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GIT – 2023
Questions from The 2023 Module + Annual Exam of GIT and Liver
Think: Which part of the GIT receives both bile and pancreatic enzymes — the key players in fat digestion?
1 / 100
Category:
GIT – Physiology
A 45-year-old recently divorced woman visits her primary care physician with complaints of recurrent abdominal pain, bloating, and occasional heartburn for the past six months. She reports that the pain tends to occur after meals and is relieved by antacids. She also mentions that she has been experiencing an increased appetite lately and has gained a few pounds over the last few months.
The physician ordered a series of tests, including a complete blood count, and a gastric secretion analysis. The results of the gastric secretion analysis reveal a markedly elevated gastric acid output. An upper GI endoscopy was performed revealing gastric ulcer, and tissue was taken from the cardiac region of the organ for biopsy.
Where in GIT the most of the fat digestion is accomplished?
Esophagus ❌ – Only transports food; no role in fat digestion.
Stomach ❌ – Gastric lipase does a little fat breakdown, but minimal (~10–15%).
Colon ❌ – No digestion; mainly water and electrolyte absorption.
Small intestine ✅ – The primary site:
Pancreatic lipase hydrolyzes triglycerides → monoglycerides + free fatty acids.
Bile salts emulsify fat → form micelles → facilitate absorption.
Occurs mainly in the duodenum and jejunum .
Think: Chronic H. pylori infection doesn’t just cause ulcers — it can stimulate lymphoid tissue in the stomach, leading to a unique lymphoma .
2 / 100
Category:
GIT – Pathology
A 45-year-old recently divorced woman visits her primary care physician with complaints of recurrent abdominal pain, bloating, and occasional heartburn for the past six months. She reports that the pain tends to occur after meals and is relieved by antacids. She also mentions that she has been experiencing an increased appetite lately and has gained a few pounds over the last few months.
The physician ordered a series of tests, including a complete blood count, and a gastric secretion analysis. The results of the gastric secretion analysis reveal a markedly elevated gastric acid output. An upper GI endoscopy was performed revealing gastric ulcer, and tissue was taken from the cardiac region of the organ for biopsy.
Which of the following may be a complication of H. pylori infection?
Helicobacter pylori infection → chronic gastritis → prolonged stimulation of gastric mucosa and lymphoid tissue.
This chronic antigenic stimulation can lead to:
Interestingly, early H. pylori –associated MALT lymphomas may regress with eradication therapy .
Why the others are wrong Acute lymphoblastic leukemia ❌ – Hematologic malignancy, not linked to H. pylori.
Aplastic anemia ❌ – Bone marrow failure, unrelated.
Giardiasis ❌ – Caused by Giardia lamblia , not related to H. pylori.
MALT lymphoma ✅ – Strong, well-established association.
Ulcerative colitis ❌ – Idiopathic IBD, not linked to H. pylori.
Think: The only way to be absolutely sure of H. pylori is to look at the stomach tissue itself .
3 / 100
Category:
GIT – Pathology
A 45-year-old recently divorced woman visits her primary care physician with complaints of recurrent abdominal pain, bloating, and occasional heartburn for the past six months. She reports that the pain tends to occur after meals and is relieved by antacids. She also mentions that she has been experiencing an increased appetite lately and has gained a few pounds over the last few months.
The physician ordered a series of tests, including a complete blood count, and a gastric secretion analysis. The results of the gastric secretion analysis reveal a markedly elevated gastric acid output. An upper GI endoscopy was performed revealing gastric ulcer, and tissue was taken from the cardiac region of the organ for biopsy.
What diagnostic test is the gold standard to confirm H. pylori infection?
The gold standard for confirming Helicobacter pylori infection is gastric biopsy obtained during endoscopy , followed by:
Histopathology (direct visualization of organisms + inflammation),
Rapid urease test (CLO test) , or
Culture/PCR for H. pylori.
It allows direct confirmation of the bacteria in the stomach lining.
Why the others are wrong Breath test ❌ – Urea breath test is highly accurate, non-invasive, and often first-line clinically, but it’s not the gold standard .
CBC ❌ – May show anemia, but nonspecific.
Gastric biopsy ✅ – Direct evidence, definitive.
Stool culture ❌ – Not routinely used; stool antigen test is good, but culture is difficult and not standard.
Urinalysis ❌ – No role in H. pylori diagnosis.
Think: At the gastroesophageal junction, you need more mucus for protection. .
4 / 100
Category:
GIT – Histology
A 45-year-old recently divorced woman visits her primary care physician with complaints of recurrent abdominal pain, bloating, and occasional heartburn for the past six months. She reports that the pain tends to occur after meals and is relieved by antacids. She also mentions that she has been experiencing an increased appetite lately and has gained a few pounds over the last few months.
The physician ordered a series of tests, including a complete blood count, and a gastric secretion analysis. The results of the gastric secretion analysis reveal a markedly elevated gastric acid output. An upper GI endoscopy was performed revealing gastric ulcer, and tissue was taken from the cardiac region of the organ for biopsy.
The region from where the biopsy was taken shows which of the following histological feature ?
Case recap Biopsy was from the cardiac region of the stomach.
Each region (cardiac, fundic, pyloric) has a characteristic pit-to-gland ratio .
Histological feature of cardiac region The gastric pits in the cardia are deeper compared to the fundus/body.
The glands are relatively shorter, composed mostly of mucous cells .
Thus, in the cardia, pits are deeper .
✅ Correct Answer Pits are deeper
Why the others are wrong Pits occupy 1/3 of mucosa ❌ – That’s the fundic/body region .
Glands occupy 2/3 of mucosa ❌ – Also typical of fundic/body region .
Pit and gland ratio is equal ❌ – Not in the cardia; this fits more with pyloric region .
Pits are deeper ✅ – Correct for cardiac region .
Pits are shallow ❌ – That describes the fundic region .
Think: The cardiac glands only make mucus and protective secretions. Which enzyme-secreting cell of the fundus/body is missing here?
5 / 100
Category:
GIT – Histology
A 45-year-old recently divorced woman visits her primary care physician with complaints of recurrent abdominal pain, bloating, and occasional heartburn for the past six months. She reports that the pain tends to occur after meals and is relieved by antacids. She also mentions that she has been experiencing an increased appetite lately and has gained a few pounds over the last few months.
The physician ordered a series of tests, including a complete blood count, and a gastric secretion analysis. The results of the gastric secretion analysis reveal a markedly elevated gastric acid output. An upper GI endoscopy was performed revealing gastric ulcer, and tissue was taken from the cardiac region of the organ for biopsy.
The glands present in the region from where biopsy was taken are devoid of which of the following cells?
Case recap Histology of cardiac glands Cell types present :
Mucous cells → secrete mucus for protection at GE junction.
Enteroendocrine cells → scattered, secrete hormones.
Stem cells → for regeneration.
Mucous neck cells → can be present in small numbers.
Cell types absent :
Chief cells → normally in the fundus and body , secrete pepsinogen.
Parietal cells → also predominantly in fundus/body, much fewer in cardia.
Thus, the cardiac glands are essentially devoid of chief cells .
✅ Correct Answer Chief
Why the others are wrong Enteroendocrine ❌ – Present in all gastric regions, including cardia.
Parietal ❌ – Abundant in fundus/body, rare in cardia but not completely absent.
Stem ❌ – Present for epithelial renewal.
Mucous neck ❌ – Present, help in mucus secretion.
Chief ✅ – Absent in cardiac glands.
Think: The stomach’s first line of defense is its epithelial lining. Which cells coat the entire gastric surface with mucus to protect it from acid?
6 / 100
Category:
GIT – Histology
A 45-year-old recently divorced woman visits her primary care physician with complaints of recurrent abdominal pain, bloating, and occasional heartburn for the past six months. She reports that the pain tends to occur after meals and is relieved by antacids. She also mentions that she has been experiencing an increased appetite lately and has gained a few pounds over the last few months.
The physician ordered a series of tests, including a complete blood count, and a gastric secretion analysis. The results of the gastric secretion analysis reveal a markedly elevated gastric acid output. An upper GI endoscopy was performed revealing gastric ulcer, and tissue was taken from the cardiac region of the organ for biopsy.
The structure examined on endoscopy contains which type of cell forming its epithelium ?
Case link On upper GI endoscopy , the structure examined = stomach (cardiac region biopsy, gastric ulcer).
The epithelium of the stomach (fundus, body, cardia, antrum) is lined by simple columnar cells , whose main job is to secrete mucus and protect the gastric mucosa from autodigestion.
These are called surface mucous cells .
✅ Correct Answer Surface mucus
Why not the others Enterocytes ❌ – Absorptive cells of small intestine, not stomach.
Mucous neck cells ❌ – Found in gastric glands, secrete mucus, but not forming the surface lining .
Paneth cells ❌ – Found at the base of small intestinal crypts (antimicrobial function).
Parietal cells ❌ – Secrete HCl and intrinsic factor, located deeper in glands, not the epithelial surface lining.
Surface mucous cells ✅ – Line the gastric surface & pits, secrete alkaline mucus for protection.
Think: Which common lifestyle habit is notorious for worsening ulcers and stimulating acid secretion , often taught as a classic risk factor in GI pathology?
7 / 100
Category:
GIT – Community Medicine/Behavioral Sciences
A 45-year-old recently divorced woman visits her primary care physician with complaints of recurrent abdominal pain, bloating, and occasional heartburn for the past six months. She reports that the pain tends to occur after meals and is relieved by antacids. She also mentions that she has been experiencing an increased appetite lately and has gained a few pounds over the last few months.
The physician ordered a series of tests, including a complete blood count, and a gastric secretion analysis. The results of the gastric secretion analysis reveal a markedly elevated gastric acid output. An upper GI endoscopy was performed revealing gastric ulcer, and tissue was taken from the cardiac region of the organ for biopsy.
Which lifestyle factor is associated with an increased risk of elevated gastric acid production and may be relevant to the patient’s case?
Smoking is a well-established lifestyle factor that:
Stimulates gastric acid secretion .
Impairs mucosal blood flow and healing .
Increases risk of peptic ulcer disease and delays ulcer healing.
In someone with elevated gastric acid output + gastric ulcer , smoking is highly relevant.
Other options:
Regular exercise ❌ – Generally protective for health, no link with acid hypersecretion.
Vegan diet ❌ – Not directly linked to excess gastric acid production.
Adequate sleep ❌ – Restorative, not a risk factor.
Low-stress job ❌ – Stress can sometimes worsen ulcers, but a low-stress job reduces risk.
Think: Since a biopsy sample from endoscopy is already available, which test gives the most direct evidence of H. pylori ?
8 / 100
Category:
GIT – Radiology/Medicine
A 45-year-old recently divorced woman visits her primary care physician with complaints of recurrent abdominal pain, bloating, and occasional heartburn for the past six months. She reports that the pain tends to occur after meals and is relieved by antacids. She also mentions that she has been experiencing an increased appetite lately and has gained a few pounds over the last few months.
The physician ordered a series of tests, including a complete blood count, and a gastric secretion analysis. The results of the gastric secretion analysis reveal a markedly elevated gastric acid output. An upper GI endoscopy was performed revealing gastric ulcer, and tissue was taken from the cardiac region of the organ for biopsy.
What diagnostic test should be prioritized to confirm or rule out Helicobacter pylori infection as a potential cause of her symptoms?
Since she already underwent endoscopy for her ulcer, the next step is to test biopsy samples for H. pylori .
This is the most direct and confirmatory method when endoscopy is already being done.
Other options:
Hydrogen breath test ❌ – Used for carbohydrate malabsorption (like lactose intolerance), not H. pylori .
Complete blood count (CBC) ❌ – Can show anemia but not specific for H. pylori .
Stool culture ❌ – Not practical; stool antigen test is used, but culture is rarely done.
Urinalysis ❌ – No role in H. pylori diagnosis.
Think: Which rare tumor “steps on the accelerator” of acid secretion by flooding the stomach with gastrin, leading to recurrent ulcers?
9 / 100
Category:
GIT – Pathology
A 45-year-old recently divorced woman visits her primary care physician with complaints of recurrent abdominal pain, bloating, and occasional heartburn for the past six months. She reports that the pain tends to occur after meals and is relieved by antacids. She also mentions that she has been experiencing an increased appetite lately and has gained a few pounds over the last few months.
The physician ordered a series of tests, including a complete blood count, and a gastric secretion analysis. The results of the gastric secretion analysis reveal a markedly elevated gastric acid output. An upper GI endoscopy was performed revealing gastric ulcer, and tissue was taken from the cardiac region of the organ for biopsy.
Which pathological condition is commonly associated with increased gastric acid secretion and may cause symptoms similar to those described by the patient?
Zollinger–Ellison Syndrome (ZES) is caused by a gastrinoma (gastrin-secreting tumor, usually in pancreas or duodenum).
Gastrin → strongly stimulates parietal cells → massive gastric acid hypersecretion .
Clinical features:
Recurrent, intractable ulcers (often multiple).
Abdominal pain, heartburn, diarrhea, malabsorption.
Elevated basal and maximal acid output on gastric secretion analysis.
This fits best with the patient’s markedly elevated gastric acid output + ulcer symptoms .
Why the others are wrong Celiac disease ❌ – Malabsorption with diarrhea, weight loss, not acid hypersecretion.
