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GIT – 2016
Questions from The 2016 Module + Annual Exam of GIT and Liver
Think of a segment that transitions between mobile and fixed positions within the abdominal cavity. Its early flexibility gives way to a more anchored role near the pancreas.
1 / 29
Category:
GIT – Anatomy
There is a part of the gastrointestinal tract that is covered by the peritoneum for the first few centimeters and then gets retroperitoneal. This is correct about which part of the gastrointestinal tract?
The peritoneum is a serous membrane that lines the abdominal cavity and covers abdominal organs. Depending on how the organs are related to the peritoneum, they are classified as:
Intraperitoneal : Fully covered by peritoneum and suspended by a mesentery
Retroperitoneal : Behind the peritoneum, only anteriorly covered
Secondarily retroperitoneal : Organs that were intraperitoneal during development but became retroperitoneal later
🔷 Duodenum: A Unique Case The duodenum has four parts:
First part (superior part) – Intraperitoneal (first 2–3 cm only)
Second (descending), third (horizontal), and fourth (ascending) parts – Retroperitoneal
🧠 This makes the duodenum partially intraperitoneal and partially retroperitoneal — a classic example of a secondarily retroperitoneal organ .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: Stomach ❌ → Entirely intraperitoneal , suspended by both greater and lesser omenta .
Liver ❌ → Intraperitoneal except at the bare area , which is not retroperitoneal but rather in direct contact with the diaphragm.
Jejunum ❌ → Entirely intraperitoneal , suspended by the mesentery of the small intestine .
Ileum ❌ → Also intraperitoneal , similar to the jejunum.
🏥 Clinical Insight: The retroperitoneal portions of the duodenum are less mobile and more prone to ulcer perforation into adjacent structures (e.g., pancreas).
The first part is more mobile and commonly involved in duodenal ulcers .
Consider which ligament anchors abdominal organs to the front wall, rather than the back. Trace the embryonic origin of that connection.
2 / 29
Category:
GIT – Embryology
Which of the following is a ventral mesogastrium derivative?
During embryonic development, the stomach and surrounding organs are suspended in the peritoneal cavity by two mesenteries :
🔹 Ventral Mesogastrium 🔹 Dorsal Mesogastrium 🔍 Option-by-Option Breakdown: Liver ❌ → Not a direct mesogastrium derivative; it grows into the ventral mesogastrium , but is not itself derived from it.
Ileorenal ligament ❌ → No such anatomical structure exists. Possibly a confusion with splenorenal (lienorenal) ligament , which is a dorsal mesogastrium derivative.
Stomach ❌ → Derived from foregut endoderm , not from mesogastrium. It is suspended by both mesenteries but not a derivative.
Greater omentum ❌ → A classic dorsal mesogastrium derivative .
Falciform ligament ✅ → Ventral mesogastrium derivative , connects the liver to the anterior abdominal wall .
🔬 Clinical Relevance: The falciform ligament contains the ligamentum teres hepatis , the remnant of the fetal umbilical vein .
Surgical anatomy of these ligaments is crucial during procedures like liver resections and gallbladder surgery.
Think about embryology: Which vascular trunk would serve a structure involved in nutrient absorption located in the middle of the small intestine?
3 / 29
Category:
GIT – Anatomy
Which of the following regarding celiac trunk is not true?
🌟 The Celiac Trunk : Arises : At the T12 level, just below the aortic hiatus .
Function : Supplies blood to the foregut structures (abdominal esophagus, stomach, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, spleen, and proximal duodenum).
🔺 It has three major branches : Left gastric artery
Common hepatic artery
Splenic artery
✅ These branches supply:
🚫 Jejunum is NOT supplied by the celiac trunk : ❌ Why the Other Options Are True : “Arises at the level of aortic hiatus” ✅ → The aortic hiatus is at T12 , and the celiac trunk arises just below it .
“It has three main arterial branches” ✅ → Left gastric, splenic, and common hepatic arteries.
“It is responsible for blood supply to pancreas” ✅ → Supplied via splenic artery and gastroduodenal branches (from the common hepatic).
“It arises at the level of T12-L1” ✅ → Accurately describes the region where the trunk emerges.
🧠 Clinical Pearl: The celiac trunk supplies foregut derivatives.
The SMA supplies midgut structures — including the jejunum and ileum .
The IMA supplies hindgut structures.
If a space is bounded laterally by bone and muscle, what forms its soft, sling-like medial support? Consider the muscular floor of the pelvis.
4 / 29
Category:
GIT – Anatomy
What structure lies medial to ischo-anal fossa?
https://www.aboutmedicine.com.au/models/ischioanal-fossae
https://www.aboutmedicine.com.au/models/ischioanal-fossae
The ischioanal fossa is a wedge-shaped fat-filled space on either side of the anal canal. It allows expansion of the canal during defecation and houses key neurovascular structures.
