NeuroScience
NEUROSCIENCE – 2024
Questions from the 2024 Module Exam
Focus on the glial cell type known for its supportive and homeostatic functions in the CNS, especially its role in maintaining ionic balance during neuronal activity.
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Category: Neurosciences – Physiology
Tags: 2024
Which of the following specialized glial cells are responsible for the maintenance of extracellular potassium homeostasis in the central nervous system?
Astrocytes are glial cells in the central nervous system that play a critical role in maintaining extracellular potassium homeostasis. During neuronal activity, potassium ions are released into the extracellular space. Astrocytes take up excess potassium ions through specialized potassium channels, such as Kir4.1, and help redistribute them to maintain a stable ionic environment essential for normal neuronal function.
Other options:
Think about the pathway responsible for transmitting crude, non-discriminative touch, rather than fine or localized sensations.
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Which of the following sensations is carried by the anterior spinothalamic tract?
The anterior spinothalamic tract is part of the anterolateral system, which transmits sensory information. Specifically, the anterior spinothalamic tract carries crude touch and pressure sensations, while the lateral spinothalamic tract is responsible for pain and temperature sensations.
Think about the nucleus responsible for sensory input from the body (not the face) via ascending tracts like the spinothalamic tract and medial lemniscus.
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Category: NeuroSciences – Anatomy
Which of the following nuclei residing in the thalamus receives the ascending sensory tracts through medial and spinal lemnisci?
The ventral posterolateral (VPL) nucleus of the thalamus receives sensory information from the medial lemniscus (carrying fine touch, vibration, and proprioception) and the spinothalamic tract (carrying pain and temperature). This sensory input comes from the trunk and limbs and is then relayed to the primary somatosensory cortex in the postcentral gyrus.
Other nuclei:
Think about receptors that sustain their response to constant light touch, providing detailed spatial information about texture and pressure.
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Which of the following are slowly adapting receptors responsible for detecting light touch, particularly in the fingertips and lips?
Merkel discs are slowly adapting mechanoreceptors found in the basal layer of the epidermis, especially in highly sensitive areas such as the fingertips and lips. They are responsible for detecting light touch and sustained pressure and provide detailed information about texture and shape.
La La La… Thank you for hoping for a hint on this buddy.
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Structure assists in the regulation of voluntary movements and learning of motor skills
The putamen (label D) works with other basal ganglia components to regulate voluntary motor movements and facilitate motor learning.
Remember that CSF is continuously produced and turned over multiple times in a day, and its production significantly exceeds the total volume in the ventricles and subarachnoid space.
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What is the approximate rate of production of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the adult human brain in 24 hours?
The choroid plexus in the ventricles of the brain produces cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) at an average rate of about 500 mL per day in adults. The total volume of CSF present at any given time in the adult brain is approximately 150 mL, meaning CSF is continuously produced, circulated, and reabsorbed multiple times a day.
Think of immunocompromised states (e.g., HIV) and Indian ink staining when seeing encapsulated yeasts.
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Category: Neurosciences – Pathology
A 38-year-old HIV-positive man presents with a headache and vision changes. Indian ink staining of the CSF reveals encapsulated yeasts. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Cryptococcal meningitis is a common opportunistic infection in HIV-positive individuals caused by Cryptococcus neoformans. Key features include:
Focus on the role of the ventricles in CSF production and recall the regions they extend into.
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With respect to the anatomy of the lateral ventricle, which of the following statements is best?
The lateral ventricles are paired structures located within each cerebral hemisphere. They contain choroid plexuses, which are responsible for producing cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). These ventricles have anterior, posterior, and inferior horns that extend into different regions of the brain.
Focus on the medial lemniscus, which carries sensory information for proprioception and vibration to the contralateral side of the body.
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Which of the following is one of the clinical features of medial medullary syndrome?
Medial medullary syndrome (also known as Dejerine syndrome) is caused by an infarction in the medial portion of the medulla oblongata, usually due to occlusion of the anterior spinal artery.
Medial medullary syndrome involves the following structures:
Thus, “sensory deficit affecting the trunk of the opposite side” is one of the features of medial medullary syndrome, as it results from damage to the medial lemniscus.
Look for large, flask-shaped cells arranged in a single layer, responsible for the output of the cerebellar cortex.
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Category: Neurosciences – Histology
During the examination of a histological slide of the cerebellar cortex under a microscope, the student found some flask-shaped cells arranged in a single row in the middle layer of the cerebellar cortex. Which of the following cells was the student observing?
Purkinje cells are flask-shaped neurons located in a single row within the Purkinje layer of the cerebellar cortex, which is the middle layer. These cells are large and have extensive dendritic arbors that extend into the molecular layer. They serve as the sole output of the cerebellar cortex, projecting inhibitory signals via GABA to the deep cerebellar nuclei.
emerges between the pyramid and the olive and exits the skull through the hypoglossal canal, supplying the muscles of the tongue.
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Labelled structure that passes through hypoglossal foramen is shown by arrow
Think about how the brain deals with repetitive, neutral stimuli that don’t offer new information or consequences.
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What occurs to the cerebral cortical response when a sensory stimulus neither elicits reward nor punishment?
When a sensory stimulus neither elicits a reward nor a punishment, the brain typically reduces its response to that stimulus over time. This process is called habituation, which is a form of non-associative learning. Habituation allows the brain to filter out irrelevant stimuli and focus on more significant sensory inputs.
These proteins work alongside occludins and junctional adhesion molecules (JAMs) to regulate the permeability of the blood-brain barrier, ensuring CNS homeostasis.
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Category: Neurosciences – Biochemistry
At the interface between blood and brain, endothelial cells are tightly packed together with the help of tight junctions that are specialized transmembrane proteins. Which of the following are those specialized transmembrane proteins?
Claudins are integral membrane proteins that are critical components of tight junctions. These proteins form the backbone of tight junctions between endothelial cells, helping to maintain the selective permeability of the blood-brain barrier (BBB). Claudins, along with occludins, prevent the free passage of molecules and ions between the bloodstream and brain tissue, ensuring the CNS environment remains controlled.
Clinical signs include headache, nausea, vomiting, papilledema, and altered mental status.
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Which of the following patients is at high risk of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?
