia. Radiological scans reveal a pontine infarct. Which of the following fibers is most likely damaged in this case? – 2023
The corticopontocerebellar tract is part of the pathway connecting the cerebral cortex to the cerebellum via the pons. This tract is critical for coordination of voluntary movements and motor planning. Damage to this tract, such as in a pontine infarct, can result in intention tremor (tremor during purposeful movement) and cerebellar ataxia(uncoordinated, clumsy movements).
The other fibers are less likely to be implicated in this case:
Try to remember that K complexes and sleep spindles are unique markers of a certain stage of sleep and play a role in transitioning from light to deeper stages of sleep.
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A 55-year-old male presented to the neurology clinic with the complaint of excessive daytime sleepiness. He was advised to undergo a sleep study. Just after midnight, the lab technician notices the EEG wave showing K complexes and sleep spindles. Which of the following stages of sleep is the patient in at that moment?
The presence of K complexes and sleep spindles on an EEG is characteristic of Stage 2 (N2) of non-rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep. This stage represents light sleep and accounts for approximately 50% of the total sleep cycle in adults.
Think about the location of the largest fontanelle in the newborn’s skull. It lies at the junction of the coronal and sagittal sutures on the top of the head.
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During a routine examination of a newborn baby in the pediatric clinic, the physician notices a depression of the anterior fontanelle (membranous gap in between bones of the skull). The depressed fontanelle lies between which of the following bones? – 2023
The anterior fontanelle is the largest membranous gap in the fetal and newborn skull and lies at the junction of the frontal bone and parietal bones. It is located at the midline on the top of the skull where the coronal and sagittal sutures meet. This fontanelle is normally soft and flat in a healthy newborn, and its depression may indicate dehydration, while bulging could suggest increased intracranial pressure.
Focus on the dorsal column system when you see discriminative touch, vibration, or proprioception. The fasciculus gracilis handles input from the lower limbs, and the medial lemniscus continues this pathway to the brain.
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The sensation of discriminative touch, vibratory sense, and conscious muscle joint proprioception of the lower limbs passes from the posterior root ganglia to the postcentral gyrus through which of the following pathways? – 2023
The sensation of discriminative touch, vibration, and conscious proprioception from the lower limbs is carried by the dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway. The pathway works as follows:
Think about the term that describes diseases that are regularly present and expected in a specific population or area.
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Which of the following terms refers to the constant presence of a disease or infectious agent within its usual or expected frequency in a given geographical area or population group?
An endemic disease refers to the constant presence and usual frequency of a disease or infectious agent in a particular geographical area or population group. It reflects a steady-state level of the disease within the community, often influenced by local environmental, social, and host factors.
Examples:
Think about the glial cells specific to the peripheral nervous system that actively support axonal regeneration and remyelination.
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A 40-year-old woman sustained a peripheral nerve injury while cutting vegetables. The distance between the cut ends was less than 3 mm. Which of the following cells is responsible for the regeneration of this nerve?
Schwann cells are the key players in the regeneration of damaged peripheral nerves. After a peripheral nerve injury:
The regeneration is more likely to be successful if the gap between the two nerve ends is small, as in this case.
HIV encephalitis is a neurological complication of HIV infection, often presenting with symptoms such as cognitive decline, motor deficits, and behavioral changes. The characteristic histopathological findings of HIV encephalitis include:
These findings result from the infection of macrophages and microglia by HIV, leading to neuroinflammation and neuronal damage.
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A 35-year-old male who has a history of HIV is admitted to the neurology ward with signs and symptoms of encephalitis. Which of the following is a characteristic histopathological finding of HIV encephalitis?
Focus on the hallmark symptoms which are specific to HIV encephalitis.
Think about which nerve/s play a role in pupillary reflex, and then what’s the location of the nuclei to which those nerve/s are linked to.
53 / 100
A 32-year-old male presents to the emergency department with head trauma after he fell from a ladder. A physician shines a flashlight into the patient’s eyes and observes that the pupillary reflexes are normal. This reflex is used to test the functioning of which of the following structures of the brain?
The pupillary reflex (light reflex) involves the constriction of the pupils in response to light and is mediated by neural structures located in the midbrain. The key components involved are:
The normal pupillary reflex confirms the integrity of these midbrain structures.
54 / 100
Which of the following tests best verifies the aforementioned incapacity to halt motion precisely when needed?