Gallstones ❌ – RUQ colicky pain, not linked to gastric acid output.
IBS ❌ – Functional bowel disorder, normal acid secretion.
Pancreatic cancer ❌ – Causes weight loss, jaundice, pain radiating to back, not high gastric acid.
Zollinger–Ellison Syndrome ✅ – Directly causes excess acid secretion + ulcer disease .
Think: Which physiological “switch” normally regulates acid secretion — and when it’s stuck in the ON position, parietal cells pump out much more acid than usual?
10 / 100
Category:
GIT – Physiology
A 45-year-old recently divorced woman visits her primary care physician with complaints of recurrent abdominal pain, bloating, and occasional heartburn for the past six months. She reports that the pain tends to occur after meals and is relieved by antacids. She also mentions that she has been experiencing an increased appetite lately and has gained a few pounds over the last few months.
The physician ordered a series of tests, including a complete blood count, and a gastric secretion analysis. The results of the gastric secretion analysis reveal a markedly elevated gastric acid output. An upper GI endoscopy was performed revealing gastric ulcer, and tissue was taken from the cardiac region of the organ for biopsy.
What is the most likely physiological factor contributing to patient’s elevated gastric acid output?
The most important physiological driver of elevated gastric acid secretion is hormonal regulation , especially gastrin .
In gastric ulcer disease:
H. pylori infection reduces somatostatin → leads to unchecked gastrin secretion → ↑ parietal cell stimulation → excess HCl output .
Other hormones like histamine (from ECL cells) and acetylcholine (vagal stimulation) amplify the effect, but gastrin dysregulation is the key hormonal factor.
Why the others are less likely Dietary habits ❌ – Can aggravate symptoms but don’t directly cause persistently elevated gastric acid output.
GERD ❌ – A consequence of acid reflux, not the cause of increased secretion.
Medication use ❌ – NSAIDs cause ulcers, but via mucosal damage, not by directly raising gastric acid output.
Stress ❌ – Can modestly increase acid, but not to the level of markedly elevated output described here.
Hormonal changes ✅ – Most direct explanation: hypergastrinemia driving acid hypersecretion.
Think: When someone struggling with self-worth is recognized and praised , does their confidence sink, stay the same, or rise?
11 / 100
Category:
GIT – Community Medicine/Behavioral Sciences
A high school student has always struggled with her self-esteem. She always feels like she’s not as talented or smart as her classmates. One day, her teacher praises her for her exceptional effort on a difficult project. The student starts feeling more confident and motivated to excel in her studies. What is the likely impact of the teacher’s praise on the student’s self-esteem?
Case clues Student already has low self-esteem , feels “not as talented or smart.”
Teacher praises her for exceptional effort on a tough project.
As a result → she feels more confident and motivated .
✅ Correct Answer It would boost her self-esteem
Explanation Why the others are wrong Lower her self-esteem further ❌ – Praise increases confidence, not decreases it.
Make her less self-conscious ❌ – She might still be self-aware, but the main effect is confidence, not just reduced self-consciousness.
Make her more self-conscious ❌ – That would be criticism, not praise.
Have no effect ❌ – The scenario clearly shows she becomes more motivated and confident.
Think: Once the basic needs and relationships are secure, the next step is not survival or safety, but striving to become the best version of yourself .
12 / 100
Category:
GIT – Community Medicine/Behavioral Sciences
A college student has a close-knit group of friends and a supportive family. He has a stable living situation and enough food to eat. He is actively involved in various extracurricular activities and is always seeking personal growth opportunities. Which needs from ‘Marlow’s hierarchy of needs’ is the student likely working to fulfill through his involvement in extracurricular activities and personal growth pursuits?
Case breakdown In Maslow’s hierarchy of needs :
Physiological needs
Safety needs
Love and belongingness
Self-esteem (confidence, recognition, achievement)
Self-actualization (realizing personal potential, growth, creativity)
The description (personal growth, maximizing potential) best fits self-actualization .
✅ Correct Answer Self-actualization
Why not the others Physiological needs ❌ – Already satisfied (food, shelter).
Love and belongingness needs ❌ – Already fulfilled with friends & family.
Safety needs ❌ – Already stable.
Self-esteem needs ❌ – Extracurriculars may boost esteem, but the key phrase “personal growth opportunities ” points higher → self-actualization.
Think: When ALT/AST shoot above 1000 , which condition do you immediately suspect in a jaundiced patient?
13 / 100
Category:
GIT – Radiology/Medicine
Eight months pregnant female presented with one week history of yellow discoloration of skin, sclera, along with fever, and vomiting. Her liver function test is as follows:
What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?
Case summary Pregnant (8 months) woman.
Symptoms : Jaundice (yellow skin & sclera), fever, vomiting.
Labs :
Very high ALT (1236) & AST (900) → hepatocellular injury pattern.
High bilirubin (total 11.4, direct 9.7).
Mildly raised ALP (432) & GGT (155) → some cholestasis, but not predominant.
Stepwise reasoning Acute hepatitis → fits best because:
Very high ALT/AST (in thousands, hepatocellular pattern).
Direct hyperbilirubinemia.
Symptoms: jaundice + fever + vomiting.
Acute cholecystitis ❌ – Would show RUQ pain, fever, raised ALP/GGT much higher than ALT/AST.
Malaria ❌ – Can cause jaundice, but would expect anemia, splenomegaly, parasites on smear.
Hepatic abscess ❌ – Fever + RUQ pain, not such marked transaminase elevation.
Sepsis ❌ – Can cause cholestatic jaundice, but not massive hepatocellular injury like here.
Think: Which test lets you look directly at the tissue under the microscope to grade inflammation and fibrosis?
14 / 100
Category:
GIT – Radiology/Medicine
A 40-year-old male presented to the medical outpatient department with upper abdominal discomfort. On examination, the liver is palpable. He is advised ultrasound abdomen which showed a fatty liver. Which of the following tests is considered a gold standard for diagnosis and assessment of the degree of inflammation and extent of fibrosis?
Fatty liver (NAFLD/NASH) can be suspected on ultrasound, CT, MRI, or Fibroscan , but none of these can reliably stage the degree of inflammation and fibrosis .
The gold standard for diagnosis, grading inflammation, and staging fibrosis = liver biopsy .
Why the others are wrong CT scan abdomen ❌ – Can show fatty infiltration, but not inflammation/fibrosis accurately.
Fibroscan liver ❌ – Non-invasive tool for fibrosis, useful for follow-up, but not gold standard.
Ultrasound abdomen ❌ – Detects fatty changes but cannot assess severity of inflammation/fibrosis.
Liver function tests ❌ – Show enzyme elevations but are nonspecific; cannot stage fibrosis.
Liver biopsy ✅ – Definitive and gold standard.
Think: In regions where almost all kids get Hepatitis A early in life, do they usually show illness — or silently develop immunity?
15 / 100
Category:
GIT – Community Medicine/Behavioral Sciences
Hepatitis A is an endemic disease in our population. Which of the following correctly describes the nature of the infectious cases of Hepatitis A in highly endemic areas?
In highly endemic areas (like Pakistan), Hepatitis A virus (HAV) infection usually occurs in early childhood .
Most infections in children are asymptomatic or very mild , often going unnoticed.
As a result, by adulthood, the majority of the population has already developed immunity .
Severe or fulminant hepatitis is rare in these settings.
Why the others are wrong Carriers ❌ – HAV does not have a carrier state (unlike HBV, HCV).
Fulminant ❌ – Rare complication, not the usual presentation.
Asymptomatic ✅ – Correct, especially in children of endemic regions.
Immuno-compromised ❌ – Not a defining feature of endemic HAV cases.
Symptomatic ❌ – Symptomatic disease is more common in non-endemic areas and in adults , not in endemic childhood cases.
Think: If the disease suddenly spreads in a community above normal levels but remains localized, what’s the term for this situation?
16 / 100
Category:
GIT – Community Medicine/Behavioral Sciences
The unusual occurrence of disease occurring in a community with an excess number of cases or spread of a disease affecting a large population within a short period of time is known as?
Epidemic → An unusual occurrence of disease in a community with an excess number of cases or rapid spread within a short period. Example: sudden outbreak of measles in a school.
Pandemic → An epidemic that spreads across countries or continents , affecting a very large population (e.g., COVID-19).
Endemic → A disease that is constantly present at a predictable level in a community (e.g., malaria in parts of Africa).
Sporadic → A disease that occurs occasionally and irregularly (e.g., tetanus).
Zoonotic symptomatic ❌ – Refers to diseases transmitted from animals to humans (like rabies), not about outbreak patterns.
Think: Which hepatitis viruses are preventable by vaccination programs worldwide and are part of many national immunization schedules?
17 / 100
Category:
GIT – Community Medicine/Behavioral Sciences
Viral hepatitis continues to be a major health problem in both developing and developed countries. Which of the following are preventable vaccines available for?
Why other options are wrong Hepatitis C ❌ – No vaccine.
Hepatitis B ❌ – Yes, but the question asks plural “vaccines available,” so A + B is more complete.
Hepatitis B and D ❌ – HBV vaccine protects against HDV indirectly, but no direct HDV vaccine.
Hepatitis A ❌ – True, but incomplete since HBV also has a vaccine.
Think: In a baby with watery diarrhea + mild dehydration , what’s the safest, most effective therapy that prevents complications and is recommended by WHO worldwide?
18 / 100
Category:
GIT – Community Medicine/Behavioral Sciences
A girl child aged 8 months comes to the pediatric emergency room with a complaint of 6-7 episodes of watery stools with no blood. She is on breastfeeding plus a weaning diet. The child has no vomiting, no fever, and some dehydration. Besides the advice of continuing the breastfeeding and weaning, which of the following will be the mainstay of treatment in this child?
Mainstay of treatment for acute watery diarrhea in children = Oral Rehydration Therapy (ORT) .
WHO/UNICEF recommend low-osmolarity ORS (75 mmol/L Na⁺, total osmolarity 245 mOsm/L).
Other options:
Oral antibiotics ❌ – Not indicated in viral watery diarrhea; reserved for dysentery (bloody stools, suspected bacterial infection).
ORS (old formula) ❌ – Effective, but low-osmolar ORS is now the standard of care.
Intravenous fluid ❌ – Reserved for severe dehydration or if ORS cannot be tolerated.
Lactose-free formula ❌ – Used in persistent post-infectious diarrhea with lactose intolerance, not in this case.
Think: Which deficiency leads to the highest burden in women and children across Pakistan? “PALE”
19 / 100
Category:
GIT – Community Medicine/Behavioral Sciences
Several factors contribute to nutritional problems in Pakistan including socioeconomics, feeding habits, and environmental factors. Which one of the following is the most common micronutrient deficiency-related disease in Pakistan according to the National Nutrition Survey?
According to the National Nutrition Survey (Pakistan) , the most common micronutrient deficiency is iron deficiency , presenting as iron deficiency anemia .
It is highly prevalent among women of reproductive age and children , mainly due to:
Other deficiencies are also significant but less common than iron:
Zinc deficiency diarrhea ❌ – Prevalent, but not the leading micronutrient deficiency.
Vitamin A deficiency blindness ❌ – Public health problem, but not the most common.
Vitamin D deficiency rickets ❌ – Common in children, but still less than iron deficiency.
Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia ❌ – Seen in strict vegetarians or malabsorption, but not as prevalent as iron deficiency.
Think: If you’re using sun drying, salt, or sugar to make water unavailable to microbes, which preservation method is this?
20 / 100
Category:
GIT – Community Medicine/Behavioral Sciences
Any treatment that can lower water activity such as sun drying can reduce or eliminate the growth of microorganisms. Humectants such as sugar, salt, and alcohol can bind water to make it unavailable as a solvent. Which of the following best defines this process of food preservation?
The process described is reducing water activity (aᵥ) , which microorganisms need for growth.
Methods: sun drying, salting, sugaring, alcohol addition → all lower available free water.
This makes the environment unfavorable for microbial growth , preserving the food.
Other options:
Fermentation ❌ – Uses controlled microbial growth to produce acids/alcohol that preserve food, not lowering water activity directly.
Modified atmosphere ❌ – Changing gases (e.g., high CO₂, low O₂) in packaging, not about water removal.
Preservatives ❌ – Chemical agents (e.g., nitrates, benzoates), not water-binding.
Dehydration ✅ – Correct → lowering water activity via drying/salt/sugar.
Asepsis ❌ – Preventing contamination by sterilization/sealing, not water activity reduction.
Think: For parasites living in the intestine, what is the most direct specimen that will usually contain their eggs, cysts, or larvae?
21 / 100
Category:
GIT – Pathology
Which of the following is the best method for diagnosis of intestinal parasites?
Best overall method to diagnose intestinal parasites (protozoa + helminths) = direct microscopic examination of stool .
The stool sample is examined in saline (for motility of trophozoites) and in iodine (to highlight cysts, eggs, larvae).
This allows detection of:
Protozoa (e.g., Entamoeba histolytica, Giardia lamblia ).
Helminths (e.g., Ascaris, Trichuris, Hookworm eggs).
Why the others are wrong Stool culture ❌ – Used for bacteria (e.g., Salmonella, Shigella), not routine parasites.
Perianal swab ❌ – Not sensitive for most parasites; specific tests are better.
Microscopy of stool in saline and iodine ✅ – Gold standard screening for intestinal parasites.