Traumatic brain injury (TBI) is a significant cause of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) due to:
Increased ICP can lead to herniation syndromes, compromised cerebral perfusion, and further neuronal injury. Clinical signs include headache, nausea, vomiting, papilledema, and altered mental status.
Focus on the branches of the vertebral artery and their role in spinal cord vascular supply.
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Which of the following arteries is correctly paired with its main stem artery?
Incorrect options:
This virus selectively damages anterior horn cells of the spinal cord, leading to flaccid paralysis.
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Category: Neurosciences – Community Medicine + Behavioural Sciences
Poliomyelitis mainly affects children under 5 years of age and may lead to irreversible paralysis. Which human body system is primarily infected by the polio virus?
Poliomyelitis is caused by the poliovirus, which primarily targets the nervous system. The virus infects motor neurons in the spinal cord and brainstem, leading to muscle weakness or paralysis. Severe cases can result in permanent paralysis and respiratory failure if the diaphragm is affected. The poliovirus is transmitted through the fecal-oral route, initially infecting the gastrointestinal tract, but it primarily impacts the nervous system during its viremic phase.
The midbrain develops from the mesencephalon, the middle brain vesicle.
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Category: Neurosciences – Embryology
Midbrain is derived from:
The mesencephalon (arrow C) remains relatively unchanged structurally and develops into the midbrain, which includes important structures like the tectum and tegmentum. These are involved in vision, hearing, motor control, and alertness.
Focus on the symptoms associated with the cerebellum’s role in motor coordination and balance.
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The cerebellum is located within the posterior cranial fossa at the back of the brain, immediately inferior to the occipital and temporal lobes. Which of the following is not present if there is a lesion of the cerebellum?
Resting tremors are typically associated with Parkinson’s disease and basal ganglia dysfunction, not cerebellar lesions. Cerebellar lesions result in issues related to coordination, balance, and fine motor control but do not cause resting tremors.
Common features of cerebellar lesions include:
Focus on the specific openings in the fourth ventricle that allow CSF to move into the space surrounding the brain.
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Through which of the following structures does the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) flow from the fourth ventricle into the subarachnoid space?
The CSF flows from the fourth ventricle into the subarachnoid space through the foramina of Luschka (lateral apertures) and the foramen of Magendie (median aperture). These openings allow the CSF to exit the ventricular system and enter the subarachnoid space surrounding the brain and spinal cord.
Focus on the motor protein responsible for retrograde transport, which allows viruses to move from the periphery to the cell body of neurons.
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A 2-year-old boy was infected by poliovirus and suffered flaccid paralysis. By using which one of the following proteins did the virus enter the cell bodies of the neurons in the central nervous system?
Poliovirus, like many neurotropic viruses, travels retrogradely along axons to reach the cell bodies of neurons. This process is mediated by dynein, a motor protein responsible for retrograde transport along microtubules. Once inside the cell body, the virus can replicate and spread, causing damage to the nervous system.
Focus on the inhibitory neurotransmitter reduced by the direct pathway, which disinhibits the thalamus and enhances motor activity.
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Which of the following primary neurotransmitters is decreased by the direct pathway of the basal ganglia, resulting in increased motor activity?
The direct pathway of the basal ganglia is involved in facilitating movement. In this pathway:
In the direct pathway, the reduction of GABA release by the GPi and SNr leads to disinhibition of the thalamus, which enhances motor output.
Focus on the neurotransmitter associated with descending pain inhibition originating from the brainstem.
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Which one of the following neurotransmitters has been suggested as a mediator of analgesia produced by stimulation of the raphe spinal pathway?
The raphe spinal pathway is part of the descending pain modulation system. It originates in the raphe nuclei of the brainstem and projects to the spinal cord, where it mediates analgesia. Serotonin (5-HT) is released by neurons in this pathway and acts on the dorsal horn to inhibit the transmission of nociceptive (pain) signals. It enhances inhibitory interneuron activity and suppresses pain perception.
The nucleus responsible for pupil constriction must be associated with the oculomotor nerve and the parasympathetic control of the eye.
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Constriction of the pupil is the function of the parasympathetic nervous system. Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers arise from which of the following cranial nerve nuclei?
The Edinger-Westphal nucleus is the parasympathetic nucleus associated with the oculomotor nerve (CN III). Preganglionic parasympathetic fibers originating from this nucleus travel with the oculomotor nerve to the ciliary ganglion. From the ciliary ganglion, postganglionic fibers innervate the sphincter pupillae muscle, which is responsible for pupil constriction (miosis).
This organism is a leading cause of a certain disease in young adults, especially those in communal living settings. Look for a characteristic petechial rash.
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A 19-year-old college student presents with fever, rash, and neck stiffness. CSF analysis shows increased neutrophils, decreased glucose, and increased protein. Which organism is most likely responsible?
Neisseria meningitidis is a common cause of bacterial meningitis, especially in young adults and individuals living in close quarters, such as college dormitories. Key clinical and laboratory findings include:
Focus on treating the underlying factors that can exacerbate intracranial pressure, particularly physiological derangements like hyperthermia, which increase metabolic demand.
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A patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) has the following vital signs: blood pressure 99/60, heart rate 65, temperature 101.6 °F, respiration rate 14, and oxygen saturation of 95%. ICP reading is 21 mmHg. Based on these findings, what is the most appropriate initial step in managing this patient?
The patient presents with elevated intracranial pressure (ICP) and a fever (101.6 °F), which can exacerbate cerebral edema and worsen ICP. The initial priority is to address the fever, as hyperthermia increases cerebral metabolic demand and blood flow, which could further elevate ICP. Removing extra blankets and providing a cooling bath is a non-invasive, effective initial step to lower the patient’s temperature.
Think about the brain structures that are involved in emotions, memory processing, and behavioral reactions. The hippocampus plays a key role in memory and connects to regions related to emotions and autonomic functions.
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The hippocampus serves as an additional channel for incoming sensory signals to initiate behavioral reactions, collaborating with the limbic system through various pathways. Which limbic structures are primarily connected to the hippocampus?
The hippocampus is a central structure within the limbic system that connects with various regions to regulate memory, emotions, and behavioral responses. It has strong connections with:
These structures form part of the Papez circuit, which integrates emotional and memory-related information.