The finger-nose test is used to evaluate coordination and the ability to halt movements precisely. In cerebellar lesions, patients often overshoot or miss the target due to a lack of fine motor control and inability to regulate movement (dysmetria).
Focus on the slow, writhing movements of the hands and face. Damage to the globus pallidus is specifically associated with this type of involuntary movement.
55 / 100
A 45-year-old male presented to a neurology clinic with complaints of spontaneous and continuous writhing movement of hands, an arm, and face. MRI scans reveal a lesion of the globus pallidus. The patient is manifesting which of the following signs in this case?
Athetosis refers to spontaneous, continuous, slow, writhing movements, typically affecting the hands, arms, face, and sometimes other parts of the body. It results from damage to the globus pallidus or its connections within the basal ganglia, which are critical for regulating motor control. The lesion disrupts the inhibitory output from the basal ganglia, leading to excessive, involuntary movements.
Focus on the medial-to-lateral organization of the cerebellar nuclei. The fastigial nucleus is closest to the midline, near the vermis.
56 / 100
A cross-section of the cerebellum shows the cerebellar nuclei embedded in the white matter which is surrounded by the cortex. Which of the following nuclei is located most medially? – 2023
The cerebellum contains four deep nuclei embedded in its white matter, from lateral to medial: dentate, emboliform, globose, and fastigial nuclei. The fastigial nucleus is the most medial of these nuclei and is located near the midline, close to the vermis. It is involved in maintaining balance and posture through connections with the vestibular and reticular systems.
Focus on the neurotransmitter produced by neurons in the substantia nigra that is critical for motor control and affected in Parkinson’s disease.
57 / 100
Parkinson’s disease is associated with the loss of specific neurons containing which of the following neurotransmitters?
Parkinson’s disease is primarily caused by the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra pars compacta, a part of the midbrain. Dopamine is critical for regulating motor control through its action on the basal ganglia, particularly the direct and indirect pathways. The loss of dopamine leads to:
Reduced dopamine levels impair the balance between excitatory and inhibitory signaling in the basal ganglia circuits, causing the characteristic motor deficits.
Focus on the embryological organization of the neural tube. The dorsal part is associated with sensory processing, while the ventral part relates to motor control. Which embryological structure matches this description?
58 / 100
Category: Neurosciences – Embryology
Which of the following embryological structures gives rise to the dorsal sensory horn of the spinal cord? – 2023
The dorsal (sensory) horn of the spinal cord develops from an embryological structure located in the dorsal part of the neural tube. This structure is responsible for processing sensory information during development. Its differentiation is influenced by signaling from adjacent structures like the roof plate.
Other structures:
Think about the medial surface of the brain and the artery (ACA) supplying it. Consider which areas control the lower limbs, as this region is typically involved in infarctions affecting the medial cerebral hemispheres.
59 / 100
An unconscious male patient is brought to the emergency room. An MRI of the brain is performed and reveals infarction of the medial surface of the cerebral hemispheres. Which of the following cortical areas is likely to be affected in this case?
The paracentral lobule is located on the medial surface of the cerebral hemispheres and includes portions of both the frontal and parietal lobes. It is responsible for motor and sensory functions of the contralateral lower limb. An infarction affecting the medial surface of the brain is typically due to occlusion of the anterior cerebral artery (ACA), which supplies this region.
In such cases, patients may present with:
Think about the structure most commonly associated with memory processing and learning. It is part of the limbic system and is critical for creating lasting memories.
60 / 100
A 44-year-old patient presents to the outpatient clinic with the complaint of being unable to recall any recently occurring events. Which of the following brain structures is responsible for converting short-term memory into long-term memory? – 2023
The hippocampus plays a critical role in converting short-term memory into long-term memory. It is part of the limbic system and is located in the medial temporal lobe of the brain. Damage to the hippocampus impairs the ability to form new long-term memories, a condition known as anterograde amnesia, which aligns with the patient’s presentation.
The other structures mentioned have different roles:
61 / 100
Loss of all sensations at the level of the lesion?
The posterolateral tract (Lissauer’s tract) contains incoming sensory fibers that ascend or descend for a few segments before synapsing. Destruction at this level would affect all sensations entering through that segment.
Focus on the patient’s symptoms and its role in weakening small cerebral arteries, leading to hemorrhages.