Buffy coat of blood ❌ – Used for blood parasites (e.g., malaria, filaria), not intestinal.
Scotch tape method ❌ – Special method for Enterobius vermicularis (pinworm), but not for general intestinal parasites.
Think: A blood clot in the portal vein often goes unnoticed — until portal hypertension develops. So what do most patients show at the beginning?
22 / 100
Category:
GIT – Pathology
The portal vein is the blood vessel that brings blood to the liver from the intestines. Portal vein thrombosis is the blockage or narrowing of the portal vein by a blood clot. Which of the following symptoms do most people with portal vein thrombosis have?
Portal vein thrombosis (PVT) = obstruction of portal venous blood flow into the liver.
Many patients are asymptomatic and diagnosed incidentally on imaging.
When symptoms do occur, they are due to portal hypertension and its complications:
Esophageal varices → GI bleeding.
Splenomegaly → congestion.
Ascites → fluid accumulation.
Hepatomegaly → sometimes due to congestion, but not always.
But the key point is:
Why the others are wrong Esophageal varices ❌ – A complication, but not seen in most early patients.
No symptoms ✅ – Most common presentation.
Hepatomegaly ❌ – Can occur, but not the usual finding.
Splenomegaly ❌ – Common later, not in the majority at first.
Ascites ❌ – Usually occurs in advanced cases, not the initial or most common.
Think: The liver drains into the IVC , not the SVC — so which vein’s thrombosis would not affect liver circulation?
23 / 100
Category:
GIT – Pathology
Which of the following is not a contributor to circulatory disorders of the liver?
The liver’s blood supply and drainage involve:
Hepatic artery → arterial inflow (oxygenated blood).
Portal vein → venous inflow (nutrient-rich blood from GIT).
Hepatic veins → venous outflow from liver → IVC.
Inferior vena cava (IVC) → directly receives hepatic vein drainage.
So thrombosis in any of these (hepatic artery, portal vein, hepatic vein, IVC) → can impair liver circulation.
Portal vein thrombosis → portal hypertension, impaired inflow.
Hepatic vein thrombosis → Budd–Chiari syndrome, obstructed outflow.
Hepatic artery thrombosis → ischemic necrosis of liver (esp. after transplant).
Inferior vena cava thrombosis → blocks hepatic venous outflow.
Superior vena cava thrombosis ❌ – Drains the upper body (head, neck, upper limbs), not related to liver circulation.
Think: In a patient on long-term PPIs with fundic gland polyps , which genetic pathway is shared with FAP-related gastric polyps?
24 / 100
Category:
GIT – Pathology
A 42-year-old female with a history of dyspepsia for a long time and who has been on proton pump inhibitors undergoes an endoscopy which showed multiple polyps in the gastric fundus. Which of the following statements is true for the above condition?
Fundic gland polyps :
Most common gastric polyps in Western countries.
Associated with PPI use → due to hypergastrinemia and glandular hyperplasia.
Can also be seen in familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) → here they involve APC/β-catenin pathway mutations.
Sporadic forms also show APC pathway alterations .
Usually asymptomatic and discovered incidentally.
Hyperplastic polyps :
Associated with chronic gastritis and H. pylori infection .
Tend to be smaller (<1 cm), not typically multiple in fundus.
Rarely >3 cm.
Why the others are wrong The majority of hyperplastic polyps are 3 cm in size ❌ – Most hyperplastic polyps are small (<1 cm).
These polyps are highly associated with H. pylori infections ❌ – That’s hyperplastic polyps , not fundic gland polyps.
Alteration of APC β-catenin pathway are seen in both sporadic and syndromic fundic gland polyps ✅ – Correct.
These polyps are not associated with the use of proton pump inhibitors ❌ – Actually, they are strongly associated with long-term PPI use .
These polyps are always associated with nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain ❌ – Usually asymptomatic, discovered incidentally.
Think: Which gastric cancer subtype gives the stomach a “leather bottle” appearance and is made of signet ring cells ?
25 / 100
Category:
GIT – Pathology
A 70-year-old male presents with abdominal pain and severe weight loss in two months. On endoscopy, a submucosal mass in the gastric region is noted and a biopsy shows diffuse sheets of small cells with vacuolated cytoplasm and eccentrically placed nuclei. Which of the following statements is true for the condition mentioned above?
Diffuse gastric carcinoma :
Composed of signet ring cells → mucin pushes nucleus to periphery.
Infiltrates stomach wall → linitis plastica (“leather bottle stomach”).
Associated with E-cadherin (CDH1) loss , not presence.
Intestinal type carcinoma :
Gland-forming, often related to H. pylori, chronic gastritis, nitrosamines.
Typically grows as an exophytic mass and penetrates gastric wall.
Prognostic indicator : Most important is tumor stage (depth of invasion and lymph node status), not just depth alone.
Genetics : Intestinal type often linked to APC mutations , diffuse type to CDH1 mutations (E-cadherin loss), not CDKN2A.
Why others are wrong Most commonly affected gene is CDKN2A ❌ – That’s linked to pancreatic carcinoma, not gastric diffuse type.
The diffuse infiltrative pattern carcinomas are mostly composed of signet ring cells ✅ – Correct.
The intestinal type carcinomas mostly penetrate the gastric wall ❌ – They form glandular masses, not diffuse infiltration.
The most powerful prognostic indicator is tumor depth of invasion only in gastric cancers ❌ – Prognosis depends on stage = depth + nodal status + metastasis .
There is presence of E-cadherin in these cells ❌ – It is loss of E-cadherin that is characteristic.
Think: In biliary atresia, the ducts are blocked — so the very first goal is to create a new pathway for bile to drain .
26 / 100
Category:
GIT – Pathology
Which of the following treatments are offered first for infants diagnosed with biliary atresia?
Biliary atresia = progressive fibro-obliterative disease of the extrahepatic biliary tree → bile flow blocked → conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, cholestasis, cirrhosis.
First-line treatment : Kasai portoenterostomy (hepatoportoenterostomy).
Liver transplant may eventually be required, but it is usually considered if Kasai fails or at a later stage.
Why the others are wrong Steroids ❌ – Sometimes given post-Kasai to reduce inflammation, not first-line therapy.
Kasai portoenterostomy ✅ – First and immediate surgical treatment.
Rifampicin ❌ – Used for intractable pruritus in cholestasis, not definitive treatment.
Liver transplant ❌ – Done later if Kasai fails or advanced cirrhosis occurs.
Ursodeoxycholic acid ❌ – Improves bile flow in cholestatic disorders, but not curative for biliary atresia.
Think: The eyes (sclera) are the most sensitive — at what bilirubin level do they first “turn yellow”?
27 / 100
Category:
GIT – Pathology
Which of the following levels does the bilirubin usually reach to cause jaundice?
Normal serum bilirubin: <1 mg/dl .
Jaundice (yellowish discoloration of skin, sclera, mucous membranes) becomes clinically apparent when serum bilirubin rises above ~2–2.5 mg/dl .
Below this threshold, mild hyperbilirubinemia may exist but won’t be visible to the naked eye.
Higher levels (like 4–7 mg/dl) indicate more severe jaundice, but the visibility threshold is ~2–2.5 mg/dl.
Why the others are wrong 4–4.5 mg/dl ❌ – Too high, jaundice is already visible earlier.
2–2.5 mg/dl ✅ – Correct threshold for visible jaundice.
3–3.5 mg/dl ❌ – Still jaundiced, but not the “appearance point.”
6–7.5 mg/dl ❌ – Severe jaundice, but jaundice begins earlier.
Think: Very high transaminases + ANA/SMA positivity in a middle-aged woman → which autoimmune liver disease does this point to?
28 / 100
Category:
GIT – Pathology
A middle-aged woman without significant past medical history presents with acute onset of fatigue and jaundice. Blood tests show markedly elevated aspartate aminotransferase, alanine aminotransferase, and high titer antinuclear antibody. Serologies for smooth muscle antibody and anti-mitochondrial antibody are both positive. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Case clues Middle-aged woman → common demographic for autoimmune liver disease.
Acute fatigue + jaundice → hepatocellular injury.
Very high AST & ALT → hepatocellular pattern of injury.
Antinuclear antibody (ANA) positive → autoimmune process.
Smooth muscle antibody (SMA) positive → classic for autoimmune hepatitis.
Anti-mitochondrial antibody (AMA) positive → usually seen in primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) , but the key here is the hepatocellular pattern (very high transaminases), not cholestatic pattern.
✅ Correct Answer Autoimmune hepatitis
Why not the others Hepatocellular carcinoma ❌ – Would not present with high autoantibodies; usually arises in cirrhosis.
Cholestasis ❌ – Would show elevated ALP and GGT, not markedly high AST/ALT.
Autoimmune hepatitis ✅ – Fits ANA and SMA positivity with hepatocellular injury.
Adenoma ❌ – Benign hepatic tumor, no link to autoantibodies.
Congenital abnormality ❌ – Presents earlier, not acute middle-age onset.
Think: Which test works because H. pylori has a unique enzyme (urease) that isn’t normally active in the stomach, and you can detect its activity in the patient’s breath ?
29 / 100
Category:
GIT – Pathology
No single test for H.pylori is considered the gold standard, but which of the following tests is likely to confirm the diagnosis accurately?
There is no single gold-standard test for Helicobacter pylori . Diagnosis is usually confirmed by combining invasive and non-invasive tests.
The urea breath test is considered one of the most accurate and practical tests:
Patient ingests urea labeled with C¹³ or C¹⁴.
If H. pylori urease is present, it splits urea → CO₂ + NH₃.
Labeled CO₂ is detected in exhaled breath.
High sensitivity & specificity, and useful for confirming eradication after treatment.
Why the others are less accurate alone Serologic test for antibodies ❌ – Cannot distinguish past from current infection.
Rapid urease test (CLO test) ❌ – Reliable, but invasive (requires biopsy) and may give false negatives if patient on PPI/antibiotics.
Bacterial DNA detection by PCR ❌ – Very sensitive, but not widely available or practical for routine use.
Fecal antigen test ❌ – Also accurate and non-invasive, but slightly less specific than the urea breath test.
Think: Which condition involves the bowel literally twisting on its own blood vessels , cutting off both passage of contents and circulation at the same time?
30 / 100
Category:
GIT – Pathology
Which of the following presents with symptoms of obstruction as well as compromised blood supply?
Why the others are wrong Stricture ❌ – Causes obstruction, but blood supply usually preserved unless secondary ischemia develops.
Intussusception ❌ – Can cause both obstruction and ischemia, but classic teaching for simultaneous obstruction + vascular compromise points most directly to volvulus .
Tumor ❌ – Causes obstruction, but blood supply isn’t directly compromised.
Polyp ❌ – May obstruct locally but does not compromise blood flow.
Think: Acute inflammation shows swelling, congestion, and reactive hyperplasia . But which feature reflects a long-standing adaptation of epithelium, not a short-lived injury?
31 / 100
Category:
GIT – Pathology
Which of the following is the least likely to be visualized in a microscope when examining a gastric biopsy from a patient with acute gastritis?
Acute gastritis = transient inflammation of gastric mucosa, usually due to alcohol, NSAIDs, stress, H. pylori, etc.
Microscopic features include :
Edema in lamina propria ✅
Vascular congestion ✅
Foveolar cell hyperplasia (proliferation of surface mucous cells in response to injury) ✅
Scattered neutrophils , lymphocytes, plasma cells (mild inflammatory infiltrate) ✅
Metaplastic gastric epithelium ❌ → This is a feature of chronic gastritis , especially intestinal metaplasia , not acute.
Why others are correct for acute gastritis Moderate edema in lamina propria → Yes, acute change.
Foveolar cell hyperplasia → Common compensatory finding.
Slight vascular congestion → Early acute change.
Few lymphocytes and plasma cells → Mild inflammation possible.
When an organ faces repeated injury, at first you see swelling and necrosis . But if the insult keeps coming, the body “repairs” by laying down scar tissue . Which change — scarring versus swelling — tells you the damage has become irreversible ?
32 / 100
Category:
GIT – Pathology
Apart from history, what is the basic morphological feature that supports chronic pancreatitis instead of acute pancreatitis?
Acute pancreatitis = sudden onset inflammation with reversible damage.
Morphology: interstitial edema, fat necrosis, hemorrhage, necrosis of acinar/ductal cells, neutrophilic infiltrates.
Chronic pancreatitis = irreversible damage due to long-standing inflammation.
Morphology:
Extensive fibrosis replacing normal parenchyma.
Acinar cell loss (atrophy).
Dilated or distorted ducts with protein plugs.
Variable chronic inflammatory infiltrates.
Thus, fibrosis and acinar cell loss is the key morphological feature distinguishing chronic from acute pancreatitis.
Why others are wrong Interstitial edema ❌ – Acute pancreatitis.
Focal areas of fat necrosis ❌ – Acute pancreatitis.
Mild inflammation ❌ – Nonspecific, seen in both but not diagnostic.
Fibrosis and acinar cell loss ✅ – Hallmark of chronic pancreatitis.
Necrosis of acinar and ductal tissue ❌ – Acute necrotizing pancreatitis.
Think: Which pancreatitis shows plasma cell–rich inflammation around ducts + venulitis , pointing toward an immune-mediated cause rather than alcohol, gallstones, or trauma?