This principle emphasizes respecting the patient’s decision-making rights and ensuring they have the freedom to consent to or decline any procedure.
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A surgeon performs a risky procedure on a patient without their informed consent, believing it to be in the patient’s best interest. Which of the following ethical principles is violated?
The principle of autonomy is violated when a patient’s right to make an informed decision about their own healthcare is disregarded. Informed consent is a critical aspect of respecting a patient’s autonomy, ensuring they understand and agree to the risks and benefits of a procedure. Performing a risky procedure without consent disregards the patient’s ability to decide for themselves.
The cerebellum arises from the metencephalon, part of the hindbrain.
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Cerebellum is derived from:
The metencephalon (arrow D) is one of the subdivisions of the rhombencephalon. It develops into the cerebellum and pons, both of which play critical roles in coordination and communication within the central nervous system.
Think about the specific area in the hypothalamus that monitors the body’s fluid balance and triggers the sensation of thirst when the body is dehydrated.
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A hiker finds herself lost in a desert, with a limited water supply and rising temperatures. She begins to experience intense thirst, driving her to search desperately for water sources. Which specific area within the hypothalamus is likely responsible for creating this sensation of thirst in her brain?
The ventrolateral hypothalamus (VLH) plays a crucial role in stimulating thirst.
This thirst drive motivates the individual to seek and consume water to restore fluid balance.
While other hypothalamic areas have roles in regulating various functions, the VLH is specifically associated with the sensation of thirst.
Focus on the pathway that transmits dull, aching pain over a prolonged duration and contributes to the emotional aspect of pain.
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Which of the following pain pathways are associated with poorly localized pain sensation?
The paleospinothalamic tract is part of the anterolateral system and is responsible for transmitting poorly localized, slow, and chronic pain sensations. It involves small, unmyelinated C fibers and terminates in the brainstem and thalamus, contributing to the emotional and autonomic components of pain.
Focus on the pathway that provides the brain with positional awareness and fine touch sensation, which is tested during the Romberg test.
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A positive Romberg sign is indicative of damage to which of the following spinal column tracts?
A positive Romberg sign occurs when a person loses balance when their eyes are closed, which indicates a problem with proprioception or sensory input from the dorsal column-medial lemniscal pathway. This pathway is responsible for carrying fine touch, vibration sense, and proprioceptive information to the brain.
Closing the eyes removes visual input that can compensate for the lack of proprioceptive feedback, revealing deficits in this sensory system.
Initial management focuses on reducing viral load at the wound site before administering PEP.
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A 14-year-old boy, while coming back from school, was bitten by a stray dog without any provocation. There was some bleeding from wounds. He was taken to a nearby hospital. What is the first step which should be done immediately?
The first and most critical step in managing a potential rabies exposure is thorough wound washing. Washing the wound with soap and water for 10–15 minutes significantly reduces the risk of rabies transmission by physically removing the virus from the site of entry. This initial step is vital before administering post-exposure prophylaxis.
Focus on the bones forming the anterior cranial fossa, specifically the ones forming its boundary.
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During a road traffic accident, a person had a fracture of the skull. The fracture involved the bones of the anterior cranial fossa. Which one of the following bones could be fractured in the above case?
The anterior cranial fossa is formed by the frontal bone, ethmoid bone, and the lesser wing of the sphenoid bone. A fracture of the anterior cranial fossa could involve any of these structures. The lesser wing of the sphenoid forms the posterior boundary of the anterior cranial fossa and is commonly affected in trauma involving this region.
The groove labelled A lies along the ventral surface of the pons and is a hallmark feature
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The artery present in the groove labelled by arrow A is:
The groove labelled A corresponds to the groove for the basilar artery.
The rate-limiting step is catalyzed by an enzyme that is the target of regulatory feedback from dopamine and norepinephrine levels in the central nervous system.
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Catecholamines are a class of neurotransmitters that play essential roles in various physiological processes. They include dopamine, norepinephrine, and epinephrine. These molecules are derived from the amino acid tyrosine. Which of the following is the rate-limiting step in the biosynthetic pathway of catecholamines?
The rate-limiting step in the biosynthesis of catecholamines is the hydroxylation of tyrosine to form L-DOPA, catalyzed by the enzyme tyrosine hydroxylase. This step requires tetrahydrobiopterin as a cofactor and is tightly regulated by feedback inhibition from the downstream catecholamines (dopamine, norepinephrine, and epinephrine).
Recall that the spinal cord terminates at L1-L2, but the meninges (including the arachnoid) and the dural sac extend further down to provide a protective covering for the cauda equina.
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A 20-year-old female came to the family physician with a complaint of severe back pain. Upon investigation, MRI revealed a tumor arising from cells in the middle layer of the meninges of the spinal cord. In which of the following vertebral levels does the affected layer terminate?
The middle layer of the meninges refers to the arachnoid mater. The spinal arachnoid mater terminates at the level of S2, where the dural sac ends. This marks the inferior limit of the subarachnoid space, which contains cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Tumors arising from arachnoid cells, such as meningiomas, may occur at this level.
The structure you are looking for is a large venous channel formed by the dura mater and serves as the main drainage pathway for cerebral veins.
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A patient is brought to the emergency department with complaints of headache and dizziness after a head injury. The MRI scan shows a blood clot in the great cerebral vein of Galen. The obstructed vein of the brain is the direct tributary of which of the following venous structures?
The great cerebral vein of Galen is a large deep vein in the brain that drains blood from internal cerebral structures. It joins the inferior sagittal sinus to form the straight sinus, which is part of the dural venous sinuses. These sinuses collect blood from the brain and direct it toward the internal jugular vein.
Other options are unrelated:
Focus on symptoms like muscle paralysis and respiratory failure, which point to toxins targeting a specific system.
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The snake bite victim exhibiting the signs of ptosis, diplopia, dysphagia, and respiratory failure is affected by which of the following types of snake venom?
The symptoms described, such as ptosis (drooping eyelids), diplopia (double vision), dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), and respiratory failure, indicate an effect on the nervous system. Neurotoxins act by disrupting synaptic transmission, either at the neuromuscular junction or central nervous system, leading to paralysis and respiratory arrest. This is characteristic of snakes like cobras and kraits.