62 / 100
A 60-year-old male patient with a history of hypertension for the last 10 years is brought to the emergency department in an unconscious state. History also reveals that the patient is non-compliant with his medication for hypertension. MRI and CT scan brain show a lobar hemorrhage. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this condition?
Chronic hypertension is the most common cause of lobar hemorrhage in elderly patients. Long-standing hypertension leads to damage of small penetrating arteries in the brain, predisposing to:
Lobar hemorrhages due to hypertension typically occur in areas supplied by small penetrating arteries, such as:
This patient’s history of hypertension and medication non-compliance makes this the most likely cause of the hemorrhage.
Focus on the swimming history, rapid onset, and flask-shaped amoebae, which are hallmark features
63 / 100
A young male patient presents to the emergency department in an unconscious state. The parents give a history of him swimming in a pool for the last few days. CSF analysis reveals small flask-shaped amoeba. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?
Naegleria fowleri, also known as the “brain-eating amoeba,” is a thermophilic free-living amoeba that causes primary amoebic meningoencephalitis (PAM). This condition is rare but rapidly fatal. The typical presentation includes:
Naegleria fowleri enters the body through the nasal passages, penetrates the cribriform plate, and reaches the brain, causing severe inflammation and destruction of brain tissue.
Think about the location of sympathetic ganglia relative to the target organs. Sympathetic fibers must often travel long distances to reach their effectors.
64 / 100
Which of the following is not a feature of postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system? – 2023
In the sympathetic nervous system, postganglionic neurons are typically long, not short. This is because the sympathetic ganglia (where the postganglionic neuron cell bodies are located) are usually found in the sympathetic chain (paravertebral ganglia) or prevertebral ganglia, which are located far from the effector organs. Therefore, the postganglionic axons must travel a significant distance to reach their target organs.
The other features of sympathetic postganglionic neurons are correct:
Focus on the output neurons of the cerebellar cortex and the type of interneurons that regulate their activity by targeting the soma.
65 / 100
Within the cerebellar cortex, a basket-like nest is formed around the soma of which of the following cells? – 2023
The basket-like nest is formed around the soma of Purkinje cells by the axons of basket cells within the cerebellar cortex.
Think about the cranial nerve that controls shoulder elevation and head turning through the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles.
66 / 100
A 72-year-old female visits a physician with complaints of difficulty in raising her shoulders and turning her head for the last few weeks. Investigations reveal a lesion in the Medulla. Which one of the following nerves is involved in this lesion to have the effects mentioned above?
The accessory nerve (cranial nerve XI) is responsible for motor innervation to the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles, which are involved in raising the shoulders and turning the head. A lesion in the medulla affecting this nerve can result in:
The spinal accessory nerve has both cranial and spinal components, with the cranial part originating in the medulla.
67 / 100
Destruction of the tract produces loss of fine touch, vibration, proprioception, and two-point discrimination ipsilaterally in the lower limbs below the level of the lesion.
The gracile fasciculus carries fine touch, vibration, and proprioception from the lower limbs. It remains ipsilateral in the spinal cord and crosses at the medulla, so a lesion here causes ipsilateral loss of these sensations below the lesion.
Focus on risk factors related to immune system weakness, age extremes, or chronic infections, which predispose individuals to encephalitis.
68 / 100
Which of the following is not a risk factor for encephalitis?
A strong immune system is not a risk factor for encephalitis; in fact, it helps protect against infections that can lead to encephalitis. Encephalitis typically occurs when the brain becomes inflamed due to infections (most commonly viral) or autoimmune conditions, and individuals with weakened immune defenses are at higher risk.
When you see bilateral sensory and motor deficits below the lesion, think about complete disruption of the spinal cord. Pay attention to whether both ascending and descending tracts are involved.
69 / 100
A 53-year-old patient was brought to the emergency department after a fall. MRI scan reveals a slipped disc at the L3 level. Neurological examination shows that the patient has a bilateral loss of pain, temperature, and light touch sensation below the level of the lesion, bilateral lower motor neuron paralysis in the segment of the lesion, and bilateral spastic paralysis below the level of the lesion. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case? – 2023
The clinical findings in this patient suggest a complete cord transection syndrome. The key features include:
These findings are consistent with a complete transection of the spinal cord, which interrupts all ascending and descending tracts.