📌 Boundaries of the ischioanal fossa: Lateral : Obturator internus muscle (covered by obturator fascia ), and ischial tuberosity
Medial : Levator ani muscle and external anal sphincter
Superior (roof) : Levator ani
Inferior (floor) : Skin of perianal region
Anterior : Urogenital diaphragm
Posterior : Sacrotuberous ligament and gluteus maximus
Hence, the structure lying medial to the ischioanal fossa is the levator ani .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: Obturator fascia ❌ → Covers the obturator internus muscle on the lateral wall of the fossa, not medial .
Ischial tuberosity ❌ → This is the lateral bony boundary of the fossa.
Pudendal canal (Alcock’s canal) ❌ → Lies in the lateral wall , within the obturator fascia , carrying the pudendal nerve and internal pudendal vessels.
Obturator muscle ❌ → Refers to obturator internus , which forms the lateral wall of the fossa.
🧠 Clinical Pearl: Ischioanal abscesses are painful swellings in this fat-filled space and can spread across the midline via the deep postanal space .
The pudendal nerve and its branches (e.g., inferior rectal nerve) travel along the lateral wall , making this area key during pudendal nerve blocks .
Imagine how blood flows out of the liver and where the central drainage line might lie between two functional territories. Which venous structure helps define this boundary from a radiologist’s perspective?
5 / 29
Category:
GIT – Anatomy
On ultrasonography and radiological examination, which of the following structures divides the liver into functional right and left lobes?
The liver is divided into:
Anatomical lobes → based on surface landmarks (e.g., falciform ligament).
Functional lobes → based on vascular supply and biliary drainage , which are more clinically and surgically relevant.
📌 Functional division of the liver: Right and left functional lobes are divided by the middle hepatic vein .
This line corresponds to an imaginary “Cantlie’s line” , running from the gallbladder fossa to the IVC .
Middle hepatic vein runs along this line and is visible on ultrasound, CT, and MRI .
The division reflects portal triad supply (hepatic artery, portal vein, and bile ducts), not surface anatomy.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: Portal vein ❌ → It supplies blood to both lobes but does not lie on the dividing plane and cannot be used as a functional divider on imaging.
Paraesophageal vein ❌ → These are collateral vessels near the esophagus , not related to liver lobe division.
Superior vena cava (SVC) ❌ → Located in the thorax, not in the liver . It has no role in liver segmentation.
Inferior vena cava (IVC) ❌ → Lies posterior to the liver , and while it receives the hepatic veins , it does not itself divide the liver into lobes.
🧠 Clinical Pearl: During liver surgery or transplant planning, segmental anatomy (based on hepatic veins and portal triads) is used — not just the anatomical lobes.
The middle hepatic vein helps define Segment IV (medial left lobe) from the right lobe .
What type of nervous system would control sensations like distension or pressure in the bowel rather than sharp pain? Trace the pathway based on embryological origin.
6 / 29
Category:
GIT – Anatomy
The anal canal above the pectinate line is supplied by which of the following nerves?
The anal canal is anatomically and functionally divided by the pectinate line into two zones, each with distinct embryological origins, blood supply, lymphatic drainage, and nerve supply .
🔹 Above the pectinate line : Embryological origin : Endoderm (hindgut)
Epithelium : Columnar
Arterial supply : Superior rectal artery (from IMA)
Venous drainage : Superior rectal vein (→ portal system)
Lymph drainage : Internal iliac nodes
Nerve supply : Autonomic innervation
Specifically: Inferior hypogastric plexus
This provides visceral afferents → sensation is dull and poorly localized (e.g., pressure, distension)
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: Perineal nerve ❌ → Branch of the pudendal nerve , it innervates external genitalia and the perineal muscles , not the anal canal above the pectinate line .
Superior rectal nerve ❌ → There’s no distinct “superior rectal nerve” — the superior rectal area receives autonomic input via the inferior hypogastric plexus (not a named nerve by itself).
Inferior rectal nerve ❌ → Branch of the pudendal nerve , it supplies the anal canal below the pectinate line , where sensation is somatic (sharp, localized pain) .
Superior hypogastric plexus ❌ → Lies above the pelvic brim , and primarily gives rise to hypogastric nerves that descend into the inferior hypogastric plexus — it does not directly innervate the anal canal.
🧠 Mnemonic: “PAVeS the way below”
Focus on structural anatomy: what fibrous or connective element lies behind the posterior muscular sphincters, anchoring the canal to the axial skeleton?
7 / 29
Category:
GIT – Anatomy
Damage to the posterior side of the canal would affect which of the following?