Think of the pathway that suppresses motor activity by indirectly increasing inhibition on the thalamus.
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Which pathway of the basal ganglia is associated with the inhibition of unwanted movements?
The indirect pathway of the basal ganglia is primarily responsible for the inhibition of unwanted movements. It acts by increasing the inhibitory output from the globus pallidus interna (GPi) and substantia nigra pars reticulata (SNr) to the thalamus, reducing thalamic excitation of the motor cortex. This suppression prevents extraneous or inappropriate motor activity.
Think of the neurotransmitter most often targeted by antidepressant medications to treat mood disorders.
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Which of the following neurotransmitters is primarily responsible for the regulation of mood and emotional behavior in the central nervous system?
Serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine or 5-HT) is a neurotransmitter synthesized in the raphe nuclei of the brainstem. It is critically involved in regulating mood, emotional behavior, sleep, and appetite. Dysregulation of serotonin levels is associated with mood disorders such as depression and anxiety, and it is a primary target for many antidepressant medications like selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs).
Look for behavioral or neurological changes before overt signs like bradycardia or pupillary changes appear in ICP. Subtle alterations often precede critical findings.
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A patient who experienced a cerebral hemorrhage is at risk for developing increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which of the following signs and symptoms is the earliest indicator of the patient developing this complication?
Restlessness is often one of the earliest signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) as it reflects subtle changes in the patient’s neurological status. It indicates cerebral hypoxia or reduced cerebral perfusion before more advanced symptoms occur. Early recognition of such behavioral changes can prompt timely interventions to prevent worsening of ICP.
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The nerve which travels within the cavernous sinus alongside the internal carotid artery before entering the orbit via the superior orbital fissure.
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Labelled structure that is content of cavernous venous sinus is shown by arrow
Arrow B points to the abducent nerve, which passes through the cavernous sinus.
The Options are the hint itself buddy.
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Wedge-shaped mass of gray matter. Related medially to the internal capsule and laterally to a thin sheet of white matter, the external capsule
This organism produces a toxin that inhibits protein synthesis by targeting elongation factor-2 (EF-2), leading to local tissue destruction and systemic complications.
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Infection by which of the following organisms causes the formation of a grayish membrane over the tonsils, pharynx, or larynx, with well-defined edges and bleeding of the surface due to the membrane’s removal?
Corynebacterium diphtheriae is the causative agent of diphtheria, a bacterial infection characterized by the formation of a thick, grayish pseudomembrane over the tonsils, pharynx, or larynx. The pseudomembrane is composed of fibrin, dead cells, and inflammatory exudates. Attempting to remove the membrane may cause bleeding due to the underlying tissue’s vascular damage. This condition is highly infectious and can lead to airway obstruction and systemic complications due to toxin production.
The simplest reflex arcs, like the knee-jerk reflex, involve how many synapses between the sensory and motor neurons?
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A patient with an upper motor neuron lesion shows hyperreflexia when a knee-jerk reflex is performed. Which of the following types of reflex arc is involved in this reflex action?
The knee-jerk reflex (also called the patellar reflex) is a monosynaptic reflex arc, meaning it involves a direct connection between the sensory neuron and the motor neuron in the spinal cord. This reflex is mediated by muscle spindles in the quadriceps, which detect stretch and activate motor neurons to contract the muscle, producing the reflex.
In patients with upper motor neuron lesions, the inhibitory descending signals to the spinal reflex arc are impaired, resulting in hyperreflexia—an exaggerated response to the reflex.
This condition is most famously associated with patient H.M., who underwent bilateral hippocampal removal to treat epilepsy, resulting in profound difficulty forming new declarative memories.
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Which term describes the phenomenon observed in individuals who have undergone bilateral surgical removal of portions of the hippocampi, rendering them unable to form new memories?
Anterograde amnesia refers to the inability to form new memories after an injury or damage to specific brain regions, such as the hippocampi. The hippocampus is essential for the consolidation of short-term memories into long-term memories. Bilateral removal or damage to this region results in profound deficits in forming new declarative memories while often leaving previously stored memories (retrograde memory) intact.
Think of a self-limiting condition with acute onset and CSF findings of lymphocytic pleocytosis and normal glucose.
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A 38-year-old female presents with 24 hours of headache, photophobia, mild neck stiffness, and coryzal symptoms. She is fully oriented, and her observations are stable. CSF results show clear fluid with 23 cm H2O pressure. The WBCs are 150 cells/µL (primarily lymphocytes), glucose levels are normal, and protein levels are 90 mg/dL. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Viral meningitis is characterized by an acute onset of headache, fever, and neck stiffness. CSF findings typically include:
The symptoms and CSF analysis in this case, with predominantly lymphocytic pleocytosis, normal glucose, and elevated protein, strongly suggest viral meningitis.
HSV-1 meningitis often occurs as a complication of recurrent oropharyngeal HSV-1 infections, making reactivation more likely in older age groups.
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Which of the following demographic groups is most commonly affected by Herpes Simplex Virus Type 1 (HSV-1) causing meningitis?
HSV-1 is a common cause of viral meningitis, particularly in adolescents and middle-aged adults. This demographic is most frequently affected due to the reactivation of latent HSV-1 infection in the trigeminal ganglia or its spread during a primary infection. While HSV-1 is more commonly associated with encephalitis than meningitis, when it does cause meningitis, this age group is disproportionately affected.
This neurotransmitter functions predominantly by opening ionotropic receptors that allow Na+ and Ca2+ influx instead of affecting K+ conductance.
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Category: Neurosciences – Pharmacology
A decrease in K+ conductance is associated with neuronal excitation. Which of the following neurotransmitters does not follow this mechanism (decrease in K+ conductance)?
Glutamic acid (or glutamate) is the primary excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS. It mediates its excitatory effects primarily through the activation of ionotropic receptors (e.g., NMDA, AMPA receptors) that increase Na+ and Ca2+ influx, rather than through mechanisms involving a decrease in K+ conductance.
The thalamus is a derivative of the diencephalon.
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Thalamus is derived from:
The diencephalon (arrow B) gives rise to key structures like the thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus. These structures are critical for sensory relay, endocrine regulation, and other autonomic functions.