33 / 100
Category:
GIT – Pathology
Which one of the following statements best describes the microscopic findings in autoimmune pancreatitis?
Why the others are wrong Dilated ducts with eosinophilic concretions + neutrophils ❌ – Seen in chronic calculous pancreatitis.
Necrosis of acinar, ductal, and islets ❌ – Seen in acute necrotizing pancreatitis .
Extensive fibrosis + residual islets/ducts with chronic exudate ❌ – Describes advanced chronic pancreatitis , not specifically autoimmune type.
Extensive hemorrhage with neutrophils ❌ – Classic for acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis .
Duct-centric mixed inflammatory infiltrate with venulitis + plasma cells ✅ – Hallmark of autoimmune pancreatitis .
Think: If the esophagus doesn’t connect to the stomach , the fetus can’t swallow amniotic fluid (→ polyhydramnios) and the newborn can’t fill the stomach with air (→ no stomach bubble).
34 / 100
Category:
GIT – Pathology
A 23-year-old primigravida gives birth at term. Ultrasound examination before delivery showed polyhydramnios. It is noted that the infant vomits all feedings, then develops a fever and difficulty with respiration within 2 days. The radiograph shows both lungs and the heart are of normal size, but there are no pulmonary infiltrates or stomach bubbles. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Case clues Polyhydramnios in pregnancy → fetus unable to swallow amniotic fluid → suggests upper GI obstruction.
Infant vomits all feedings → food cannot reach the stomach.
Fever + respiratory difficulty → aspiration of secretions.
X-ray: no stomach bubble → stomach not filling with swallowed air/food.
Normal heart & lungs, no infiltrates → rules out primary respiratory disease.
All of this points strongly to esophageal atresia .
✅ Correct Answer Esophageal atresia
Why not the others Pyloric stenosis ❌ – Projectile non-bilious vomiting, but stomach bubble would be visible on X-ray; develops later, not immediately at birth.
Achalasia ❌ – Failure of LES relaxation in older patients, not neonates.
Hiatal hernia ❌ – Stomach herniates into thorax, but stomach bubble still visible.
Esophageal atresia ✅ – No connection to stomach → no stomach bubble, polyhydramnios, aspiration risk.
Diaphragmatic hernia ❌ – Gas-filled bowel loops in thorax + lung hypoplasia, not seen here.
Think: Repeated inflammation → fibrosis → loss of enzymes → fat malabsorption + calcified pancreas .
35 / 100
Category:
GIT – Pathology
A 55-year-old man gives a 6-month history of recurrent epigastric pain, progressive weight loss, and foul-smelling diarrhea. He is anemic while abdominal pain is now almost constant and intractable. An X-ray film of the abdomen reveals multiple areas of calcification in the mid-abdomen.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Case clues Recurrent epigastric pain → points to pancreas or upper GI pathology.
Progressive weight loss + foul-smelling diarrhea (steatorrhea) → fat malabsorption due to loss of pancreatic enzymes.
Anemia → malabsorption and chronic disease.
Constant, intractable abdominal pain → advanced disease.
X-ray: multiple areas of calcification in mid-abdomen → pathognomonic for chronic pancreatitis .
✅ Correct Answer Chronic pancreatitis
Why not the others Crohn’s disease ❌ – Causes diarrhea and weight loss, but not pancreatic calcifications on imaging.
Celiac disease ❌ – Malabsorption with anemia and diarrhea, but small bowel biopsy shows villous atrophy, not abdominal calcifications.
Chronic cholecystitis ❌ – RUQ pain after fatty meals, but no calcifications scattered in pancreas.
Acute pancreatitis ❌ – Sudden severe pain, ↑ amylase/lipase, but no long-term calcifications or chronic malabsorption.
Think: Severe epigastric pain radiating to the back + ↑ amylase/lipase + flank/umbilical discoloration → what retroperitoneal organ is inflamed?
36 / 100
Category:
GIT – Pathology
A 54-year-old alcoholic male presents with a sudden onset of severe, constant, epigastric pain that radiates to his midback. Further evaluation finds fever, steatorrhea, and discoloration around his flank and umbilicus, Lab investigation reveals elevated serum amylase and lipase levels. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Case clues Alcoholic male → classic risk factor for pancreatitis (along with gallstones).
Severe constant epigastric pain radiating to the back → hallmark of pancreatitis.
Fever + steatorrhea (fat malabsorption) → pancreatic enzyme insufficiency.
Discoloration around the flank (Grey Turner’s sign) and umbilicus (Cullen’s sign) → retroperitoneal hemorrhage, strongly linked to hemorrhagic pancreatitis .
Labs: elevated serum amylase and lipase → diagnostic of acute pancreatitis .
✅ Correct Answer Acute pancreatitis
Why not the others Acute appendicitis ❌ – Pain starts periumbilical → migrates to right lower quadrant, not radiating to back.
Acute cholangitis ❌ – Presents with Charcot’s triad (fever, jaundice, RUQ pain), not back-radiating epigastric pain.
Acute cholecystitis ❌ – RUQ pain radiating to right shoulder, Murphy’s sign positive, not epigastric pain to back.
Acute pancreatitis ✅ – Fits clinical and lab picture.
Acute diverticulitis ❌ – Left lower quadrant pain, fever, not epigastric or elevated pancreatic enzymes.
Think: Which bug makes urease to survive stomach acid and is the classic culprit behind both ulcers and gastric cancer ?
37 / 100
Category:
GIT – Pathology
Which of the following is the most common cause of chronic gastritis and cancer?
Chronic gastritis :
The most common cause worldwide is infection with Helicobacter pylori .
H. pylori colonizes the gastric mucosa (especially antrum), producing urease which neutralizes stomach acid.
This causes chronic inflammation, mucosal atrophy, and eventually intestinal metaplasia .
Cancer risk :
Why the others are wrong Staph. aureus ❌ – Causes food poisoning (pre-formed enterotoxin), not chronic gastritis.
E. coli ❌ – Causes diarrhea, UTIs, sepsis; not chronic gastritis.
Rotavirus ❌ – Viral gastroenteritis in children, self-limiting.
Enterococci ❌ – Cause endocarditis, UTIs; not linked to chronic gastritis.
H. pylori ✅ – Correct → chronic gastritis and gastric cancer.
Think: In Asia, the main culprit is infectious while in the West, it’s drug-induced
38 / 100
Category:
GIT – Pathology
Most common cause of Acute Liver Failure in Asia?
Why the others are wrong Acetaminophen overdose ❌ – #1 in the West, not in Asia.
Acute Hepatitis B ✅ – #1 cause of ALF in Asia.
Drugs ❌ – Important but not the leading cause in Asia.
Toxins ❌ – Can cause fulminant liver failure, but uncommon.
Autoimmune hepatitis ❌ – Rare overall.
Think: Both Dubin–Johnson and Rotor syndrome (another benign conjugated hyperbilirubinemia) follow the same inheritance pattern — which is the typical one for inborn metabolic errors?
39 / 100
Category:
GIT – Pathology
Which of the following is the mode of inheritance of Dubin-Johnson syndrome?
Dubin–Johnson syndrome is a rare inherited disorder of bilirubin metabolism .
Cause: mutation in the MRP2 (multidrug resistance-associated protein 2) gene → impaired transport of conjugated bilirubin from hepatocytes into bile canaliculi.
Leads to conjugated hyperbilirubinemia (but usually benign).
Histology: liver shows black pigmentation due to deposition of polymerized epinephrine metabolites.
Inheritance pattern = autosomal recessive .
Why the others are wrong X-linked recessive ❌ – Not related to sex chromosomes.
Mitochondrial ❌ – Passed only maternally, not the case here.
Autosomal recessive ✅ – Correct.
Autosomal dominant ❌ – Some liver enzyme disorders follow this, but not Dubin–Johnson.
Y-linked ❌ – Impossible, only affects males via Y chromosome.
Think: Which condition massively increases bilirubin production before the liver even has a chance to conjugate it ?
40 / 100
Category:
GIT – Pathology
Which of the following conditions is predominant unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia most likely associated with?
Why the others are wrong Gallstones ❌ – Cause post-hepatic (obstructive) jaundice → conjugated hyperbilirubinemia .
Primary biliary cirrhosis ❌ – Intrahepatic cholestasis → mainly conjugated hyperbilirubinemia.
Pancreatic cancer ❌ – Obstructs common bile duct → conjugated hyperbilirubinemia.
Hemolytic anemia ✅ – Causes unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia.
Drug-induced hepatitis ❌ – Causes hepatocellular damage, leading to mixed or conjugated hyperbilirubinemia.
Think: Cyanide causes “internal suffocation.” Oxygen is there, but which mitochondrial enzyme can’t hand electrons to it?
41 / 100
Category:
GIT – Biochemistry
A patient was brought to the emergency room. Upon examination, it was found that the patient was exposed to cyanide. Cyanide poisoning has a lethal impact on cellular respiration. Which of the following does cyanide inhibit?
Cyanide binds to the Fe³⁺ of cytochrome a₃ in Complex IV (cytochrome oxidase) of the electron transport chain.
This blocks the transfer of electrons to oxygen, the final electron acceptor .
As a result:
The entire ETC halts.
No proton gradient is generated.
Oxidative phosphorylation stops → no ATP formed.
Cells undergo histotoxic hypoxia → oxygen is present in blood, but tissues cannot use it.
Why the others are wrong Complex I ❌ – Inhibited by rotenone, barbiturates (not cyanide).
Carbonic anhydrase ❌ – Enzyme in RBCs/kidney for CO₂ transport, unrelated.
Cytochrome oxidase (Complex IV) ✅ – Target of cyanide poisoning.
ATP synthase ❌ – Inhibited by oligomycin, not cyanide.
Complex II ❌ – Inhibited by malonate, not cyanide.
Ask yourself: Which molecule inside RBCs acts like a bodyguard against oxidative stress, and can only keep working if NADPH keeps it reduced?
42 / 100
Category:
GIT – Biochemistry
Which of the following products depends on the product of the HMP pathway (NADPH +H) and has a very important role in the protection of the red blood cells against oxidative stress?
The HMP pathway (Hexose Monophosphate Shunt / Pentose Phosphate Pathway) produces NADPH + H⁺ .
NADPH is critical for maintaining reduced glutathione (GSH) in red blood cells by regenerating it from its oxidized form (GSSG) through glutathione reductase .
Reduced glutathione protects RBCs from oxidative damage by neutralizing hydrogen peroxide and free radicals.
Without NADPH (e.g., in G6PD deficiency ), RBCs are prone to oxidative stress → hemolysis, Heinz bodies, jaundice.
Why the others are wrong Hemoglobin ❌ – Oxygen transport protein, not directly maintained by NADPH.
Heme ❌ – Requires NADPH for synthesis, but the protective antioxidant role in RBCs is via glutathione.
LDL ❌ – Lipoprotein for cholesterol transport, unrelated here.
Glutathione ✅ – Directly depends on NADPH to stay reduced and protect RBCs.
Bilirubin ❌ – Product of heme breakdown, not linked to NADPH protection.
Think: During prolonged fasting , fat breakdown supplies the backbone for glucose production — what part of triglycerides can be used to make new glucose?
43 / 100
Category:
GIT – Biochemistry
Gluconeogenesis is the metabolic route to produce glucose from the different precursors. Which is the best precursor corresponding to the following?
Now the options:
Fructose ❌ – Already a monosaccharide that can be converted to intermediates of glycolysis, not the main gluconeogenic precursor.
Glucose ❌ – End-product of gluconeogenesis, not its precursor.
Galactose ❌ – Can enter glycolysis via Leloir pathway, not a major gluconeogenic precursor.
Mannol (Mannose) ❌ – Can be converted to fructose-6-phosphate, but again, not the classic gluconeogenic substrate.
Glycerol ✅ – Major substrate from fat breakdown, classic gluconeogenesis precursor.
Think: Which form of bilirubin is lipid-soluble , unconjugated, and able to cross the immature newborn blood-brain barrier?
44 / 100
Category:
GIT – Biochemistry
An infant is brought to the clinic with complaints of poor feeding, irritability, pitch crying, lethargy, and frequent episodes of apnea. He was diagnosed with kernicterus. Deposition of which of the following is responsible for signs and symptoms of this disease?
Kernicterus = bilirubin encephalopathy in neonates.
In newborns, the blood-brain barrier is immature, and albumin-binding capacity is limited.
When unconjugated (indirect) bilirubin levels rise excessively → bilirubin crosses into the basal ganglia and brainstem nuclei .
Being lipid-soluble, unconjugated bilirubin deposits in brain tissue → neurotoxicity → poor feeding, high-pitched cry, lethargy, seizures, apnea.
Direct (conjugated) bilirubin is water-soluble and does not cross the blood-brain barrier, so it does not cause kernicterus.
Why the others are wrong Direct bilirubin in the brain ❌ – Water-soluble, cannot cross BBB.
Total bilirubin in brain and liver ❌ – Misleading; the toxic part is indirect bilirubin in brain.
Indirect bilirubin in the liver ❌ – The problem is not liver deposition but CNS deposition.
Direct bilirubin in the liver ❌ – Seen in obstructive jaundice, not kernicterus.
Which condition combines neurological symptoms, hypopigmentation, and a classic “mousy odor” of urine ?