The anal canal is surrounded by multiple anatomical structures on all sides — anterior , posterior , and lateral . Understanding what’s located posteriorly is key to answering this question.
🔹 Posterior to the Anal Canal : The anococcygeal ligament lies directly behind the anal canal.
It is a fibrous band that connects the external anal sphincter to the coccyx .
It provides support and midline stability to the posterior pelvic floor.
So, injury to the posterior side of the canal would most directly affect this ligament .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: External urethral sphincter ❌ → Located anterior and part of the urogenital diaphragm , it is found far anterior to the anal canal and would not be affected by posterior trauma.
Venous plexus ❌ → While internal and external hemorrhoidal venous plexuses are within or around the canal, they are not limited to the posterior side — and damage to the posterior side specifically would more likely injure fibrous support structures like the ligament.
Ischioanal fossa ❌ → Lies lateral to the anal canal, on either side, filled with fat and vessels. Damage to the posterior canal would not affect this lateral structure directly.
Internal urethral sphincter ❌ → Located at the bladder neck , far anterior and superior to the anal canal. It plays a role in urinary continence , not related to the anal region.
🧠 Mnemonic to Remember the Posterior Support: “AAC”:
Consider which structure is directly superior to the liver and might interact without a protective peritoneal barrier — especially when considering pathways for infection or trauma.
8 / 29
Category:
GIT – Anatomy
Which of the following organs is in contact with the bare area of the liver?
The bare area of the liver is a region on the posterior surface of the right lobe of the liver that lacks peritoneal covering . Instead, it is directly in contact with the diaphragm .
📍Location & Significance: It is bounded by the coronary ligaments (superior and inferior layers).
Because there’s no peritoneum , this area provides a direct route for infections (like subphrenic abscesses or hepatic infections) to spread between the liver and diaphragm/thorax .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: Spleen ❌ → Lies in the left upper quadrant , near the stomach and tail of the pancreas , far from the bare area (which is on the posterior right lobe ).
Kidney ❌ → The right kidney is posterior-inferior to the liver, but it’s separated by peritoneum and not in direct contact with the bare area .
Stomach ❌ → The stomach lies more anteriorly and medially, closer to the left lobe and lesser omentum , not the posterior right lobe .
Duodenum ❌ → The first part of the duodenum lies inferior to the liver, especially near the gallbladder and porta hepatis , but not in contact with the bare area .
🧠 Clinical Pearl: Subphrenic abscesses may collect near the bare area.
Also relevant in Blunt trauma — since the bare area is not cushioned by peritoneum, it may be more vulnerable to shear injuries.
Focus on the embryological regions of the gut and how their blood supply is compartmentalized — what major arterial branch supports the last portions of the colon?
9 / 29
Category:
GIT – Anatomy
From which of the following arteries does the left colic artery arise?
The left colic artery supplies the descending colon and the distal 1/3 of the transverse colon , which are derivatives of the hindgut .
The hindgut is supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery (IMA) — a branch of the abdominal aorta .
🔍 Anatomy of the Inferior Mesenteric Artery: ❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: Abdominal aorta ❌ → It’s the parent vessel of the IMA but not the direct source of the left colic artery.
Ileocolic artery ❌ → A branch of the superior mesenteric artery (SMA) , it supplies the terminal ileum, cecum, and appendix — not the descending colon.
Superior mesenteric artery (SMA) ❌ → Supplies the midgut : from the lower duodenum to the proximal 2/3 of the transverse colon — not the descending colon.
Celiac artery ❌ → Supplies the foregut : stomach, liver, spleen, pancreas, and the proximal duodenum — far upstream of the colon.
🗺️ Quick Mnemonic: “CSI”
Consider which lifestyle-related factor most strongly predisposes to inflammation and autodigestion of an enzyme-rich organ, especially when gallstones aren’t in the picture.
10 / 29
Category:
GIT – Pathology
What is the most common cause of pancreatitis?
Pancreatitis is inflammation of the pancreas — and it can be acute or chronic.
When it comes to acute pancreatitis , the two most common causes are:
Gallstones
Alcohol abuse
But since gallstones are not listed as an option , alcohol becomes the most appropriate and correct answer here.
🔬 How does alcohol cause pancreatitis? Alcohol increases zymogen secretion by pancreatic acinar cells while simultaneously impairing secretion of fluid and bicarbonate → leading to protein-rich plugs .
It also sensitizes pancreatic acinar cells to injury , especially in the presence of oxidative stress.
This can lead to autodigestion of the pancreas via premature activation of enzymes like trypsinogen → trypsin .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: Autoimmune Disease ❌ → Rare cause of autoimmune pancreatitis (a chronic type), not the most common cause.