Think about the neurotransmitter that directly inhibits neuronal activity by increasing chloride influx, leading to hyperpolarization.
70 / 100
Which of the following is an inhibitory neurotransmitter that causes hyperpolarization of neurons?
GABA (gamma aminobutyric acid) is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system (CNS). It functions by binding to GABA-A and GABA-B receptors, leading to:
This inhibition is critical for preventing seizures, reducing anxiety, and promoting relaxation.
71 / 100
Consider whether the vein is superficial or deep. The superior sagittal sinus primarily collects blood from superficial veins on the brain’s convexity, not deep or basal structures.
72 / 100
Which of the following veins drains into the superior sagittal sinus? – 2023
The superior sagittal sinus is one of the dural venous sinuses located along the midline of the brain, running in the superior border of the falx cerebri. It primarily collects venous blood from the superior cerebral veins, which drain the superficial aspects of the cerebral hemispheres. These veins course over the brain’s convex surface and directly empty into the superior sagittal sinus.
The other veins listed drain into different venous structures:
Focus on the bones forming the boundaries of the anterior cranial fossa. Consider the sphenoid bone’s unique contributions to different regions of the cranial cavity.
73 / 100
A patient who suffered from a road traffic accident is brought to the emergency room with a skull fracture involving bones of the anterior cranial fossa. Which of the following skull bones is most likely to be fractured in this case? – 2023
The anterior cranial fossa forms the floor of the frontal part of the cranial cavity and primarily houses the frontal lobes of the brain. It is formed by the following bones:
A fracture involving the anterior cranial fossa commonly affects the lesser wings of the sphenoid bone because this structure forms part of the posterior boundary of the fossa and is relatively fragile. Fractures in this region may lead to complications such as CSF rhinorrhea due to damage to the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone or involvement of the optic canal.
Focus on the persistent low mood, anhedonia, and suicidal ideation as hallmarks
74 / 100
A 32-year-old mother of two children visits a primary healthcare center with complaints of feeling sad, irritable, and empty, and often finds herself crying for no reason for the past three months. She has a loss of interest in all activities and finds it really hard to carry out her daily activities. She feels as if she would be better off dead and even has thoughts about taking her life at times. Which one of the following disorders is she most likely suffering from?
The symptoms described by the patient—persistent sadness, irritability, emptiness, loss of interest in activities, difficulty carrying out daily tasks, and suicidal thoughts—are classic indicators of major depressive disorder (MDD). Depression is characterized by:
Her mention of thoughts about taking her life highlights the urgency for immediate intervention to ensure her safety and provide appropriate treatment.
Think about reflexes that involve both sides of the body and help maintain balance when a sudden withdrawal occurs.
75 / 100
A 20-year-old male was walking barefoot when he suddenly withdrew his leg when he accidentally stepped on a nail. Which of the following reflexes is responsible for activating the antagonistic contralateral extensor muscles in this case?
The crossed extensor reflex is responsible for activating the contralateral extensor muscles when the leg is withdrawn in response to a painful stimulus. This reflex helps maintain balance by extending the opposite leg while the affected leg is flexed to withdraw from the painful stimulus.
The mechanism involves:
Focus on the C-shaped structure that runs along the lateral ventricle and is separated from the lentiform nucleus by the internal capsule.
76 / 100
During a lecture on the basal nuclei, the professor mentions a part of the corpus striatum which is associated with the lateral ventricle medially and the internal capsule laterally. Which of the following structures of the corpus striatum is being mentioned? – 2023
The caudate nucleus is a C-shaped structure that forms part of the corpus striatum, a component of the basal nuclei. It has the following anatomical relationships:
The caudate nucleus plays a critical role in motor control and cognitive processes.
Think of large signaling molecules like hormones, which require specialized mechanisms (receptor-mediated transcytosis) to cross the BBB.
77 / 100
Which of the following compounds crosses the blood-brain barrier by means of receptor-mediated transcytosis?
Insulin crosses the blood-brain barrier (BBB) via receptor-mediated transcytosis (RMT). This process involves:
Receptor-mediated transcytosis is used for large molecules like insulin, growth factors, and certain antibodies that cannot cross the BBB by diffusion or simple transport mechanisms.
Focus on the part of the cerebellum that communicates with the cerebral cortex and is involved in higher-order motor planning, especially for skilled and complex movements.