45 / 100
Category:
GIT – Biochemistry
A 4-year-old boy is brought to the hospital with delayed developmental milestones, and seizures. He has light-colored hair, skin and eyes. His urine has a mousy odor. Blood phenylalanine levels are greater than 25mg/dl (Normal: 1-2mg/dl). Which of the following is the baby suffering from?
PKU is caused by deficiency of phenylalanine hydroxylase (or its cofactor tetrahydrobiopterin).
Leads to ↑ phenylalanine and accumulation of its toxic metabolites (phenylpyruvate, phenylacetate, phenyllactate).
These cause CNS damage, seizures, mental retardation , and mousy odor of urine.
Lack of tyrosine formation also reduces melanin → hypopigmentation (fair skin, hair, eyes).
Other options:
Alkaptonuria (AKU) ❌ – Due to homogentisate oxidase deficiency, causes dark urine on standing, ochronosis, arthritis.
Albinism ❌ – Pure defect in melanin synthesis (tyrosinase deficiency), no seizures or mousy odor.
Hawkinsiuria ❌ – Rare tyrosine metabolism disorder, not linked with mousy odor.
Tyrosinemia ❌ – Liver/kidney failure, cabbage-like odor, not mousy odor.
Think: What’s the “payoff” at the end of the electron transport chain when oxygen accepts electrons and protons?
46 / 100
Category:
GIT – Biochemistry
Which of the following substances is/are formed by oxidative phosphorylation?
Now check the options:
NADH ❌ – It is consumed (oxidized) in ETC, not formed.
Oxygen ❌ – It is consumed as the final electron acceptor, not formed.
ADP ❌ – Substrate that gets phosphorylated, not a product.
Pyruvate ❌ – Product of glycolysis, enters TCA, not made by oxidative phosphorylation.
ATP + H₂O ✅ – End products of oxidative phosphorylation.
Think: RBCs have no mitochondria — so what’s the only way they can recycle pyruvate to keep glycolysis running?
47 / 100
Category:
GIT – Biochemistry
In the erythrocytes, the EMP pathway or glycolysis produces pyruvate. Which of the following products is pyruvate further metabolized into?
Erythrocytes (RBCs) lack mitochondria.
That means they cannot perform the TCA cycle or oxidative phosphorylation , so pyruvate cannot be fully oxidized to CO₂.
Instead, RBCs rely only on anaerobic glycolysis (Embden–Meyerhof pathway, EMP) for ATP.
In this pathway, pyruvate is converted to lactate by lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) .
This regenerates NAD⁺ , allowing glycolysis to continue.
Now check the options:
Lactate ✅ – Correct product in RBCs.
CO₂ ❌ – Requires mitochondria (via TCA cycle), which RBCs don’t have.
Ethanol ❌ – Produced in yeast, not humans.
Hemoglobin ❌ – A protein, not a product of glycolysis.
Bilirubin ❌ – Produced from heme breakdown, unrelated to pyruvate metabolism.
Ask yourself: Which organ contains glucose-6-phosphatase , the key enzyme that allows glucose to leave cells and enter the bloodstream during fasting?
48 / 100
Category:
GIT – Biochemistry
A 14-year-old college girl is extremely conscious about her weight and has gone a full day fasting to fit into her dress. Which of the following organs majorly regulates glucose levels during prolonged fasting?
During fasting , blood glucose levels must be maintained for glucose-dependent tissues (like the brain and RBCs).
The liver is the primary organ responsible for regulating glucose during fasting:
In short-term fasting (up to ~12 hrs) → liver maintains glucose via glycogenolysis (breakdown of glycogen).
In prolonged fasting (>12–24 hrs) → glycogen stores are depleted → liver produces glucose through gluconeogenesis (from lactate, glycerol, and amino acids).
Other tissues:
Smooth muscle ❌ – Consumes glucose but does not release it into blood (no glucose-6-phosphatase).
Brain ❌ – Only consumes glucose (and ketones later), cannot regulate blood glucose.
Bone ❌ – No role in glucose homeostasis.
Red blood cells ❌ – Rely only on glycolysis for energy, cannot regulate blood glucose.
When breathing is shallow and ventilation is poor, what builds up first in the blood — bicarbonate or carbon dioxide?
49 / 100
Think: If this isn’t there, the entire electron transport chain “backs up” — so which molecule must be the last one to grab electrons ?
50 / 100
Category:
GIT – Biochemistry
The molecule participates in aerobic respiration as the final acceptor of electrons in the ETC (electron transport chain), resulting in the production of water as a byproduct, that is the best corresponds to which one of the following:
In the electron transport chain (ETC) , electrons are passed from NADH and FADH₂ through a series of complexes (I–IV).
At Complex IV (cytochrome c oxidase) , the electrons are finally transferred to molecular oxygen (O₂) .
Oxygen combines with electrons and protons (H⁺) to form water .
Without oxygen, the ETC cannot operate, oxidative phosphorylation halts, and ATP production collapses → that’s why oxygen is called the final electron acceptor .
Why the others are wrong Carbon dioxide ❌ – It’s a product of the Krebs cycle, not the final electron acceptor.
FADH₂ ❌ – It donates electrons to the ETC at Complex II, not the final acceptor.
Hydrogen ❌ – Protons are used in chemiosmosis, but not the final acceptor.
NADH ❌ – Donates electrons at Complex I, not the final acceptor.
Oxygen ✅ – Correct → accepts electrons at the end of the chain to form water.
Ask yourself: if the body can make niacin from an amino acid, which amino acid must be missing in a maize-based diet to cause pellagra?
51 / 100
Category:
GIT – Biochemistry
A 45-year-old woman presents with generalized weakness, glossitis, and dermatitis. Her diet consists mainly of maize-based foods with little animal protein. On examination, she has a beefy red tongue and a scaly, hyperpigmented rash around the neck and on the hands. Laboratory studies show low niacin (vitamin B3) levels. Which of the following best explains the underlying cause of her condition?
What the patient has The triad of dermatitis (photosensitive, hyperpigmented/scaly rash around exposed areas), glossitis (beefy red tongue), and generalized weakness in someone eating mostly maize points strongly to pellagra — niacin (vitamin B3) deficiency . Lab confirmation of low niacin supports the clinical diagnosis.
Why maize (corn) causes pellagra Niacin (nicotinic acid / nicotinamide) can be obtained directly from diet or synthesized de novo from the essential amino acid tryptophan in the body.
Maize-based diets are problematic two ways:
Maize is low in tryptophan , so there’s reduced substrate for endogenous niacin synthesis.
In untreated maize, some niacin is bound and not bioavailable unless the corn is processed (e.g., nixtamalization — treatment with alkali, used in traditional Mesoamerican preparation).
The net result in populations relying primarily on unprocessed maize and little animal protein: insufficient niacin → pellagra .
Biochemical detail (concise) Why the other options are less likely or incorrect Genetic defect in tryptophan absorption (Hartnup disease)
Hartnup causes pellagra-like features due to impaired neutral amino acid (including tryptophan) absorption and increased urinary loss. It is genetic and typically presents earlier in life with episodic photosensitive rash and ataxia; history here (longstanding maize diet, adult onset) makes dietary deficiency far more likely.
Excessive diversion of tryptophan into serotonin synthesis (carcinoid syndrome)
Carcinoid tumors can shunt tryptophan to serotonin and cause pellagra, but that is uncommon and would usually have other features (flushing, diarrhea, bronchospasm). No such features are described here.
Increased urinary excretion of niacin due to renal tubular disorder
Reduced intestinal bacterial production of niacin due to antibiotics
Clinical takeaways In a patient with pellagra features and a maize-based diet, the primary cause is dietary niacin deficiency due to lack of tryptophan and low bioavailability of niacin in corn.
Management: niacin (nicotinamide) supplementation , improve dietary protein intake, and address any cofactors (e.g., vitamin B6). Educate about processing maize (nixtamalization) or dietary diversification.
Think: The gallbladder’s job is to concentrate bile , so all organic solutes increase, while which main inorganic ion decreases?
52 / 100
Category:
GIT – Physiology
In a laboratory, the composition of hepatic bile is compared with that of bile stored in the gall bladder. Which of the following substances is present in reduced concentration in the gall bladder bile?
Hepatic bile (freshly secreted from liver): watery, isotonic with plasma.
Gallbladder bile : concentrated because the gallbladder mucosa actively absorbs water, sodium, chloride, and bicarbonate , while relatively retaining bile salts, bilirubin, cholesterol, and lecithin.
So compared with hepatic bile:
Sodium ions → ↓ (absorbed actively).
Bilirubin → ↑ concentration.
Cholesterol → ↑ concentration.
Lecithin → ↑ concentration.
Bile salts → ↑ concentration.
This concentration process makes gallbladder bile thicker and more effective for fat digestion.
Why the others are wrong Bilirubin ❌ – More concentrated in gallbladder bile.
Cholesterol ❌ – More concentrated, can predispose to gallstones.
Lecithin ❌ – More concentrated in gallbladder bile.
Bile salts ❌ – More concentrated.
Sodium ions ✅ – Reduced, because actively absorbed during bile concentration.
Think: The pancreas carries a built-in “safety lock” — which molecule acts as a bodyguard for trypsinogen inside the gland?
53 / 100
Category:
GIT – Physiology
Which of the following mechanisms normally prevents the activation of proteolytic enzymes within pancreas and avoid its autodigestion?
The pancreas produces many proteolytic enzymes (trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, proelastase, procarboxypeptidases). To avoid autodigestion , these enzymes are secreted in inactive zymogen form .
But the most critical safeguard is:
Pancreatic acinar cells secrete a trypsin inhibitor (pancreatic secretory trypsin inhibitor, PSTI).
This prevents premature activation of trypsinogen → trypsin inside the pancreas.
If trypsin were to activate early, it would trigger a cascade activating all proteases, leading to acute pancreatitis .
Why the other options are wrong Storage of enzymes in zymogen granules in acinar cells ❌ – True mechanism, but not the enzyme preventing activation.
Inflammatory blockage of pancreatic duct ❌ – That’s a complication, not a protective mechanism.
Absence of enterokinase in the intestinal epithelium ❌ – Wrong, enterokinase is present in duodenal brush border and is needed to activate trypsinogen.
Secretion of trypsin inhibitor by acinar cells ✅ – Correct protective mechanism.
Decreased secretion of sodium bicarbonate in ducts ❌ – Leads to acidity and damage, not protection.
Think: Which hormone is the “housekeeper of the gut” that sweeps everything down between meals?
54 / 100
Category:
GIT – Physiology
Which of the following hormones that are secreted from the small intestine in the fasting state, causes a brief phase of sequential contractions in the stomach which later migrate towards the ileum and die out?
During the fasting state , the GI tract shows a special motor pattern called the migrating motor complex (MMC) .
MMC = waves of strong, sequential contractions that start in the stomach , move through the small intestine , and fade in the ileum .
This “housekeeping wave” clears residual food, mucus, and bacteria between meals.
Motilin , secreted from the M cells of the small intestine , is the key hormone that initiates MMC.
Why the others are wrong Gastrin ❌ – Secreted in fed state, stimulates acid secretion and gastric motility, not MMC.
VIP (Vasoactive Intestinal Peptide) ❌ – Relaxes smooth muscle, increases intestinal secretions, not MMC.
Secretin ❌ – Stimulates bicarbonate secretion from pancreas in response to acid, not MMC.
Somatostatin ❌ – Inhibitory hormone, suppresses GI activity, not initiator of MMC.
Which enzyme is like the “switch” that turns on all pancreatic proteases for protein digestion?
55 / 100
Category:
GIT – Physiology
Deficiency of which one of the following enzymes greatly decreases the digestion of proteins present in the food?
Enterokinase (also called enteropeptidase) is a brush-border enzyme in the duodenum.
Its job: convert trypsinogen → trypsin .
Trypsin is the master protease that activates all other pancreatic proteases (chymotrypsinogen, proelastase, procarboxypeptidases).
Without enterokinase → no trypsin → almost no activation of pancreatic proteases → severe impairment of protein digestion .
Why the others are wrong Ptyalin (salivary amylase) ❌ – Carbohydrate digestion, not protein.
Enterokinase ✅ – Essential for protein digestion via trypsin activation.
Pancreatic amylase ❌ – Starch digestion, not protein.
Chymotrypsin ❌ – Important protease, but even if chymotrypsin is absent, trypsin and others can still partly digest proteins.
Aminopeptidase ❌ – Helps in final brush-border digestion of peptides, but not as critical as enterokinase.
Which gastric secretion has no backup mechanism elsewhere in the GI tract, making its loss uniquely devastating over time?
56 / 100
Category:
GIT – Physiology
A 55-year-old woman was diagnosed with gastric mucosal atrophy with deterioration of the epithelial lining and a decrease in substances produced by gastric mucosal cells. Deficiency of which one of the following will have the most serious long-term physiological consequences?
The gastric mucosa produces several important substances:
HCO₃⁻ → protects mucosa from acid.
Pepsin → protein digestion, but other proteases in intestine can compensate.
Intrinsic factor → essential for vitamin B₁₂ absorption in the ileum.
Mucin → protects epithelium from acid/enzymes.
Somatostatin → inhibitory hormone, regulates acid secretion.