Scorpion sting ❌ → A rare but real cause (notably in Trinidad ), due to toxin-induced pancreatic stimulation. Fascinating, but not common globally.
Trauma ❌ → Seen more in pediatric cases or post-accidents/surgeries, but again, not the most common overall.
Drugs ❌ → Certain medications (e.g., azathioprine, thiazides, valproate) can cause pancreatitis, but this is uncommon compared to alcohol.
📈 Extra Note: In general:
But in this MCQ , alcohol is clearly the most common among the options provided.
In low-oxygen environments like high altitudes, red blood cells adapt by producing more of a molecule that shifts the balance toward unloading oxygen — think about what physiological advantage that provides
11 / 29
Category:
GIT – Biochemistry
What is the significance of 2,3 bisphosphate in RBCs?
🔬 What is 2,3-Bisphosphoglycerate (2,3-BPG)? 🎯 What does it do? Decreases hemoglobin’s affinity for oxygen
This causes a rightward shift of the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve (Bohr effect)
As a result, hemoglobin releases more oxygen to peripheral tissues , especially in hypoxic conditions (e.g., high altitude, anemia)
🚨 Important: 2,3-BPG does not increase oxygen binding , it helps in releasing oxygen — that’s the key role. ❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: Used to increase hemoglobin binding to CO ❌ → No. CO binding to hemoglobin is independent of 2,3-BPG and is actually a dangerous, high-affinity interaction (carbon monoxide poisoning).
Used to produce energy in RBCs ❌ → While it’s part of a side pathway in glycolysis, 2,3-BPG doesn’t yield ATP . In fact, RBCs sacrifice one ATP to produce 2,3-BPG via the Rapoport–Luebering shunt.
Serves to increase CO₂ delivery to tissues ❌ → CO₂ is primarily carried as bicarbonate or bound to hemoglobin, but this has no direct relation to 2,3-BPG.
Used to increase hemoglobin binding to O₂ ❌ → Quite the opposite! 2,3-BPG reduces oxygen affinity to promote release to tissues.
Focus on which organs require constant production
12 / 29
Consider the energy currency generated by each molecule entering the electron transport chain from the cycle — and don’t forget the one produced directly through substrate-level phosphorylation.
13 / 29
Category:
GIT – Biochemistry
What is the total ATP yield of Kreb’s cycle?
Each turn of the Krebs cycle (per molecule of acetyl-CoA ) generates:
Molecule Produced ATP Yield How? 3 NADH 3 × 2.5 = 7.5 ATP Via Complex I (ETC) 1 FADH₂ 1 × 1.5 = 1.5 ATP Via Complex II (ETC) 1 GTP = 1 ATP Substrate-level phosphorylation Total 10 ATP Older books say 12 (explained below)
🔄 But why does your question say 12 ? Older textbooks and exam boards sometimes refer to:
➡️ This is where the 12 ATP per cycle comes from — based on the older ATP yield estimate.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: 11 ❌ → Not a standard yield for any known calculation
17 ❌ → Too high for a single acetyl-CoA cycle; could refer to ATP from glycolysis + partial cycle (not correct here)
36 and 38 ❌ → Refer to total ATP from one glucose molecule , not one Krebs cycle:
🔁 Summary:
This enzyme resembles pyruvate dehydrogenase in its multi-subunit structure and cofactor requirements, and it handles a molecule that sits midway through the TCA cycle just before succinyl-CoA is formed.
14 / 29
Category:
GIT – Biochemistry
Which of the following enzymes acts on alpha-ketoglutarate molecule involved in Kreb’s cycle?
The Krebs cycle is a mitochondrial process where acetyl-CoA is oxidized to produce NADH, FADH₂, and ATP/GTP .
🔬 Alpha-ketoglutarate is one of the key intermediates in the cycle. It is converted into succinyl-CoA through the action of:
🔹 Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase This enzyme catalyzes a rate-limiting, irreversible step
Requires several cofactors : TPP, lipoic acid, CoA, FAD, and NAD⁺ (same as pyruvate dehydrogenase)
🧬 The reaction: α-Ketoglutarate+NAD⁺+CoA→Succinyl-CoA+NADH+CO₂\text{α-Ketoglutarate} + \text{NAD⁺} + \text{CoA} → \text{Succinyl-CoA} + \text{NADH} + \text{CO₂}α-Ketoglutarate+NAD⁺+CoA→Succinyl-CoA+NADH+CO₂
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: Aconitase ❌ → Converts citrate → isocitrate , does not act on α-ketoglutarate
Isocitrate dehydrogenase ❌ → Converts isocitrate → α-ketoglutarate , acts before α-ketoglutarate appears
Succinate dehydrogenase ❌ → Converts succinate → fumarate , acts after succinyl-CoA, not on α-ketoglutarate
Citrate synthase ❌ → Catalyzes the first step of the cycle: oxaloacetate + acetyl-CoA → citrate
If glycogen accumulates due to a failure in a structure that digests worn-out molecules rather than due to cytosolic breakdown errors, consider where such cleanup crews reside in the cell.