Think of the inhibitory neurotransmitter central to the basal ganglia pathways that is primarily responsible for motor control and is reduced in hyperkinetic disorders
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In Huntington’s disease, which of the following neurotransmitters is primarily decreased due to the degeneration of the striatum?
In Huntington’s disease, there is degeneration of the GABAergic neurons in the striatum (caudate and putamen). This leads to a significant reduction in GABA levels, which disrupts the indirect pathway of the basal ganglia, resulting in reduced inhibition of unwanted movements and the characteristic hyperkinetic motor symptoms (e.g., chorea).
responsible for voluntary motor control of limbs.
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Descending spinal tract formed by decussation of fibers in structure labelled by arrow E is
Arrow E points to the pyramids, where the decussation of corticospinal fibers forms the lateral corticospinal tract.
This imaging modality provides the best visualization of soft tissues and is non-invasive, making it the preferred choice for evaluating spinal nerve compression.
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A 54-year-old male presented to the Outpatient Department with a backache radiating to the right lower limb for four weeks. There is no history of trauma or fever. His x-ray lumbar spine done two weeks earlier was unremarkable. Which of the following radiological investigations will show spinal nerve compression?
MRI is the most sensitive and specific imaging modality for detecting spinal nerve compression. It provides detailed images of soft tissues, including intervertebral discs, nerve roots, and the spinal cord. MRI is particularly useful for diagnosing conditions such as herniated discs, spinal stenosis, and other pathologies that may lead to nerve compression.
Focus on a disease involving antibodies that block or reduce acetylcholine receptor availability at the neuromuscular junction.
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Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter that enables communication between muscles and nerves. Which of the following is a condition caused by an interruption in the interaction between acetylcholine and acetylcholine receptor sites on the muscles?
Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disease in which antibodies target acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction. This leads to a decrease in available receptors for acetylcholine, causing muscle weakness that worsens with activity and improves with rest.
Focus on the migratory cells derived from the ectoderm that contribute to both the nervous system and endocrine organs.
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The adrenal medulla is derived from the fourth germ layer. Which of the following is considered the fourth germ layer?
The adrenal medulla is derived from neural crest cells, which are sometimes referred to as the “fourth germ layer” because of their extensive migratory abilities and diverse differentiation potential. Neural crest cells give rise to a variety of structures, including:
This imaging modality is fast, widely available, and ideal for detecting fractures and internal bleeding in trauma cases.
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A 32-year-old male was brought to the Emergency Department with a history of loss of consciousness after a road traffic accident. What will be the first radiologic investigation of choice?
In cases of head trauma or loss of consciousness following a road traffic accident, Computed Tomography (CT) is the radiologic investigation of choice. CT scans provide rapid and detailed images of the brain and are essential for identifying life-threatening conditions like intracranial hemorrhages, fractures, or contusions. Its quick acquisition time and availability in emergency settings make it the preferred modality.
This vitamin plays a central role in amino acid metabolism and neurotransmitter synthesis.
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Which of the following is the function of vitamin B6?
Vitamin B6, in the form of pyridoxal phosphate (PLP), functions as a coenzyme in several biochemical reactions, particularly those involving amino acids. It is essential for:
Focus on the ventricular structure closest to the frontal lobe, as this region bears the brunt of the impact in frontal trauma.
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A patient came with a history of trauma to the frontal lobe due to a road accident. Investigation showed trauma to the ventricle as well. Which of the following parts of the ventricular system is more prone to injury in this case?
The anterior horn of the lateral ventricle is located in close proximity to the frontal lobe, making it particularly vulnerable to injury in cases of frontal lobe trauma. This is due to its anatomical location within the frontal region of the brain. Trauma to this area can lead to hemorrhage or contusions affecting the anterior horn.
Other parts of the ventricular system:
Focus on the fibers that convey sensory information to the granular layer of the cerebellum and synapse within the glomeruli.
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Which of the following fibers originate in the spinocerebellar tract and terminate on the glomeruli of the cerebellar cortex?
Mossy fibers are a major input to the cerebellum. They originate from various sources, including the spinocerebellar tract, and project to the cerebellar cortex. Specifically, they terminate in the glomeruli of the granular layer, where they synapse with granule cells. These fibers play a key role in conveying sensory and motor information to the cerebellum.
Other fibers mentioned have distinct roles:
Consider the hypothalamic nucleus responsible for suppressing hunger and promoting feelings of fullness. Satiety :- the quality or state of being fed or gratified to or beyond capacity
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A person with damage to a specific region of the hypothalamus experiences a complete lack of satiety during meals, leading to uncontrollable overeating and eventual obesity. Which nuclei within the hypothalamus are most likely to be affected in this individual?
The ventromedial nuclei (VMN) of the hypothalamus are often referred to as the “satiety center.” Damage to this region results in a loss of satiety signals, leading to hyperphagia (excessive eating) and obesity. The VMN regulates food intake by responding to hormonal signals like leptin and insulin.
Focus on the physical properties of nerve fibers, such as their size and how fast they transmit signals, which differentiate A, B, and C types.
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On which of the following basis are nerve fiber types A, B, and C primarily classified?
Nerve fibers are classified into A, B, and C types based on their conduction velocity (speed of signal transmission) and fiber diameter:
Focus on the motor and sensory regions of the medial surface that are supplied by the anterior cerebral artery and control the lower limb.
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After being found unconscious, a patient was admitted to the hospital. On investigation, there was an infarction involving the medial surface of the cerebral hemisphere. Which of the following areas could be affected in this case?
The paracentral lobule is located on the medial surface of the cerebral hemisphere and includes portions of the primary motor and primary sensory cortices responsible for the lower limbs. An infarction affecting the medial surface of the hemisphere, commonly due to occlusion of the anterior cerebral artery (ACA), would impair this region. Symptoms may include contralateral weakness or sensory deficits in the lower limb.
Consider the vitamin most commonly associated with chronic alcohol use and its role in peripheral nerve health.
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A 55-year-old female presents to the emergency department with bilateral foot pain, which she describes as a burning pain. She also has mild numbness in both feet, especially her toes. She admits to drinking about 12 glasses of beer a day. Her vitals are within the normal range. Upon physical examination, both of her feet demonstrate diminished sensation to pinprick. A primary cause of this patient’s condition is a deficiency of which of the following vitamins?