78 / 100
Which of the following parts of the cerebellum is involved in the planning of sequential movements?
The lateral zone of the cerebellum, also known as the cerebrocerebellum, is involved in the planning and coordination of sequential movements, especially for skilled, voluntary, and fine motor activities. It communicates extensively with the cerebral cortex via the dentate nucleus and thalamus to plan motor actions before they are executed.
Focus on the investigation that directly assesses CSF abnormalities, which are specific for diagnosing meningitis.
79 / 100
A 5-year-old boy is admitted to the neurology ward with complaints of headache, photophobia, and neck rigidity. He is a suspected case of meningitis. Which of the following is the best diagnostic investigation for meningitis?
The gold standard diagnostic investigation for meningitis is cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis, obtained via lumbar puncture. CSF analysis provides critical information to confirm the diagnosis and determine the etiology (bacterial, viral, fungal, or other causes). Key components of CSF analysis include:
Focus on the enzyme responsible for combining choline and acetyl-CoA, which is unique to acetylcholine synthesis.
80 / 100
Acetylcholine is synthesized in the presynaptic axon by?
Acetylcholine (ACh) is synthesized in the presynaptic axon by the enzyme choline acetyltransferase (ChAT). This enzyme catalyzes the reaction between:
The reaction produces acetylcholine and CoA. Once synthesized, acetylcholine is stored in vesicles in the presynaptic neuron and released into the synaptic cleft during neurotransmission.
81 / 100
Lesion in which of the following areas is responsible for above finding?
Focus on the receptor type specialized for detecting high-frequency vibrations in non-hairy skin, particularly under conditions of mechanical exposure.
82 / 100
A 42-year-old jackhammer operator presents in the neurology clinic with decreased sensitivity to high-frequency vibrations in the non-hairy skin of his hands. Which of the following receptors is most likely affected in this case?
Pacinian corpuscles are specialized mechanoreceptors located in the skin and deeper tissues that are highly sensitive to vibration, particularly high-frequency vibrations (40–500 Hz). These receptors are found in non-hairy (glabrous) skin, as well as in deeper tissues such as the joints and fascia. Their structure consists of a central nerve ending surrounded by concentric lamellae, which allow them to detect rapid changes in pressure and vibration.
In this case, the jackhammer operator’s prolonged exposure to high-frequency vibrations likely caused damage or desensitization of the Pacinian corpuscles, leading to reduced sensitivity.
Think about the neurotransmitter from the Raphe nuclei that regulates mood and sleep and is involved in promoting NREM sleep.
83 / 100
Which of the following neurotransmitters is released by the Raphe neurons nerve endings is associated with the induction of sleep?
The Raphe nuclei, located in the brainstem, release serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine, or 5-HT) as their primary neurotransmitter. Serotonin plays a crucial role in regulating the sleep-wake cycle, particularly in the induction of sleep. It promotes the onset of non-rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep by acting on various serotonergic receptors in the brain, particularly in the hypothalamus and cortex.
Focus on the receptor that is protecting it from overexertion.
84 / 100
During voluntary movements, the Golgi tendon organs are involved in providing which of the following information to the central nervous system?
Golgi tendon organs (GTOs) are sensory receptors located at the junction of muscles and tendons. They are sensitive to tension or force generated by a muscle, whether during active contraction or passive stretch. GTOs send this information to the central nervous system via Type Ib sensory fibers, helping to:
Focus on factors directly affecting how fast a signal travels along the fiber, not how far it has to travel.
85 / 100
The speed of a nerve impulse is independent of which of the following factors?
The speed of a nerve impulse (conduction velocity) is determined by several factors, but the length of the nerve fiber is not one of them. The conduction speed is primarily influenced by:
The length of the nerve fiber does not affect the speed of impulse conduction. It may affect the total time it takes for an impulse to travel a given distance, but the rate of conduction per unit length remains constant.
Think about which cranial nerve provides parasympathetic innervation to the lungs. Trace its origin back to its brainstem nucleus.
86 / 100
A parasympathetic nerve arising from the brainstem influences the lungs. The cell body of this nerve lies in which of the following nuclei? – 2023
The dorsal nucleus of the vagus nerve (cranial nerve X) is the parasympathetic nucleus located in the brainstem, specifically in the medulla. It is responsible for providing parasympathetic innervation to many visceral organs, including the lungs, heart, and gastrointestinal tract. This parasympathetic input regulates bronchoconstriction, secretion of mucus, and other autonomic functions of the lungs.