If the gastric mucosa atrophies, loss of intrinsic factor has the most serious long-term consequence → leading to vitamin B₁₂ deficiency → pernicious anemia (megaloblastic anemia + neurological deficits due to demyelination).
The other losses (pepsin, mucin, HCO₃⁻, somatostatin) are significant but can be partly compensated by pancreatic enzymes or other regulatory mechanisms.
Why the others are less severe HCO₃⁻ ❌ – Loss increases mucosal injury risk but not systemic long-term deficiency.
Pepsin ❌ – Protein digestion can still occur via pancreatic proteases.
Intrinsic factor ✅ – Essential, no alternative source; deficiency leads to irreversible B₁₂ malabsorption.
Mucin ❌ – Loss predisposes to ulceration, but not systemic deficiency.
Somatostatin ❌ – Loss causes excess acid secretion but not long-term deficiency effects like B₁₂ deficiency.
Think: Which secretion is the only hypotonic one in the GI tract and is almost entirely neurogenic in control ?
57 / 100
Category:
GIT – Physiology
Which of the following gastrointestinal secretions is hypotonic, has high HCO3- and its secretion is inhibited by vagotomy?
Saliva is unique among GI secretions:
It is hypotonic because ductal cells reabsorb more Na⁺ and Cl⁻ than they secrete K⁺ and HCO₃⁻.
It contains high HCO₃⁻ (important for neutralizing oral acids).
Its secretion depends heavily on vagal parasympathetic stimulation , so it drops sharply after vagotomy.
Think of it like a gradient: fastest waves (12/min) → slowest (3/min) , with the answer.. sitting in between at around 8/min.
58 / 100
Category:
GIT – Physiology
Recording of the electrical activity of a segment of a gastrointestinal tract revealed that the basic electric rhythm is taking place at a rate of 8 per minute. Which one of the following part of the gastrointestinal is this most relevant to?
Since the recorded basic electrical rhythm is 8 per minute , this matches the slow wave frequency of the ileum .
Stomach ❌ – Too slow (3/min).
Duodenum ❌ – Too fast (12/min).
Jejunum ❌ – Slightly faster (~10–11/min).
Ileum ✅ – Matches the given rate (~8/min).
Esophagus ❌ – No regular BER.
Think: The moment when rectum stretches and the involuntary sphincter “lets go” a little — that’s the reflex which makes you consciously aware it’s time to find a bathroom.
59 / 100
Category:
GIT – Physiology
In the complex process of the defecation reflex, which phase involves the relaxation of the internal anal sphincter, allowing stool to enter the anal canal and triggering the conscious urge to defecate?
The defecation reflex has multiple coordinated phases:
Filling phase → Rectum gradually fills with feces, wall distends.
RAIR (Rectoanal inhibitory reflex) → Distension of the rectum causes reflex relaxation of the internal anal sphincter (involuntary, mediated by myenteric plexus). This allows stool to enter the anal canal and gives the conscious urge to defecate .
Parasympathetic phase → Pelvic splanchnic nerves enhance rectal contraction and further internal sphincter relaxation.
Inhibition phase → Voluntary relaxation of the external anal sphincter (somatic control via pudendal nerve).
Efferent phase → Final motor output leading to coordinated defecation.
Thus, the first key step where internal sphincter relaxes and urge is felt = RAIR .
Why others are wrong Efferent phase ❌ – Refers to motor output, not initial sphincter relaxation.
Filling phase ❌ – Rectum distends but internal sphincter hasn’t relaxed yet.
Inhibition phase ❌ – Voluntary relaxation of external sphincter, comes later.
Parasympathetic phase ❌ – Strengthens rectal contraction after RAIR, not the initial trigger.
Think: Without pancreatic lipase, triglycerides remain intact. What does that mean for the building blocks needed to assemble this?
60 / 100
Category:
GIT – Physiology
A 48-year-old male with a severe deficiency of pancreatic lipase consumes a high-fat meal. Which of the physiological events is most likely to occur in this challenging situation?
Pancreatic lipase is the primary enzyme for hydrolyzing dietary triglycerides into monoglycerides and free fatty acids .
These products, along with bile salts, are essential for micelle formation , which allows lipids to be transported across the unstirred water layer to the intestinal epithelium.
If pancreatic lipase is severely deficient:
Triglycerides cannot be properly broken down.
Micelles cannot form efficiently , because their building blocks (monoglycerides and fatty acids) are missing.
This leads to fat malabsorption and steatorrhea .
Why the other options are wrong Upregulation of gastric lipase activity ❌ – Gastric lipase does contribute a little, but it cannot compensate enough for pancreatic lipase deficiency.
Enhanced synthesis of bile salts ❌ – Bile salt synthesis is a hepatic function, not regulated by pancreatic lipase deficiency.
Reduced formation of micelles ✅ – Correct → micelles need lipase products.
Decreased production of cholecystokinin ❌ – Fat in the duodenum actually increases CCK secretion, not decreases.
Increased absorption of dietary triglycerides ❌ – Opposite happens → malabsorption.
Think: If you have a tumor pouring out gastrin without control , what will happen to acid levels in the stomach?
61 / 100
Category:
GIT – Physiology
A 55 year old male presents with Zollinger Ellison syndrome, a rare condition characterized by gastrin-secreting tumor known as gastrinoma. Which of the following is the most likely consequence of this condition regarding gastric secretion?
Now the other options:
Decreased release of pepsinogen ❌ – Gastrin increases pepsinogen, not decreases.
Enhanced secretion of somatostatin ❌ – Somatostatin inhibits gastrin, but here the tumor bypasses normal control.
Hyperchlorhydria (Excessive HCl production) ✅ – Correct.
Hypochlorhydria (Reduced HCl production) ❌ – Opposite of what happens.
Reduced synthesis of intrinsic factor ❌ – Intrinsic factor secretion from parietal cells is preserved, often increased along with HCl.
Think: Gastrin’s job is to increase acid secretion — so once there’s already enough acid, what feedback mechanism must kick in?
62 / 100
Category:
GIT – Physiology
Which of the following factors inhibits the secretion of gastrin from the G cells located in the antrum of the stomach?
G cells in the pyloric antrum secrete gastrin , which stimulates parietal cells (HCl secretion) and gastric motility.
Regulation of gastrin secretion:
Stimulants (increase gastrin release):
Gastric distension → via local reflexes.
Vagal stimulation → via gastrin-releasing peptide (GRP).
Peptides and amino acids in food.
Alkaline pH (removes inhibitory effect of acid).
Inhibitors (decrease gastrin release):
Increased acidity (low pH < 3) → negative feedback, directly inhibits G cells.
Somatostatin from D cells (triggered by acid).
Therefore, increased acidity in the antrum is the main factor that inhibits gastrin secretion.
Why the other options are wrong Distension of stomach ❌ – Stimulates gastrin release via vagovagal reflex.
Increased acidity ✅ – Inhibits gastrin (correct).
Alkaline pH ❌ – Promotes gastrin secretion.
Activation of vagal efferent ❌ – Stimulates gastrin via GRP.
Epinephrine release ❌ – Not the primary regulator of G cell activity.
Think about which gland produces a purely serous secretion (watery and enzyme-rich) rather than mucous.
63 / 100
Category:
GIT – Physiology
Which of the following glands secrete the highest concentration and maximum amount of alpha-amylase, an enzyme responsible for starch digestion?
Alpha-amylase (ptyalin) is the enzyme in saliva that begins starch digestion.
All major salivary glands contribute, but in different proportions:
Parotid gland → purely serous secretion, richest source of alpha-amylase → secretes the highest concentration and maximum amount.
Submandibular gland → mixed serous and mucous, contributes a moderate amount of amylase.
Sublingual gland → mainly mucous, only small amounts of amylase.
Minor salivary glands (labial, buccal, palatine, lingual) → mostly mucous, negligible amylase.
So, the parotid gland is the main contributor of salivary amylase for starch digestion.
Why others are wrong Buccal glands ❌ – Minor glands, mucous secretion, little to no amylase.
Submandibular glands ❌ – Mixed, some amylase but not as much as parotid.
Parotid glands ✅ – Purely serous, secrete maximum amylase.
Labial glands ❌ – Minor, mucous, negligible amylase.
Sublingual glands ❌ – Mostly mucous, very little amylase.
Think: At what point must the body make sure food doesn’t “go down the wrong pipe” ? That’s when breathing is paused.
64 / 100
Category:
GIT – Physiology
Which of the following stages of swallowing is the one during which respiration is inhibited?
Swallowing (deglutition) occurs in stages:
Voluntary (oral preparatory + oral propulsive stage) → Food is chewed, mixed with saliva, and pushed back by the tongue into the oropharynx. Respiration continues normally.
Pharyngeal stage → Involuntary reflex once the bolus reaches the pharynx.
The nasopharynx closes (soft palate elevates).
The larynx elevates and the epiglottis closes over the glottis.
The upper esophageal sphincter relaxes .
Respiration is temporarily inhibited to prevent aspiration → this is called the deglutition apnea .
Esophageal stage → Peristaltic waves propel the bolus down to the stomach; respiration resumes.
Why others are wrong Postprandial stage ❌ – No such standard stage in swallowing classification.
Esophageal stage ❌ – Bolus moves by peristalsis, breathing is not inhibited.
Voluntary stage ❌ – Mouth to oropharynx, still breathing normally.
Oral propulsive stage ❌ – Tongue pushes bolus back, respiration continues.
Think about which nutrient requires the most digestion and emulsification in the small intestine , so the stomach delays release to avoid overwhelming the duodenum.
65 / 100
Category:
GIT – Physiology
The rate of gastric emptying varies depending on the type of food consumed. Which of the following components of a meal, if present in significant amounts, can lead to the slowest gastric emptying?
Gastric emptying is regulated by both mechanical factors (distension, pyloric tone) and chemical factors (nutrient composition of chyme).
Among macronutrients:
Carbohydrates (starch, lactose) → empty the fastest.
Proteins / amino acids → slower than carbs, but faster than fats.
Fats (fatty acids) → empty the slowest.
Why? Fatty acids in the duodenum trigger the release of cholecystokinin (CCK) and also stimulate the enterogastric reflex , both of which strongly inhibit gastric emptying to allow more time for digestion and absorption.
Why the others are not correct Starch ❌ – Carbohydrate, empties relatively fast.
Lactose ❌ – Also a carbohydrate, similar to starch in terms of emptying speed.
Amino acids ❌ – Slow down emptying, but not as much as fats.
Proteins ❌ – Same as above, slower than carbs but faster than fats.
Think about which enzyme is needed to “unbranch” glycogen or starch — without it, digestion would stop at branch points.
66 / 100
Think about which transporter is specific for fructose and works by facilitated diffusion, not sodium-coupled transport .
67 / 100
Category:
GIT – Physiology
Fructose is transported across the intestinal brush border epithelium with the help of which of the following proteins?
Now the other options:
GLUT-2 ❌ – Important for moving all monosaccharides (glucose, galactose, fructose) from enterocyte → blood, not for apical fructose entry.
GLUT-1 ❌ – Basal transporter in many tissues (RBCs, blood-brain barrier).
GLUT-4 ❌ – Insulin-sensitive transporter in skeletal muscle and adipose tissue.
GLUT-3 ❌ – High-affinity glucose transporter in neurons.
68 / 100
Category:
GIT – Anatomy
A 65-year-old woman is undergoing endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) for a suspected common bile duct stone. Which two structures combine to form the common bile duct?
The right and left hepatic ducts drain bile from the respective lobes of the liver.
They join to form the common hepatic duct .
The cystic duct (from the gallbladder) then joins the common hepatic duct → together they form the common bile duct .
The common bile duct later unites with the main pancreatic duct at the hepatopancreatic ampulla (ampulla of Vater), which opens into the second part of the duodenum at the major duodenal papilla.
Now the other options:
Cystic duct and right hepatic duct ❌ – Right hepatic duct first joins left hepatic duct to form common hepatic duct.
Cystic duct and pancreatic duct ❌ – Pancreatic duct only joins later at ampulla of Vater.
Left hepatic duct and right hepatic duct ❌ – They form the common hepatic duct, not the common bile duct.
Common hepatic and pancreatic duct ❌ – That union forms the hepatopancreatic ampulla, not the common bile duct.
Think about whether the abdominal wall defect is midline and protected by a membrane or off to the side and exposed directly to amniotic fluid .
69 / 100
Category:
GIT – Embryology
Which of the following statements regarding omphalocele is incorrect?
✅ Correct Answer Omphalocele is usually a right-sided abdominal wall defect without a covering membrane.
That statement is false because it actually describes gastroschisis , not omphalocele.
Omphalocele → midline defect at umbilical ring, covered by amnion + peritoneum, due to failure of midgut return, often linked with chromosomal anomalies and neural tube defects.
Gastroschisis → right-sided, no covering membrane, less often associated with anomalies.
Think: which part of liver development comes from endoderm (epithelial/biliary structures) and which from mesoderm (supportive tissue and macrophages)?
70 / 100
When the midgut herniates and rotates, its cranial and caudal limbs expand into most of the small intestine and part of the large intestine. But think: which parts of the gut are not touched by this midgut loop rotation and remain supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery ?
71 / 100
Category:
GIT – Embryology
Which of the following is the incorrect statement regarding derivatives of the caudal limb of the primary intestinal loop?