15 / 29
Category:
GIT – Biochemistry
Which of the following is a glycogen disease that is related to lysosomes?
🏷️ Pompe’s Disease (GSD Type II) Caused by a deficiency of acid α-glucosidase (also called acid maltase)
This enzyme resides in the lysosomes , which are organelles responsible for cellular cleanup and digestion of macromolecules.
🔬 In Pompe’s disease:
Glycogen accumulates inside lysosomes → causing muscle weakness , cardiomegaly , and hypotonia
It’s the only glycogen storage disease involving the lysosome
🏥 Clinical features: Infantile form : severe cardiomyopathy, hypotonia, early death
Late-onset form : milder, mainly skeletal muscle weakness
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: Von Gierke’s disease (Type I) ❌ → Deficiency of glucose-6-phosphatase , occurs in the liver cytosol , not lysosomes
Cori’s disease (Type III) ❌ → Deficiency of debranching enzyme (amylo-1,6-glucosidase), cytoplasmic glycogenolysis defect
McArdle’s disease (Type V) ❌ → Deficiency of muscle glycogen phosphorylase , affects skeletal muscle , not lysosomes
Hers’ disease (Type VI) ❌ → Deficiency of liver glycogen phosphorylase , also a cytoplasmic pathway issue
🧠 Key Mnemonic: Pompe trashes the Pump → Affects the heart and muscles , due to lysosomal enzyme deficiency
This site is often removed in Crohn’s disease surgery and is uniquely equipped with receptors for a vitamin-intrinsic factor complex crucial to red blood cell production.
16 / 29
Category:
GIT – Physiology
In which part of the gastrointestinal tract is most of the vitamin b12 is absorbed?
📘 How Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin) Is Absorbed: Vitamin B12 absorption is a multi-step process involving the stomach and small intestine , but the actual absorption happens in the terminal ileum .
Step-by-step B12 absorption: Stomach:
Duodenum:
Pancreatic enzymes digest R-proteins, freeing B12.
B12 then binds with intrinsic factor (IF) secreted by parietal cells in the stomach.
Ileum:
The B12–intrinsic factor complex binds to specific receptors in the terminal ileum .
Absorption occurs via receptor-mediated endocytosis .
Once inside cells, B12 binds to transcobalamin II to enter the bloodstream.
Clinical relevance: Ileal disease or resection (e.g., Crohn’s disease) → Vitamin B12 malabsorption → Megaloblastic anemia
Pernicious anemia : Autoimmune destruction of parietal cells → lack of intrinsic factor → B12 cannot be absorbed
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: Stomach ❌ → B12 binds IF here but is not absorbed from stomach
Duodenum ❌ → Pancreatic enzymes free B12 from R-protein here, but no absorption
Jejunum ❌ → Absorbs nutrients like folate, iron — not B12
Colon ❌ → No vitamin B12 absorption; mostly water and electrolyte absorption
Focus on the step where the flow of building blocks into cholesterol is first tightly gated — this checkpoint is a favorite target of modern lipid-lowering drugs.
17 / 29
Category:
GIT – Biochemistry
Acetyl-CoA is used in the synthesis of cholesterol. Which of the following is the rate-limiting step for cholesterol synthesis?
🔬 Cholesterol Synthesis Overview: Cholesterol is synthesized in the liver cytosol , beginning from acetyl-CoA and passing through several key intermediates:
Acetyl-CoA
Acetoacetyl-CoA
HMG-CoA
Mevalonate
Isopentenyl pyrophosphate (IPP)
Farnesyl pyrophosphate
Squalene
Cholesterol
🚦 Rate-Limiting Step: The rate-limiting (regulatory) step is:
HMG-CoA→HMG-CoA reductaseMevalonate\text{HMG-CoA} \xrightarrow{\text{HMG-CoA reductase}} \text{Mevalonate}HMG-CoAHMG-CoA reductaseMevalonate
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: Synthesis of HMG-CoA ❌ → Happens earlier (via HMG-CoA synthase); not the rate-limiting step
Synthesis of farnesyl ❌ → Later step, downstream of mevalonate
Synthesis of squalene ❌ → Follows farnesyl; important but not rate-limiting
Synthesis of isopentenyl pyrophosphate (IPP) ❌ → Occurs after mevalonate ; again, not rate-limiting
📌 Clinical Relevance: Statins (e.g., atorvastatin) competitively inhibit HMG-CoA reductase
This reduces hepatic cholesterol synthesis and upregulates LDL receptors , lowering serum cholesterol
If glycogen is being broken down but still accumulates in short, stubby forms, what kind of enzyme might be missing from the cleanup crew?