Think about how neurons communicate intensity to the brain
87 / 100
Brain can distinguish between the strengths of light touch and sustained pressure during sensory encoding. Which of the following properties is responsible for this action of the brain?
The frequency of action potentials generated by sensory neurons encodes the intensity of a stimulus. When a sensory receptor detects a stimulus:
This frequency modulation allows the brain to distinguish between different strengths of stimuli, as higher frequencies are interpreted as more intense sensations.
Focus on the combination of X-linked inheritance, ABCD1 mutation, and the accumulation of very long-chain fatty acids
88 / 100
A 5-month-old boy is brought to the outpatient clinic with complaints of global developmental delay, generalized weakness of the body, and jerky eye movement. There is also a family history of his 5-year-old brother having the same complaints. MRI scans of the brain reveal symmetrical lesions. Genetic studies reveal a mutation in the ABCD1 gene located at the X chromosome. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Adrenoleukodystrophy (ALD) is a rare X-linked disorder caused by mutations in the ABCD1 gene, which encodes a peroxisomal membrane protein responsible for the transport of very long-chain fatty acids (VLCFAs) into peroxisomes for degradation. The resulting accumulation of VLCFAs leads to:
The key clinical features include:
Focus on the metabolic needs of nerve fibers.
89 / 100
Type B nerve fibers are most sensitive to which one of the following stimuli?
Type B nerve fibers are myelinated preganglionic autonomic fibers with a relatively small diameter and moderate conduction velocity. They are particularly sensitive to hypoxia (lack of oxygen) due to their dependence on aerobic metabolism to maintain ionic gradients and support action potential conduction. Hypoxia affects their function more severely than other factors like local anesthesia or pressure.
Focus on the brain area responsible for speech production rather than comprehension, particularly in the dominant hemisphere.
90 / 100
A day after a head injury, a neurologist observed that his 45-year-old patient understood spoken and written words but his speech was slow, poorly articulated with a great effort. Which of the following cerebral areas may be affected in this patient?
Broca’s area, located in the posterior part of the inferior frontal gyrus of the dominant hemisphere (usually the left), is responsible for motor aspects of speech production. Damage to this area results in Broca’s aphasia (expressive aphasia), characterized by:
Patients with Broca’s aphasia are aware of their deficits, which can lead to frustration.
91 / 100
Destruction of the tract causes loss of position and movements of the ipsilateral upper limbs below the level of the lesion.
The cuneate fasciculus is part of the dorsal column-medial lemniscal pathway, which transmits proprioception, fine touch, and vibration from the upper limbs. Since this tract remains ipsilateral until it crosses in the medulla, a lesion causes ipsilateral loss of position and movement sensation below the lesion.
Think about which layer of the developing spinal cord evolves into gray matter, where the neuronal cell bodies are located.
92 / 100
During the development of the spinal cord, the central canal is lined by three layers. Which of the three layers contains cell bodies of neurons? – 2023
During the development of the spinal cord, the mantle layer is the intermediate layer of the neural tube, and it contains the cell bodies of neurons. This layer forms the gray matter of the spinal cord, which includes the dorsal (sensory) and ventral (motor) horns.
The developmental layers of the spinal cord are:
Focus on the unilateral pupillary dilation and impaired ocular movement, which are classic signs of CN III compression due to herniation.
93 / 100
A 39-year-old female patient presents to the outpatient department with a severe headache for the last 3 days. On physical examination, she is afebrile and normotensive. Fundoscopic examination shows papilledema in the right eye. She was admitted to the hospital for further testing. A day later, she develops right pupillary dilation with impaired ocular movement. These findings are best explained by which of the following lesions?
The patient presents with:
These findings are most consistent with transtentorial herniation (uncal herniation), where the medial temporal lobe (uncus) herniates through the tentorial notch due to elevated ICP. This compresses the oculomotor nerve, often first on one side, causing:
Think about the midbrain’s role in modulating pain signals through descending pathways rather than other autonomic or motor functions.
94 / 100
Damage to periaqeductal gray area of midbrain results in loss of which one of the following functions?