The primary intestinal loop arises during midgut development and has two limbs:
Cranial limb → forms the distal duodenum, jejunum, ileum .
Caudal limb → forms the cecum, vermiform appendix, ascending colon, and proximal two-thirds of the transverse colon .
The rectum , however, does not come from the midgut at all. It is a hindgut derivative . The hindgut gives rise to the distal third of transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum, and upper anal canal .
So, while cecum, appendix, ascending colon, and proximal 2/3 of transverse colon are correctly from the caudal limb of the midgut, the rectum is not.
72 / 100
Category:
GIT – Histology
Identify the marked structure “D”.
It’s a duct within the lobule of the pancreas, not in the connective tissue septa (so not interlobular).
Lumen is small to moderate , lined by simple cuboidal epithelium .
This exactly matches an intralobular duct (which includes intercalated ducts feeding into it).
Checking options again: Intralobular duct ✅ – Correct → small ducts found inside lobules, lined by cuboidal cells.
Interlobular duct ❌ – Bigger ducts, found in connective tissue septa between lobules.
Blood vessel ❌ – Would show endothelial lining and RBCs, not ductal epithelium.
Collecting duct ❌ – Kidney structure, not pancreas.
Acini ❌ – Clusters of secretory cells, not ducts.
HistoQuarterly: PANCREAS 73 / 100
Category:
GIT – Histology
Identify the marked structure “C”.
C is pointing to small, darkly stained clusters of secretory cells with narrow lumina in the center.
These are the functional exocrine units of the pancreas that produce digestive enzymes.
Checking options: Acini ✅ – Correct → exocrine secretory units of the pancreas.
Intercalated duct ❌ – Much smaller lumen lined by cuboidal epithelium, not clusters of secretory cells.
Striated duct ❌ – Absent in the pancreas (only in salivary glands).
Follicle ❌ – Refers to thyroid follicles (colloid-filled), not in pancreas.
Blood vessel ❌ – Would have endothelial lining and possibly RBCs, not secretory cells.
HistoQuarterly: PANCREAS 74 / 100
Category:
GIT – Histology
Identify the marked structure “B”.
It has a fairly wide lumen compared to intercalated ducts.
It is located in connective tissue between lobules .
The lining looks cuboidal/columnar, not like acini.
This matches an interlobular duct .
Checking options: Acini ❌ – Small, darkly stained secretory clusters, no large lumen like this.
Interlobular duct ✅ – Correct: larger duct in connective tissue septa between lobules.
Follicles ❌ – Seen in thyroid gland (spherical colloid-filled), not pancreas.
Trabeculae ❌ – Connective tissue septa, not a duct with lumen.
Blood vessels ❌ – Would have red blood cells in lumen and endothelial lining, not this appearance.
HistoQuarterly: PANCREAS 75 / 100
Category:
GIT – Histology
Identify the marked structure “A”.
A is pointing to a very small duct with a narrow lumen lined by low cuboidal epithelium , located directly next to the secretory acini.
This appearance is characteristic of an intercalated duct , the first part of the duct system in the pancreas.
Intercalated ducts collect secretions from acini and drain into larger intralobular ducts.
Now, why not the others?
Striated duct ❌ – Found in salivary glands, not in the pancreas (pancreas lacks striated ducts).
Intralobular duct ❌ – General term for ducts inside lobules, but here the specific type is the intercalated duct .
Interlobular duct ❌ – Larger ducts located between lobules, with wider lumen, not the tiny duct shown.
Collecting duct ❌ – A structure of the kidney, not the pancreas.
HistoQuarterly: PANCREAS 76 / 100
Category:
GIT – Histology
Identify the given microscopic figure.
Observations from the labeled image: We can see acini (clusters of secretory cells).
Multiple ducts are visible: intercalated ducts, intralobular ducts, interlobular ducts .
Prominent blood vessels nearby.
The arrangement is very typical of an exocrine gland with ductal system .
Among the given options:
Pituitary gland ❌ – Shows anterior/posterior lobes with endocrine cells, not ducts.
Adrenal gland ❌ – Shows cortex (zona glomerulosa, fasciculata, reticularis) and medulla, no ducts.
Thyroid gland ❌ – Has follicles filled with colloid, not acini + ducts like this.
Pancreas ✅ – Characterized by exocrine acini + duct system (intercalated, intralobular, interlobular) and scattered endocrine islets (not clearly labeled here).
Parathyroid gland ❌ – Has chief and oxyphil cells, no duct system.
HistoQuarterly: PANCREAS
Think about which specialized cells “stand guard” at the base of the intestinal crypts to defend the stem cell niche from microbial invasion.
77 / 100
Category:
GIT – Histology
Cells of small intestine that are located in the basal portion of the intestinal crypts and are responsible for innate immunity and in regulating the microenvironment of intestinal crypts includes:
Paneth cells are located at the base of the crypts of Lieberkühn in the small intestine.
They play a key role in innate immunity by secreting antimicrobial substances (like lysozyme, defensins, and TNF-α).
They help regulate the microenvironment of the crypts , protecting intestinal stem cells and maintaining gut flora balance.
Now the other options:
M cells ❌ – Antigen-presenting cells over Peyer’s patches, not located at the base of crypts.
Goblet cells ❌ – Secrete mucus for lubrication and protection, but not innate immune regulators.
Enterocytes ❌ – Absorptive cells with brush border, main job is nutrient absorption.
Paneth cells ✅ – Correct, immune defenders in crypts.
DNES cells (Diffuse neuroendocrine system cells) ❌ – Secrete hormones (e.g., secretin, CCK, gastrin), not immune function.
Which structure of the oral cavity faces the external environment on one side and the oral cavity on the other, creating a visible transition zone?
78 / 100
Category:
GIT – Histology
A histologist while observing an organ of the oral cavity under a light microscope observed a transition of epithelium from stratified squamous keratinized to non-keratinized epithelium. The core of the organ was made up of muscles. Most likely the organ is?
The lips are unique because they show a transition in epithelium :
The core of the lips is made up of orbicularis oris muscle , which explains the “muscle in the core” finding.
Now the other options:
Hard palate ❌ – Entirely covered by keratinized epithelium, no such transition.
Cheeks ❌ – Lined by stratified squamous non-keratinized only, no keratinized transition.
Soft palate ❌ – Covered by non-keratinized epithelium, flexible, no transition.
Gingiva ❌ – Lined by keratinized epithelium only, especially near teeth.
Think about which epithelium provides both protection and flexibility , allowing these structures to move without drying or cracking.
79 / 100
Category:
GIT – Histology
The core of the soft palate, lips, and cheeks is made up of soft tissue. Which of the following epithelium types lines the mucosa of these structures?
The oral mucosa varies depending on the region:
Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium → areas exposed to friction (gingiva, hard palate, upper surface of tongue).
Non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium → areas requiring flexibility (soft palate, lips, cheeks, floor of mouth).
The soft palate, lips, and cheeks need pliability for speech, mastication, and swallowing, so they are lined by stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium .
Now check each option:
Simple columnar ❌ – Found in gut lining, not oral mucosa.
Stratified squamous keratinized ❌ – Seen in gingiva & hard palate, not soft palate/lips/cheeks.
Stratified cuboidal ❌ – Rare, found in ducts of glands.
Stratified columnar ❌ – Limited to certain ducts, not oral mucosa.
Stratified squamous non-keratinized ✅ – Correct for soft palate, lips, cheeks.
80 / 100
Category:
GIT – Anatomy
Marked structure E is continuation of which of the following mentioned below?
The transverse mesocolon is the broad fold of peritoneum that suspends the transverse colon from the posterior abdominal wall.
Embryologically and anatomically, it is a continuation of the mesentery of the small intestine .
Together, these mesenteries form continuous peritoneal folds that anchor abdominal organs.
Checking the options: Sigmoid mesocolon ❌ – Only suspends the sigmoid colon.
Mesentery ✅ – Correct → the transverse mesocolon is a continuation of the mesentery.
Lesser omentum ❌ – Different peritoneal fold (liver → stomach/duodenum).
Greater omentum ❌ – Hangs down from stomach, not continuous in this sense.
Hepatogastric ligament ❌ – Part of lesser omentum.
81 / 100
Category:
GIT – Anatomy
Hepatoduodenal ligament is a component of which marked structure?
Hepatoduodenal ligament This is the part of the lesser omentum that extends between the liver and the first part of the duodenum .
It contains the portal triad (portal vein, hepatic artery, bile duct).
Since the lesser omentum isn’t directly labeled in your second diagram, its component (hepatoduodenal ligament) belongs to the lesser sac boundary system → represented by A .
82 / 100
Category:
GIT – Anatomy
Marked structure C connects stomach with which of the following viscera of abdomen?
Connections of the greater omentum : It descends from the greater curvature of the stomach and the first part of the duodenum , then folds back to attach to the transverse colon .
Functionally, it acts like an apron covering the intestines.
Checking options: Duodenum ❌ – Attached by hepatoduodenal ligament (part of lesser omentum), not greater omentum.
Pancreas ❌ – Related to posterior wall/lesser sac, not directly via greater omentum.
Transverse colon ✅ – Correct, greater omentum connects stomach → transverse colon.
Bile duct ❌ – In hepatoduodenal ligament (lesser omentum).
Liver ❌ – Connected to stomach by lesser omentum, not greater.
83 / 100
Category:
GIT – Anatomy
Marked structure B is bounded inferiorly by which of the following viscera/structures of abdomen?
Step 1: Recall the Epiploic (omental) foramen It is the communication between the greater sac and the lesser sac of the peritoneal cavity.
Boundaries of the epiploic foramen:
Anterior → Free edge of lesser omentum containing the portal triad (portal vein, hepatic artery, bile duct).
Posterior → Inferior vena cava.
Superior → Caudate lobe of liver.
Inferior → First part of duodenum ✅
Step 2: Check options Portal vein ❌ – Anterior boundary.
Hepatic artery ❌ – Also in anterior boundary (in portal triad).
First part of duodenum ✅ – Correct → forms inferior boundary.
Transverse colon ❌ – Lies lower, not directly related to epiploic foramen.
Pancreas ❌ – Forms part of posterior wall of lesser sac, not inferior boundary of foramen.
84 / 100
Category:
GIT – Anatomy
Which among the marked structure allows the stomach to move freely against the structures posterior and inferior to it?
The lesser sac (omental bursa) lies behind the stomach and in front of the pancreas.
It forms a potential space that lets the stomach glide and expand during digestion without friction against posterior and inferior organs.
The greater omentum hangs down and protects viscera but does not give this “free movement” space.
Think about which part of the gut has unique longitudinal folds ending in valves that form the sinuses.
85 / 100
Category:
GIT – Anatomy
Column of Morgagni are present in the mucosa of
The columns of Morgagni are longitudinal folds in the mucosa of the anal canal .
At the lower end, these columns are joined by small crescentic folds called anal valves , and the recesses above them form the anal sinuses .
These structures are clinically important because anal valves and sinuses can get inflamed → leading to cryptitis or fistula formation .
Which part of the gut looks “segmented” on the outside due to muscle bands being shorter than the wall?
86 / 100
Category:
GIT – Anatomy
Haustrations, taeniae coli, omental appendages are the features of:
The large intestine (colon) has three distinct gross features that make it easy to identify:
Haustrations → sacculations caused by the shorter taeniae coli.
Taeniae coli → three longitudinal bands of smooth muscle (absent in appendix and rectum).
Omental appendages (appendices epiploicae) → small fat-filled peritoneal pouches attached along the colon.
Now, checking the other options:
B (Stomach) ❌ – Has rugae (folds), not haustra or taeniae coli.
D (Liver) ❌ – Solid organ, not part of intestinal wall.
E (Gallbladder) ❌ – Stores bile, lacks these features.
F (Small intestine) ❌ – Has plicae circulares, villi, microvilli — but not haustra or taeniae coli.
G (Large intestine) ✅ – Correct, hallmark features.
Think about which part of the gut has Peyer’s patches as part of GALT (gut-associated lymphoid tissue).
87 / 100
Category:
GIT – Anatomy
M cells are the antigen-presenting cells lying close to the lymphoid nodules in lamina propria of:
M cells (Microfold cells) are specialized epithelial cells found in the ileum of the small intestine , particularly overlying Peyer’s patches (aggregated lymphoid nodules in the lamina propria).
Their job is to capture antigens from the intestinal lumen and deliver them to underlying immune cells → important in mucosal immunity.
Now the other options:
B (Stomach) ❌ – No M cells here, stomach mainly has gastric pits/glands.
C (Pancreas) ❌ – Exocrine/endocrine organ, no M cells.
E (Gallbladder) ❌ – Stores bile, simple columnar epithelium, no M cells.
F (Small intestine) ✅ – Correct, M cells are found here near Peyer’s patches.
G (Large intestine) ❌ – Has crypts and goblet cells, but not M cells associated with lymphoid nodules like in ileum.
Which part of the GI tract is responsible for strong churning movements to break down food before it enters the intestine?
88 / 100
Category:
GIT – Anatomy
Muscularis externa consisting of 3 layers of smooth muscles (oblique, circular and longitudinal) is present in:
The muscularis externa in most of the GI tract has two layers :
Inner circular
Outer longitudinal
The stomach is special because it has an extra inner oblique layer , making three layers :
Innermost oblique → helps in churning
Middle circular → important for mixing and pyloric sphincter function
Outermost longitudinal → general peristalsis
This unique arrangement allows the stomach to perform strong mixing and mechanical digestion of food.