This patient presents with symptoms consistent with peripheral neuropathy, likely due to alcohol-related thiamine deficiency. Chronic alcohol use impairs thiamine absorption, storage, and utilization, leading to neurological symptoms, including burning pain, numbness, and diminished sensation, particularly in a stocking-glove distribution.
Focus on the region of the brain responsible for motor planning and articulation of speech.
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A 55-year-old female on her recovery from a recent stroke experienced difficulty in speech. She can write the words, and understand their meanings, but is unable to produce words. The affected area of the brain producing these symptoms is present in which of the following gyrus of the cerebral cortex?
The symptoms described are characteristic of Broca’s aphasia, which results from damage to Broca’s area in the inferior frontal gyrus of the dominant hemisphere (usually the left hemisphere). This area is responsible for motor aspects of speech production. Patients with Broca’s aphasia have intact comprehension and can write but are unable to produce fluent speech.
Focus on the duration of symptoms (three months) and the lack of alternating manic or psychotic episodes. This aligns with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder.
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A 42-year-old male visits a primary healthcare center with complaints of feeling sad, irritable, empty, and crying often for three months. He has lost interest in activities and finds it very difficult to carry out daily activities. He feels he is better off dead. Which one of the following is the most likely mental disorder that he is suffering from?
The patient’s symptoms, including persistent sadness, irritability, feelings of emptiness, crying spells, loss of interest in activities, and difficulty performing daily tasks, along with suicidal ideation, strongly suggest major depressive disorder (MDD). Depression often involves significant impairment in social, occupational, or other areas of functioning.
Focus on the cranial nerves specifically associated with eye movement and their pathways through the superior orbital fissure.
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A 49-year-old patient is diagnosed with a benign tumor in the orbit which is compressing a structure that runs through the superior orbital fissure. Which of the following nerves would most likely be compressed?
The superior orbital fissure is a key opening in the skull that allows passage of several cranial nerves and vessels into the orbit. Among the nerves passing through it are:
The abducent nerve (CN VI) is particularly prone to compression due to its location. It innervates the lateral rectus muscle, responsible for abduction of the eye. Compression of this nerve could result in diplopia (double vision) due to impaired lateral movement of the eye.
Other nerves mentioned:
Think about how cerebrospinal fluid is removed from the brain.
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Which of the following factors primarily determines the pressure of cerebrospinal fluid within the intracranial space?
Reabsorption rate of CSF is the primary factor that determines intracranial pressure.
The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) pressure is mainly determined by the absorption of the CSF through the arachnoid villi. The rate of CSF production is almost the same. The arachnoid villi act like valves that allow CSF to move into the venous sinuses when the pressure in the CSF rises 1.5 mm Hg higher than the pressure in the venous sinuses. The valves open more widely when the pressure is even greater.
Consider the receptor that requires both presynaptic glutamate release and postsynaptic depolarization to activate, playing a central role in calcium-dependent synaptic changes.
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Which neurotransmitter receptor subtype is primarily responsible for mediating the long-term potentiation (LTP) observed in synaptic plasticity?
NMDA receptors are glutamate receptors that play a critical role in synaptic plasticity and long-term potentiation (LTP), which are key mechanisms underlying learning and memory. NMDA receptors are unique because they require both glutamate binding and postsynaptic depolarization to relieve their magnesium block, allowing calcium ions to enter the neuron. This calcium influx triggers intracellular signaling pathways that strengthen synaptic connections.
Post-ganglionic fibers are typically unmyelinated, making them slower than preganglionic fibers.
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Which of the following nerve fiber types carries post-ganglionic autonomic signals to cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, and glands?
Type C fibers are small-diameter, unmyelinated fibers that carry post-ganglionic autonomic signals to cardiac muscle, smooth muscle, and glands. These fibers have the slowest conduction velocity due to the lack of myelination. They are responsible for transmitting autonomic functions such as regulating heart rate and glandular secretion.
Think of the mechanism where touch, such as rubbing an area after injury, can reduce the sensation of pain.
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According to the gate control theory of pain modulation, which of the following is caused by the stimulation of large-diameter Aβ fibers?
The gate control theory of pain suggests that the activation of large-diameter Aβ fibers, which are responsible for transmitting touch and pressure, can inhibit the transmission of pain signals carried by small-diameter C fibers and Aδ fibers. This occurs at the level of the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, where Aβ fibers stimulate inhibitory interneurons, effectively “closing the gate” to pain signals, thereby decreasing pain perception.
Think of involuntary, rapid, and unpredictable movements associated with basal ganglia damage, especially in Huntington’s disease.
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Which of the following types of movements occur due to multiple small lesions in the putamen nucleus that lead to flicking movements in the hands, face, and other parts of the body?
Chorea refers to involuntary, irregular, and unpredictable movements that can affect the hands, face, or other parts of the body. These movements are often caused by lesions in the putamen or other parts of the basal ganglia. Huntington’s disease is a classic example where chorea is a prominent symptom.
Consider the interaction between climbing fibers and Purkinje cells in modifying motor output during motor learning.
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How does the cerebellum refine muscle contraction timing and precision during learning?
The cerebellum plays a crucial role in motor learning by refining muscle contraction timing and precision. Climbing fibers synapse onto Purkinje cells and modify their sensitivity through a process called long-term depression (LTD). This adaptation allows the cerebellum to fine-tune the motor commands sent to the muscles, improving coordination and precision during learning.
The basal ganglia structure that receives cortical excitatory inputs is responsible for initiating and modulating its activity.
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Which of the following structures is considered the input nucleus of the basal ganglia?
The striatum (composed of the caudate nucleus and putamen) is the input nucleus of the basal ganglia. It receives excitatory input primarily from the cerebral cortex (corticostriatal pathway) and the thalamus. The striatum processes these inputs and sends inhibitory signals to the globus pallidus interna (GPi) and externa (GPe), as well as to the substantia nigra pars reticulata (SNr), to regulate motor output.
Focus on the role of GI in reducing intracellular signaling
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Which of the following functions is performed by GI protein-coupled metabotropic receptors?