The peri-aqueductal gray (PAG) area of the midbrain plays a crucial role in the brain’s endogenous pain suppression system. It is involved in descending pain modulation by activating inhibitory pathways that reduce pain signals at the level of the spinal cord. The PAG interacts with the raphe nuclei and releases neurotransmitters such as serotonin and endorphins to suppress nociceptive (pain) input.
Focus on the structure that is part of the brainstem and lies between the diencephalon and pons.
95 / 100
During the 5th week of development, five brain swellings appear. These include the telencephalon, diencephalon, mesencephalon, metencephalon, and myelencephalon. The mesencephalon gives rise to which of the following structures? – 2023
The mesencephalon is one of the five secondary brain vesicles that develop during the 5th week of embryogenesis. It remains undivided and develops into the midbrain in the adult brain. The midbrain includes structures such as:
The mesencephalon is part of the brainstem, located between the diencephalon and the pons.
Remember that the spinothalamic tracts cross over near their entry point in the spinal cord. So, an injury to the left sideaffects pain and temperature on the opposite side.
96 / 100
A patient suffers from a gunshot wound injuring his spinal cord on the left side. The patient now has loss of pain and temperature sensation on the right side of the body. Which of the following tracts is likely to be affected in this case? – 2023
The lateral spinothalamic tract carries pain and temperature sensation from the body to the brain. The pathway crosses (decussates) at the level of the spinal cord shortly after entering via the dorsal root. Therefore, a left-sided spinal cord injury affecting the lateral spinothalamic tract results in loss of pain and temperature sensation on the right side of the body below the level of the lesion.
Focus on the motor protein responsible for retrograde transport, moving material toward the cell body along microtubules.
97 / 100
A 2-year-old boy was infected by polio virus and developed flaccid paralysis. This virus enters the central nervous system from periphery and reaches the soma by retrograde transport. Which of the following proteins is used by the polio virus to reach the cell body?
Poliovirus, like other viruses that use retrograde transport to travel from peripheral nerves to the central nervous system (CNS), relies on the motor protein dynein. Dynein is responsible for retrograde transport along microtubules, moving cargo, including viruses, toxins, and cellular components, from the axon terminal toward the soma (cell body). This allows the poliovirus to reach the neuronal soma, where it can replicate and cause damage, leading to flaccid paralysis.
Focus on the indirect pathway, which involves the subthalamus increasing activity in the output nuclei of the basal ganglia to inhibit unwanted movements.
98 / 100
Which of the following nuclei of the basal ganglia receives input from the sub-thalamus via the indirect pathway?
In the indirect pathway of the basal ganglia, the subthalamic nucleus sends excitatory (glutamatergic) input to the globus pallidus internus (GPi). The GPi is a critical output nucleus of the basal ganglia that projects inhibitory signals to the thalamus, helping regulate motor activity. The indirect pathway, through this excitatory input from the subthalamus, increases inhibitory output from the GPi to the thalamus, leading to suppression of unwanted motor movements.
The name of the enzyme signifies its function.
99 / 100
Which of the following key enzymes is required for the synthesis of acetylcholine? – 2023
Acetylcholine is synthesized in cholinergic neurons by the enzyme choline acetyltransferase (ChAT). This enzyme catalyzes the transfer of an acetyl group from acetyl-CoA to choline, forming acetylcholine. Acetyl-CoA is produced in the mitochondria, while choline is taken up by the neuron through a high-affinity choline transporter. This reaction occurs in the cytoplasm of the presynaptic neuron, and the synthesized acetylcholine is then stored in vesicles for release into the synaptic cleft during neurotransmission.
Focus on the schedule of routine immunization in the EPI program, where IPV is strategically given to complement oral polio vaccine doses.
100 / 100
Polio is now endemic only in 2 countries Pakistan and Afghanistan. Two very effective polio vaccines Oral and injectable are being given in EPI program and in addition special immunization campaigns are repeatedly conducted all over Pakistan so as to eradicate polio. In routine EPI schedule injectable polio vaccine IPV is given at age of
In Pakistan’s Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI) schedule, the injectable polio vaccine (IPV) is typically administered at 14 weeks of age as part of routine immunization. This dose is given alongside other vaccines such as Pentavalent-3 and OPV-3 (oral polio vaccine). IPV provides systemic immunity by stimulating the production of antibodies in the bloodstream, which helps prevent poliovirus from spreading to the nervous system.
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