18 / 29
Category:
GIT – Biochemistry
Which enzyme deficiency occurs in Cori’s disease?
🧬 What is Cori’s Disease? Cori’s disease , also known as Glycogen Storage Disease Type III (GSD III) , is caused by a deficiency of the debranching enzyme .
The specific enzyme is amylo-1,6-glucosidase , which helps in glycogenolysis (the breakdown of glycogen).
🏗️ Normal Glycogen Breakdown: Glycogen phosphorylase breaks linear chains.
Debranching enzyme removes the branches (α-1,6-linkages) to allow full degradation.
🔧 What goes wrong in Cori’s Disease? ❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: Glycogen lyase ❌ → Not a standard term. Likely a distractor. May confuse with glycogen phosphorylase , which is involved in glycogenolysis, but not defective in Cori’s disease.
Pyruvate kinase ❌ → Involved in glycolysis , not glycogen metabolism. Deficiency causes hemolytic anemia , not GSD.
Branching enzyme ❌ → Deficiency causes Andersen’s disease (GSD IV) , not Cori’s.
Glycogen synthase ❌ → Catalyzes glycogen formation; its deficiency leads to GSD type 0 , not type III.
Imagine a biochemical toll gate where traffic toward cholesterol must slow down — this checkpoint is so critical that even life-saving drugs are designed to block it.
19 / 29
Category:
GIT – Biochemistry
What is the regulatory step in endogenous cholesterol synthesis
🧬 Endogenous Cholesterol Synthesis Pathway: Cholesterol is synthesized in the liver through a multi-step metabolic pathway, starting from acetyl-CoA . One of the earliest and most heavily regulated steps is:
HMG-CoA→HMG-CoA reductaseMevalonate\text{HMG-CoA} \xrightarrow{\text{HMG-CoA reductase}} \text{Mevalonate}HMG-CoAHMG-CoA reductaseMevalonate
HMG-CoA reductase is the rate-limiting enzyme and the main regulatory step in cholesterol biosynthesis.
It converts 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-CoA (HMG-CoA) into mevalonate , which eventually becomes cholesterol.
🔐 Why is this step regulated? Because cholesterol:
Is essential for cell membranes, hormones, bile acids, etc.
But excess cholesterol is harmful (e.g., atherosclerosis), so the body needs tight control.
🔒 Regulation mechanisms of HMG-CoA reductase: Negative feedback by cholesterol and mevalonate
Inhibition by statins (used in hyperlipidemia)
Insulin stimulates , glucagon inhibits
Transcriptional regulation via SREBP
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: Mevalonate ❌ → It’s the product of the regulatory step, not the regulatory enzyme itself
HMG-CoA synthase ❌ → Precedes the rate-limiting step (makes HMG-CoA from acetyl-CoA and acetoacetyl-CoA)
Glucose-6-phosphatase ❌ → Involved in gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis , not cholesterol metabolism
Glycogen synthase ❌ → Important for glycogen synthesis , not cholesterol production
Consider which essential amino acid doubles as both a serotonin precursor and a backup source of an important B-vitamin — it’s a metabolic multitasker.
20 / 29
Category:
GIT – Biochemistry
Which of the following is niacin derived from?
🧬 Niacin (Vitamin B3) Niacin is the precursor of NAD⁺ and NADP⁺ , which are essential coenzymes for:
Redox reactions
Energy production
DNA repair
🔄 How is Niacin made in the body? Your body can synthesize niacin from the essential amino acid tryptophan via the kynurenine pathway .
Tryptophan→Niacin (Vitamin B3)\text{Tryptophan} \rightarrow \text{Niacin (Vitamin B3)}Tryptophan→Niacin (Vitamin B3)
🦠 Clinical Relevance: Niacin deficiency leads to pellagra , which presents with the 3 D’s :
Conditions like Hartnup disease (defective tryptophan absorption) or carcinoid syndrome (excessive tryptophan use for serotonin) can also cause secondary niacin deficiency .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: Tyrosine ❌ → Precursor for catecholamines , melanin , and thyroid hormones
Adenine ❌ → A purine base , not an amino acid; involved in nucleic acids, not niacin synthesis
Phenylalanine ❌ → Converts to tyrosine , not niacin
Methionine ❌ → Donates methyl groups via SAM , involved in other pathways like epinephrine and DNA methylation
When aiming for a moving, partially hidden target beneath the ribs, clinicians choose a site that’s low enough to be safe from lungs, but high enough to catch the organ before it hides behind intestines.
21 / 29
Category:
GIT – Anatomy
Liver biopsy is performed at which of the following spaces?