Gi protein-coupled receptors are a subtype of G-protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs) that, when activated, inhibit adenylyl cyclase. This leads to a decrease in the production of cyclic AMP (cAMP), which is an important second messenger in cellular signaling. Gi protein signaling is often involved in inhibitory pathways, such as those mediated by alpha-2 adrenergic receptors and certain dopamine receptors.
Well, Thank you for hoping for a hint on this one buddy.
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Major output site of basal nuclei
The globus pallidus (label E) sends inhibitory signals to the thalamus and other regions of the brain, controlling motor function.
Consider what needs to happen to stop a movement. How do muscles work in pairs to control movement?
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What is the typical function of the cerebellum in motor movement initiation and termination?
The cerebellum plays a critical role in the coordination and fine-tuning of motor movements. It that agonist muscles are activated while antagonist muscles are appropriately inhibited, allowing for fluid and precise movements. The cerebellum turns off the agonist and turns on the antagonist at termination as well as helping in coordination and control of motor movements. To aid this function cerebellum provide alternating on and off signals to the agonist and antagonist muscles. During initiation cerebellum sends turn-on signals to the agonist muscle and turn-off signals to the antagonist muscles. opposingly, at the termination of the movement it sends turn-on signals to the antagonist muscles and turn-off signals to the agonist muscles.
CMV is particularly dangerous for neonates and those with weakened immune systems. Look for terms like “microcephaly” and “periventricular calcification” as hallmark signs of congenital CMV infection.
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In which of the following population groups does cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection of the nervous system primarily occur, and what are the typical outcomes?
CMV is a member of the herpesvirus family and has a unique epidemiology depending on the host population:
Think about the neurotransmitter that plays a key role in promoting sleep and relaxation. Which brain nuclei are the major source of this neurotransmitter?
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Which area of the brain is primarily associated with the production of natural sleep, and its stimulation results in sleep-like characteristics?
The Raphe nuclei are important for sleep regulation, specifically in the production of serotonin, which plays a significant role in sleep initiation (primary) and maintenance.
The initial step in crisis intervention is to create a connection that facilitates open communication, ensuring the person feels supported and understood.
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A 25-year-old woman, Emily, has recently experienced a traumatic event resulting in acute distress and emotional upheaval. She is struggling to cope with the overwhelming emotions and is displaying signs of anxiety and agitation. According to the ACT Model, what is the primary focus during the assessment phase of crisis intervention?
In the assessment phase of the ACT (Assessment, Crisis Intervention, Trauma Treatment) Model, the primary focus is to establish a therapeutic alliance and rapport with the individual. This step is crucial for building trust and creating a safe space for the person to communicate their feelings and experiences. Establishing rapport allows the therapist or interventionist to gather critical information and lay the foundation for effective crisis intervention.
Focus on the nerve originating in the medulla oblongata that affects the muscles used in swallowing and voice modulation.
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A 55-year-old woman presents with difficulty swallowing and hoarseness of voice. She also complains of choking while drinking fluids. MRI reveals a tumor involving the medulla oblongata. Which of the following cranial nerves is most likely affected?
The vagus nerve (cranial nerve X) originates in the medulla oblongata and is involved in controlling muscles of the pharynx, larynx, and soft palate, which are essential for swallowing and phonation (voice production). Damage to this nerve can cause:
is a prominent bulge on the medulla oblongata caused by the nucleus, which is involved in motor coordination.
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Underlying nuclei responsible for formation of the structure labelled by arrow D is
Arrow D points to the olive, which is associated with the inferior olivary nucleus.
Think about the structures responsible for transferring CSF from the subarachnoid space into the venous system
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An 8-month-old infant was brought to the pediatrician with a complaint of falling from bed. After examination and investigation, a diagnosis of increased intracranial pressure was made due to involvement of projections of the meninges responsible for the diffusion of cerebrospinal fluid into the bloodstream. Which of the following are involved projections of meninges?v
Arachnoid villi (and their larger aggregates called arachnoid granulations) are projections of the arachnoid mater into the dural venous sinuses. They are responsible for the absorption of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) into the venous bloodstream. Dysfunction or blockage of these structures can lead to increased intracranial pressure, as CSF accumulation builds up in the ventricles or subarachnoid space.
Consider the type of pain associated with abnormal nerve processing and sensitivity to non-painful stimuli.
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A 45-year-old male was diagnosed to have increased sensitivity to pain without major tissue damage. He complained that even the touch of cloth is painful to him. Which one of the following types of pain is he suffering from?
Neuropathic pain occurs as a result of damage to or dysfunction of the nerves that transmit pain signals. In this case, the patient experiences allodynia, where even non-painful stimuli, such as the touch of a cloth, are perceived as painful. This is a hallmark feature of neuropathic pain.
Consider the location of the fluid collection. Is it more likely to be located between the dura mater and the skull or between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater . The microscopic presentation is something to focus on too.
This condition often follows infections like otitis media or sinusitis and requires surgical drainage.
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A 45-year-old man with a history of chronic otitis media presents with fever, severe headaches, and left-sided weakness. Imaging demonstrates a lentiform-shaped, fluid collection causing midline shift. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (Disputed Question)
While the lentiform-shaped fluid collection is a classic imaging descriptor for epidural abscess, the clinical context of fever, otitis media, midline shift, and focal neurological deficits makes subdural empyema the most likely diagnosis.
If the imaging descriptor is strictly adhered to, an epidural abscess could be considered. However, this is less likely given the aggressive presentation and the history favoring subdural spread. The question may intentionally blur the imaging description to challenge reasoning based on the clinical picture.
Focus on the receptor type located in the fingertips that detects subtle changes in texture or motion and adapts rapidly.
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Which of the following touch receptors is known for its exceptional sensitivity to movement and low-frequency vibration?
Meissner’s corpuscles are specialized mechanoreceptors located in the dermal papillae of the skin, especially in areas of high tactile sensitivity like the fingertips and lips. They are rapidly adapting receptors that are highly sensitive to movement and low-frequency vibrations (30–50 Hz). They help detect changes in texture and motion across the skin.
Focus on the outermost layer of the cerebral cortex, known for its sparse neuronal content and rare specialized horizontal cells.
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Concerning the microscopic anatomy of the cerebral cortex, in which of the following layers are the horizontal cells mostly present?