Now checking the other options:
A (Esophagus) ❌ – Has only two layers (circular + longitudinal).
B (Stomach) ✅ – Has three layers (oblique, circular, longitudinal).
E (Gallbladder) ❌ – Only has a single muscle layer, not arranged in layers like muscularis externa.
G (Large intestine) ❌ – Has two layers; longitudinal layer is concentrated in taenia coli, but no oblique layer.
I (Rectum) ❌ – Has the typical two layers only.
Think about which organ of the GI tract is specialized for absorption and therefore needs the maximum surface area .
89 / 100
Category:
GIT – Anatomy
Luminal modifications like plica circularis, villi, microvilli and crypts of Lieberkühn are present in
The small intestine (especially jejunum and ileum) shows the classical luminal modifications that increase absorptive surface area:
Plica circularis (Kerckring’s folds) – large circular folds of mucosa and submucosa.
Villi – finger-like projections of mucosa.
Microvilli – brush border on enterocytes.
Crypts of Lieberkühn – tubular glands at the base of villi.
These structures work together to maximize absorption of nutrients.
Now the other options:
A (Esophagus) ❌ – Only has stratified squamous epithelium, no villi or plicae.
B (Stomach) ❌ – Has gastric pits and glands, but no villi/plicae.
D (Liver) ❌ – Not part of the GI lumen, functions in metabolism, secretion.
E (Gallbladder) ❌ – Stores bile, simple columnar epithelium, no villi/plicae.
F (Small intestine) ✅ – Correct, has all the modifications listed.
Think about which part of the gut the ascending colon belongs to — midgut or hindgut — and trace the corresponding major artery and its branches.
90 / 100
Category:
GIT – Anatomy
During the removal of the appendix, the surgeon noted that the blood supply of the ascending colon was also compromised. Which artery supplies the ascending colon?
The ascending colon is part of the midgut , and its arterial supply comes from branches of the superior mesenteric artery (SMA) .
The main branch to the ascending colon is the right colic artery .
During an appendectomy, the surgeon works near the ileocolic region (also SMA territory). If the blood supply to the appendix (ileocolic artery) is affected, the neighboring right colic artery may also be compromised, endangering the ascending colon.
Now, checking the other options:
Splenic artery ❌ – Supplies the spleen and part of the stomach, not the colon.
Hepatic artery ❌ – Supplies the liver, not the colon.
Right colic artery ✅ – Correct branch of SMA that supplies the ascending colon.
Left colic artery ❌ – Branch of IMA, supplies the descending colon, not the ascending.
Gastric artery ❌ – Supplies the stomach, not the colon.
Follow the blood vessel: wherever the short gastric arteries go, the lymphatics of that region drain alongside them.
91 / 100
Category:
GIT – Anatomy
A patient is suffering from carcinoma of the superior body of the stomach. Metastasis of the carcinoma occurs through lymph nodes present along the short gastric artery. Which of the following lymph node groups is responsible for the metastasis?
The superior body (fundus) of the stomach is mainly supplied by the short gastric arteries , which are branches of the splenic artery .
Lymphatics follow the blood supply. So, lymph from this region drains along the short gastric vessels into the pancreaticosplenic lymph nodes , which lie along the splenic artery near the pancreas.
Now the options one by one:
Pancreaticosplenic ✅ – Correct, these nodes receive lymph along the short gastric artery → pathway for metastasis from the fundus/superior body.
Superior mesenteric ❌ – Drains midgut structures, not the stomach.
Gastric ❌ – Drains areas along the left and right gastric arteries (lesser curvature), not the fundus.
Pancreaticoduodenal ❌ – Drains the head of pancreas and duodenum, not the stomach’s fundus.
Pyloric ❌ – Drains lower part of stomach and pylorus, not the superior body/fundus.
Think about which major abdominal artery supplies the midgut structures — jejunum and ileum.
92 / 100
Category:
GIT – Anatomy
Thrombus in the vasa recta of part of small intestine will occlude which of the following arteries?
The vasa recta are the straight arteries that come off the arcades supplying the jejunum and ileum of the small intestine.
The jejunum and ileum get their blood supply from branches of the superior mesenteric artery (SMA) .
So, if a thrombus blocks a vasa recta, the main artery affected is the SMA .
Now, the other options:
Left colic artery ❌ – Branch of inferior mesenteric artery (IMA), supplies the descending colon, not small intestine.
Middle colic artery ❌ – Branch of SMA, but it supplies the transverse colon, not jejunum/ileum.
Inferior mesenteric artery ❌ – Supplies the hindgut (descending colon, sigmoid, rectum), not small intestine.
Superior mesenteric artery ✅ – Main artery for midgut (jejunum and ileum).
Marginal artery ❌ – Formed by anastomosis of colic arteries, runs along the colon, not small intestine.
Think about which structure curves medially from the inguinal ligament to attach to the pubic bone, forming the “medial wall” of the femoral canal.
93 / 100
Category:
GIT – Anatomy
While performing a surgical procedure in the inguinal region, a surgeon comes across the femoral ring. To navigate this area, the surgeon needs to be aware of the boundaries of the femoral ring. Which of the following structures form its medial boundary?
The femoral ring is the upper opening of the femoral canal. It’s clinically important because it’s a potential site for a femoral hernia . To safely operate here, surgeons must know its exact boundaries:
Anterior boundary → Inguinal ligament
Posterior boundary → Pectineal ligament (Cooper’s ligament) and pectineus muscle
Lateral boundary → Femoral vein
Medial boundary → Lacunar ligament
Now check each option:
Inguinal ligament ❌ – That’s the anterior boundary.
Lacunar ligament ✅ – Forms the medial boundary.
Femoral vein ❌ – Lies laterally.
Ligament of Cooper (Pectineal ligament) ❌ – Forms the posterior boundary.
Pectineal ligament ❌ – Same as above, posterior boundary.
Think about which muscle in this list actually belongs to the thigh rather than the abdomen.
94 / 100
Category:
GIT – Anatomy
Muscles of the posterior abdominal wall do not include:
The posterior abdominal wall is formed mainly by:
These muscles stabilize the trunk, help in flexion of the hip, and support abdominal viscera.
Quadratus lumborum ✅ – Definitely a posterior abdominal wall muscle.
Psoas minor ✅ – Small, often absent, but when present, lies on the posterior abdominal wall.
Iliacus ✅ – Originates in the iliac fossa, contributes to the iliopsoas, part of posterior wall.
Pectineus ❌ – This is a muscle of the medial thigh , not the posterior abdominal wall.
Psoas major ✅ – Large, important hip flexor, part of the posterior abdominal wall.
So, the odd one out is pectineus .
Think about which organ tucked under the right costal margin shares nerve supply with the diaphragm and can “send” pain to the shoulder.
95 / 100
Category:
GIT – Anatomy
A 42-year-old female presents to the emergency room with pain in the right hypochondrium radiating to the right scapula and shoulder. On examination, the patient also feels a sharp pain on inspiration when a finger is placed at the costal margin at the tip of the 9th costal cartilage. Which of the following organs is most likely involved?
Physical Exam : Murphy’s Sign https://www.osmosis.org/blog/usmle-step-2-question-of-the-day-leukocytosis
The scenario described is classic for gallbladder pathology (usually gallstones or acute cholecystitis).
Right hypochondrial pain radiating to the right scapula/shoulder → This radiation happens because the gallbladder is supplied by the phrenic nerve (C3–C5) , which also supplies the shoulder region (referred pain).
Murphy’s sign → The “sharp pain on inspiration when a finger is placed at the tip of the 9th costal cartilage” is exactly Murphy’s sign, a clinical hallmark of gallbladder inflammation.
Now, the other options:
Stomach ❌ – Pain would be epigastric, not typically radiating to the shoulder.
Gall bladder ✅ – Fits perfectly: right hypochondrial pain, radiation, Murphy’s sign.
Liver ❌ – Enlarged liver can cause right hypochondrial discomfort, but not this sharp inspiratory pain or scapular radiation.
Spleen ❌ – Spleen pain is in the left hypochondrium, radiating to the left shoulder (Kehr’s sign).
Duodenum ❌ – Ulcer pain is epigastric, related to meals, not scapular radiation or Murphy’s sign.
96 / 100
Category:
GIT – Pathology
A 45-year-old woman presents to the emergency room with complaints of fullness, nausea, and epigastric pain. Her pain increases after taking meals. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
The pain associated with gastric ulcers often worsens with food intake, which aligns with the patient’s complaint of pain increasing after meals. Acute gastritis, which can precede ulcer formation, also causes epigastric pain and nausea Gastric Ulcers: The classic presentation of a gastric ulcer is pain that worsens shortly after eating, as the stomach produces acid to digest food, which irritates the ulcer.Duodenal Ulcers: Pain from duodenal ulcers typically improves with meals and returns a few hours later when the stomach is empty.Pyloric Stenosis: This condition, which is a narrowing of the pylorus, would more likely present with projectile vomiting, especially in infants, though it can occur in adults with symptoms of early satiety, nausea, and vomiting.Hiatal Hernia: While it can cause epigastric pain and fullness, the pain is often associated with gastroesophageal reflux (GERD) and may not specifically increase after meals in the same way as a gastric ulcer.Angina Pectoris: Angina is chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart. While it can be mistaken for indigestion, it is usually triggered by exertion and relieved by rest. It is not typically associated with meals.
Think about which sphincter you consciously control to prevent defecation at the wrong time.
97 / 100
Category:
GIT – Anatomy
There are two anal sphincters around the anal canal. Which of the following statements is true for the superficial one of the anal sphincters?
There are two anal sphincters :
Internal anal sphincter → Involuntary, made of smooth muscle (continuation of the inner circular layer of rectum).
External anal sphincter → Voluntary, made of skeletal muscle. It has three parts :
Deep
Superficial
Subcutaneous
The “superficial one” in the question refers to the external anal sphincter .
Now let’s check each option:
Is involuntary and composed of skeletal muscles ❌ – Skeletal muscle means voluntary, not involuntary.
Ends at the white line of Hilton ❌ – That is where the internal anal sphincter ends, not the external.
Is composed of thick smooth muscle cells ❌ – That describes the internal anal sphincter, not the external.
Has three parts: deep, superficial and subcutaneous ✅ – Correct, this is the external anal sphincter.
Is involuntary in function ❌ – Wrong, because the external sphincter is under voluntary control.
Think about the function of the gallbladder itself — does it produce anything new, or does it mainly act as a container?
98 / 100
Category:
GIT – Physiology
Cholecystectomy would affect which of the following function?
The gallbladder’s main job is to store and concentrate bile made by the liver. When food, especially fatty food, enters the duodenum, the hormone cholecystokinin (CCK) makes the gallbladder contract to release bile into the intestine.
So, if the gallbladder is removed (cholecystectomy ), bile is no longer stored — it just flows directly from the liver to the intestine.
Red blood cell production ❌ – That’s done in bone marrow, not related to gallbladder.
Storage of bile ✅ – This is the correct one; gallbladder’s role is storage, which is lost after removal.
Secretion of cholecystokinin ❌ – CCK is secreted by the duodenum, not the gallbladder.
Red blood cell breakdown ❌ – That happens mainly in the spleen (“graveyard of RBCs”).
Secretion of gastrin ❌ – Gastrin comes from the stomach, unrelated to gallbladder.
Think about which part of the autonomic nervous system usually controls contraction of smooth muscle in organs related to blood storage.
99 / 100
Category:
GIT – Anatomy
Which one of the following is not a fact about the graveyard of red blood cells?
The “graveyard of red blood cells” refers to the spleen , where old RBCs are destroyed.
Anterior end reaches the left mid-axillary line ✅ – True. The anterior end of the spleen points forward and can extend as far as the left mid-axillary line.
Its superior border is notched ✅ – True. This is a classic feature used clinically to differentiate spleen from kidney on palpation.
Splenic capsule has muscular fibers and is supplied by parasympathetic fibers ❌ – This is false. The splenic capsule has elastic tissue and some smooth muscle, but it is supplied by sympathetic fibers , not parasympathetic. Sympathetic innervation controls splenic contraction.
It is an intraperitoneal organ ✅ – True. The spleen is completely covered by peritoneum except at the hilum.
It lies along the axis of the left 10th rib ✅ – True. That’s the long axis of the spleen.
If an organ is trapped under ribs and diaphragm, where will it expand when it becomes larger?
100 / 100
Category:
GIT – Anatomy
A patient was diagnosed of splenomegaly as a sequelae of heavy blood loss in an accident. In which direction spleen can be palpated and percussed?
https://www.medmastery.com/guides/abdominal-examination-clinical-guide/how-palpate-abdominal-organs-during-abdominal-exam
When the spleen enlarges, it can’t really go upwards because the ribs and diaphragm block it. It also can’t go much to the side because the abdominal wall is in the way. So, it grows downwards, forwards, and towards the midline. That’s why we say the spleen enlarges in the inferior antero-medial direction — and this is the direction in which you palpate and percuss it on examination.
Inferior antero-lateral ❌ – blocked by abdominal wall.
Superior directions ❌ – blocked by ribs and diaphragm.
Horizontal ❌ – not the natural path.
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