🩺 Liver Biopsy: A liver biopsy is performed to sample liver tissue for diagnosing:
Hepatitis
Cirrhosis
Fatty liver disease
Tumors
🔍 Why Right 8th Intercostal Space? The liver lies under the right ribs , mainly from the 5th to 11th ribs .
A percutaneous liver biopsy is most commonly performed at the right 8th or 9th intercostal space in the midaxillary line .
The right lobe of the liver is larger and more accessible.
The 8th intercostal space provides a safe path below the diaphragm while avoiding:
🛡️ Clinical Technique Tip: ❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: 5th intercostal space ❌ → Too high ; risk of entering pleural cavity or lung → pneumothorax
Right 7th intercostal space ❌ → Slightly higher than ideal; less safe access to liver
Right 10th intercostal space ❌ → Too low ; may miss the liver or injure other abdominal organs
Subcostal space ❌ → Not a defined intercostal space; vague and not anatomically precise
The biologically active form of this vitamin plays a starring role in shaping amino acids — helping remove, transfer, or alter their nitrogen backbone.
22 / 29
Category:
GIT – Biochemistry
Which of the following is the active coenzyme form of vitamin B6?
🔬 Vitamin B6 — What is it? Vitamin B6 refers to a group of related compounds :
Pyridoxine
Pyridoxal
Pyridoxamine
These are converted in the liver to the active coenzyme form :
Pyridoxal 5-phosphate (PLP)\text{Pyridoxal 5-phosphate (PLP)}Pyridoxal 5-phosphate (PLP)
🌟 Role of PLP (Pyridoxal 5-Phosphate): It serves as a coenzyme for many enzymes involved in amino acid metabolism , including:
Transamination
Decarboxylation
Deamination
Glycogen phosphorylase
Also involved in:
Neurotransmitter synthesis (e.g., GABA, serotonin, dopamine)
Heme synthesis
Niacin synthesis from tryptophan
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: Pyridoxine ❌ → A vitamin B6 precursor , not the active coenzyme form
Pyridoxamine ❌ → Another B6-related compound; must be converted to PLP to become active
NAD ❌ → Active form of niacin (vitamin B3)
FMN (Flavin mononucleotide) ❌ → Coenzyme derived from riboflavin (vitamin B2)
In any biosynthetic assembly line, the bottleneck usually lies at the step just after the major branch point — where control is tight and drugs often target.
23 / 29
Category:
GIT – Biochemistry
Which of the following is the rate-limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis?
🧬 Cholesterol Synthesis Pathway (Simplified): HMG-CoA reductase (3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl-CoA reductase) catalyzes the conversion of HMG-CoA → Mevalonate
This is the key regulatory and rate-limiting enzyme
It is inhibited by statins , which are cholesterol-lowering drugs
🧪 Why it’s rate-limiting: ❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: HMG-CoA synthase ❌ → Forms HMG-CoA from acetyl-CoA, upstream of the rate-limiting step
Squalene synthase ❌ → Acts later in the pathway, converting farnesyl pyrophosphate to squalene
Prenyl transferase ❌ → Involved in converting isoprenoid units into longer chains; not rate-limiting
Mevalonate carboxylase ❌ → Not a known enzyme in human cholesterol biosynthesis; possibly a distractor term
Think about which autoimmune condition shows a strong intestinal immune reaction to common dietary proteins, leading to structural and functional gut changes and can be tracked through antibodies.
24 / 29
Category:
GIT – Pathology
The body of the patient is found to produce endomysial antibodies with the intestinal biopsy showing the presence of flattened villi. Which of the following diseases is this hinting towards?
🔍 What are endomysial antibodies? Anti-endomysial antibodies (EMA) are IgA autoantibodies that target the endomysium , a connective tissue layer surrounding muscle fibers.
They are highly specific markers for celiac disease .
🔬 Histological Features on Intestinal Biopsy in Celiac Disease: These changes impair nutrient absorption , leading to classic malabsorption symptoms:
Chronic diarrhea
Weight loss
Iron-deficiency anemia
Bloating
Fatigue
🧪 Additional Lab Markers: Anti-endomysial antibody (EMA)
Anti-tissue transglutaminase (anti-tTG) antibody — also highly sensitive
Anti-gliadin antibody (less used now)
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: Lactose intolerance ❌ → Caused by lactase enzyme deficiency , not immune-mediated → No villous atrophy or antibodies involved
Ménétrier disease ❌ → Rare protein-losing gastropathy with giant gastric folds and foveolar hyperplasia → Affects the stomach, not small intestine → No endomysial antibodies
Whipple’s disease ❌ → Caused by Tropheryma whipplei (bacterial) → Presents with PAS-positive foamy macrophages in lamina propria, not villous flattening → Also causes arthritis, CNS symptoms , and malabsorption
Graves’ disease ❌ → Autoimmune hyperthyroidism , associated with TSH receptor antibodies → Not related to intestinal changes or EMA antibodies
This small molecule, found in everyday grains, becomes immunologically dangerous only in those with the right genes and the wrong immune reaction.