The molecular layer (Layer I) of the cerebral cortex is the outermost layer. It contains few neurons and is predominantly composed of horizontal cells of Cajal, along with dendritic and axonal processes. These horizontal cells are rare and involved in modulating cortical activity.
Other layers:
Think of the nucleus responsible for mechanoreception and fine sensory details like touch and pressure in the trigeminal nerve pathway.
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Which of the following nuclei of the trigeminal nerve is responsible for receiving touch and pressure sensations from the face?
The main sensory nucleus of the trigeminal nerve (also known as the principal sensory nucleus) is located in the pons and is primarily responsible for processing touch and pressure sensations from the face. It receives input from mechanoreceptors and relays this information to higher centers, such as the thalamus.
This aspect of emotional intelligence emphasizes effective communication and conflict resolution to maintain positive interactions.
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Alex is frustrated with his colleague, Emily, for constantly interrupting him during team meetings. He finds it challenging to express his concerns without coming across as confrontational. Which aspect of emotional intelligence is Alex in most need of to handle this situation effectively?
Relationship management is the ability to build and maintain healthy relationships through effective communication and conflict resolution. In this scenario, Alex needs to address his frustrations constructively and foster a positive working relationship with Emily. This requires skills such as active listening, assertive communication, and conflict resolution, which fall under relationship management.
Think about the cerebellum’s role in initiating movements with proper timing and coordination, and what happens when that role is disrupted.
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What is the consequence of the absence of cerebellar support in the motor system during movement initiation?
The cerebellum plays a vital role in planning, timing, and initiating movements. Without cerebellar support, there is a lack of proper coordination and synchronization between motor signals, leading to a delay in movement initiation. This is because the cerebellum ensures accurate timing and appropriate activation of motor neurons controlling the agonist and antagonist muscles.
The medulla oblongata is a derivative of the myelencephalon.
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Medulla Oblongata is derived from:
The myelencephalon (arrow E) is the most caudal part of the hindbrain. It forms the medulla oblongata, which is essential for autonomic functions like heart rate, respiration, and reflex actions.
C-shaped structure with distinct regions.
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Structure having head, body, and tail
The caudate nucleus (label C) has a head, body, and tail and is involved in motor regulation and some cognitive processes.
This diagnosis is suggested by lymphocyte predominance in CSF combined with normal glucose and systemic viral symptoms like rash and fever.
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A 33-year-old woman with a diffuse macular rash presents with headache, fever, and neck stiffness. CSF analysis reveals lymphocytic pleocytosis, normal glucose, and slightly elevated protein. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Viral meningitis is characterized by:
The side of the body showing motor symptoms is opposite to the side of the brain affected in Parkinson’s disease. Focus on the role of the substantia nigra in dopaminergic signaling.
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A 62-year-old man has been diagnosed with Parkinson’s disease after the neurological examination revealed a resting tremor of the left hand, slow gait, and lack of the normal range of facial expression. Which of the following is the most likely location of the degenerative changes?
Parkinson’s disease is caused by the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra pars compacta, which is part of the basal ganglia. This degeneration leads to reduced dopamine in the striatum, disrupting motor control and causing symptoms like tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia.
Since motor pathways are contralateral, symptoms affecting the left side of the body (e.g., resting tremor in the left hand) point to a lesion or degeneration in the right substantia nigra.
This vitamin plays a pivotal role in energy metabolism, which is essential for producing precursors required for neurotransmitter synthesis.
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Which of the following vitamins is required for the synthesis of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine?
Thiamine (vitamin B1) is required for the synthesis of acetylcholine, as it is involved in the production of acetyl-CoA, a precursor in acetylcholine synthesis. Acetyl-CoA is generated during carbohydrate metabolism and provides the acetyl group for acetylcholine formation in neurons.
This neurotransmitter is heavily associated with the raphe nuclei and is a target for many treatments for mood disorders, including SSRIs. It is often termed the “feel-good” chemical.
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This transmitter is mostly located in diffuse neuronal systems in the CNS, with cell bodies, particularly in the raphe nuclei. It appears to play a major role in the expression of mood states, and many antidepressant drugs are thought to increase its functional activity.
Serotonin is a neurotransmitter that plays a critical role in mood regulation, sleep, appetite, and emotional well-being. The raphe nuclei, located in the brainstem, are the primary source of serotonin production in the CNS. Antidepressant drugs, such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), work by increasing serotonin availability at synaptic junctions, thereby enhancing its activity and alleviating symptoms of depression.
Woop di doo.
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Main input site of basal nuclei
The neostriatum (label B), including the caudate nucleus and putamen, receives cortical and thalamic inputs, acting as the basal ganglia’s main input site.
Focus on the glial cells specific to the CNS that are responsible for forming myelin, as opposed to those in the PNS.
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Which of the following statements is appropriate about myelination of the brain?
In the central nervous system (CNS), the process of myelination is performed by oligodendrocytes, which wrap their membranes around axons to form the myelin sheath. This myelination enhances the speed and efficiency of electrical signal transmission.
The visible elevations are paired and aligned along the body axis, contributing to the vertebrae and skeletal muscles.
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The age of 5 weeks was estimated in an aborted embryo by counting the elevations on its body. What are the surface elevations on the body of the embryo called?
Somites are paired, segmental blocks of mesoderm that appear along the developing embryo’s body axis during weeks 3–5 of development. These structures are visible as surface elevations and play a crucial role in forming the vertebrae, ribs, and skeletal muscles. The number of somites is often used to estimate the developmental age of the embryo.
The cerebrum originates from the telencephalon, the most anterior vesicle.
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Cerebrum is derived from:
The telencephalon (arrow A) develops into the cerebral hemispheres, which include the cortex, basal ganglia, and limbic system. These structures govern higher cognitive functions, voluntary motor control, and sensory integration.
Focus on the sensory pathway responsible for transmitting pain and temperature information to the brain.
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A 35-year-old woman sustains a traumatic injury to the T8 level of her spinal cord. She presents with loss of pain and temperature sensation below the level of the injury but preserved touch and proprioceptive sensations. Which of the following pathways is most likely affected?
The anterolateral pathway (also known as the spinothalamic tract) carries pain, temperature, and crude touch sensations from the periphery to the brain. Damage to this pathway results in a loss of pain and temperature sensations below the level of the spinal cord injury.
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