25 / 29
Category:
GIT – Pathology
Which of the following is a major cause of celiac disease?
🔬 What is Celiac Disease? Celiac disease is a chronic autoimmune condition triggered by dietary gluten in genetically predisposed individuals.
Gluten is a protein found in wheat, rye, and barley .
It contains gliadin , the immunogenic peptide responsible for triggering the immune response in celiac disease.
🧬 Pathophysiology: Gliadin is ingested → reaches the small intestine
Tissue transglutaminase (tTG) modifies gliadin → makes it more immunogenic
In genetically susceptible individuals (e.g., HLA-DQ2/DQ8), the immune system attacks:
Enterocytes (intestinal lining)
Leads to villous atrophy , crypt hyperplasia , and malabsorption
⚠️ Key Clinical Features: Diarrhea
Weight loss
Anemia (due to iron, folate, or B12 deficiency)
Dermatitis herpetiformis (in some cases)
May present in childhood or adulthood
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: Tropheryma whippelii ❌ → Cause of Whipple disease , a rare bacterial infection → Presents with malabsorption, arthritis, and CNS symptoms , but is not related to gluten or gliadin
Intussusception ❌ → A mechanical intestinal obstruction due to telescoping of a bowel segment → Not autoimmune, not related to gluten
Aldolase B deficiency ❌ → Causes hereditary fructose intolerance , not celiac disease → Affects fructose metabolism, not gluten response
Tumor ❌ → May mimic celiac symptoms (e.g., weight loss, diarrhea), but tumors are not a causative factor
Consider the threshold after which your eyes start to notice something yellow — and work backward from what’s still considered healthy.
26 / 29
Consider the key enzyme responsible for freeing glucose into the blood during fasting — without it, glucose gets trapped inside the cell in its phosphorylated form.
27 / 29
Category:
GIT – Biochemistry
Which enzyme is deficient in von Gierke disease?
🔬 Von Gierke Disease (Glycogen Storage Disease Type I) : A rare autosomal recessive metabolic disorder
Caused by deficiency of glucose-6-phosphatase (G6Pase)
This enzyme is essential in the final step of gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis :
Glucose-6-phosphate→G6PaseFree glucose\text{Glucose-6-phosphate} \xrightarrow{G6Pase} \text{Free glucose}Glucose-6-phosphateG6PaseFree glucose
Found primarily in the liver and kidneys
🧬 What happens if G6Pase is deficient? 📌 Mnemonic: “Very Poor Glycogen Handling” ❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: Phosphofructokinase (PFK) ❌ → Involved in glycolysis → Deficiency causes Glycogen Storage Disease Type VII (Tarui disease)
Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) ❌ → Part of the pentose phosphate pathway , not glycogen metabolism → Its deficiency causes hemolytic anemia , not von Gierke disease
6-phosphogluconate dehydrogenase (6PGD) ❌ → Also part of the HMP shunt (PPP) → Not related to glycogen storage
6-phosphogluconolactonase (PGLS) ❌ → Minor enzyme in the pentose phosphate pathway → Not implicated in von Gierke disease
Consider where the body would need a strong immune presence to monitor incoming pathogens — especially near the end of the nutrient absorption line.
28 / 29
Category:
GIT – Histology
Which of the following represents Peyer’s patches?
🔬 What are Peyer’s Patches? Peyer’s patches are organized lymphoid nodules (not true lymph nodes)
Found specifically in the mucosa and submucosa of the ileum — the last part of the small intestine
Part of the gut-associated lymphoid tissue (GALT)
📌 Function of Peyer’s Patches: Play a key role in the immune surveillance of the intestinal lumen
Detect pathogens and antigens entering the gut
Contain B and T lymphocytes
Overlain by M cells (microfold cells) that help in antigen uptake
📍 Location: ❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect: Diffuse lymph nodes in gastrointestinal tract ❌ → Peyer’s patches are organized aggregates , not diffuse
Lymphoid aggregates in large intestine ❌ → While the large intestine has isolated lymphoid follicles , Peyer’s patches are specific to the ileum
Lymph node aggregates in duodenum ❌ → Duodenum has Brunner’s glands , not Peyer’s patches
None of them ❌ → Incorrect, because lymphoid aggregates in the ileum is the correct and specific description
29 / 29
Category:
GIT – Biochemistry
The hexose monophosphate (HMP) shunt occurs in which of the following?
Your score is
The average score is 37%
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