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Endo – 2023
Questions from The 2023 Module + Annual Exam of Endocrinology
If a child’s bones are younger than they should be for her age — and she’s growing very slowly — what hormone might be missing from the equation?
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Category:
Endo – Pathology
A 9-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician due to concerns about her growth. Her parents report that she has consistently been below the 3rd percentile for height and they have noticed a lack of height gain compared to her classmates. Otherwise, she is good at studies. The girl’s medical history is unremarkable and she has not experienced any significant illnesses. On examination, her growth velocity is significantly below the expected range for her age, and her bone age is delayed for his height age. What is the most likely cause of the patient’s short stature?
This 9-year-old girl presents with:
Height below the 3rd percentile
Significantly reduced growth velocity
Delayed bone age (bone maturation is behind her chronological age)
Normal intellect and no other systemic symptoms
These features strongly point toward Growth Hormone (GH) deficiency , which results in:
Poor linear growth
Delayed skeletal maturation (bone age)
Normal proportions (unlike some syndromic causes)
Often normal birth weight and height , but decline in growth by 2–3 years of age
GH deficiency can be congenital or acquired and should be confirmed by GH stimulation testing and IGF-1 levels.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Familial short stature Patients are short but have normal growth velocity and bone age matches chronological age .
Constitutional delay Presents with delayed bone age but normal growth velocity — “late bloomers” who catch up eventually.
Turner syndrome Can cause short stature in girls, but usually also presents with other features (webbed neck, wide-spaced nipples, primary amenorrhea). Also, genetic testing would confirm 45,X karyotype.
Hypothyroidism Would also cause poor growth , but often includes fatigue, constipation, weight gain, and dry skin — not seen here.
When calcium is high and phosphate is low, which hormone is most likely disrupting the balance — and how do we measure it?
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Category:
Endo – Pathology
A 60-year-old lady presented in the clinic with complaints of irritability and lethargy. Her lab values showed Ca=11.2 mg/dL, phosphate levels were low and ALP was raised. What is the best next step to reach the diagnosis?
This 60-year-old woman presents with:
Irritability and lethargy
Hypercalcemia (Ca²⁺ = 11.2 mg/dL)
Low phosphate
Elevated ALP (alkaline phosphatase)
This pattern is classic for primary hyperparathyroidism , where:
PTH is inappropriately elevated despite high calcium
PTH increases calcium by stimulating bone resorption, increasing renal reabsorption, and activating vitamin D
Phosphate is low because PTH promotes phosphate excretion
ALP rises due to increased bone turnover
➡️ Measuring serum PTH is the most specific next step to confirm the diagnosis.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Bone X-ray May show subperiosteal bone resorption or osteitis fibrosa cystica, but it is not the first diagnostic step .
LFTs ALP can be liver-derived, but elevated calcium + low phosphate points to bone/parathyroid etiology.
UCE (Urea, Creatinine, Electrolytes) Helpful in assessing renal function, but won’t confirm parathyroid pathology.
TSH Thyroid dysfunction doesn’t explain this calcium-phosphate pattern .
When thyroid hormones are leaking due to inflammation, would the gland take up more iodine — or less?
3 / 63
Category:
Endo – Pathology
Which of the following is true regarding De Quervain thyroiditis?
De Quervain thyroiditis (also called subacute granulomatous thyroiditis ) is a self-limited, painful thyroid inflammation , often following a viral upper respiratory infection . It causes:
Painful, tender thyroid
Transient hyperthyroidism (from release of preformed T3/T4)
Low TSH, high T3/T4 initially
Followed by hypothyroidism , then recovery
The radioactive iodine uptake (RAIU) is decreased because the thyroid is not actively synthesizing hormones — it is merely leaking preformed hormone due to inflammation and follicular destruction .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
It is painless ❌ Incorrect — painful thyroid is a hallmark feature (unlike silent thyroiditis or Hashimoto’s).
Anti-thyroid drugs are effective ❌ Incorrect — The hyperthyroidism is due to hormone leakage , not overproduction; anti-thyroid drugs (like methimazole) are not effective .
It follows bacterial infection ❌ Incorrect — It usually follows a viral infection (e.g., Coxsackievirus, mumps, adenovirus).
Increased RAIU ❌ Incorrect — RAIU is decreased , because the thyroid is not taking up iodine during the inflammatory phase.
Which system is most sensitive to metabolic stimulation, such that sudden hormone replacement could overload its oxygen demand?
4 / 63
Category:
Endo – Pharmacology
In which of the following diseases the dose of levothyroxine is reduced?
Levothyroxine is a synthetic form of thyroxine (T4) used to treat hypothyroidism . While it’s essential to restore normal thyroid hormone levels, in certain conditions, particularly ischemic heart disease , caution is required.
In ischemic heart disease (IHD) — such as angina or post-myocardial infarction — thyroid hormones can increase myocardial oxygen demand by:
Raising heart rate
Increasing contractility
Raising metabolic rate
Starting full-dose levothyroxine in such patients can precipitate angina , arrhythmias , or even heart failure . ➡️ Dose should be started low and titrated slowly under cardiac monitoring.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Neurological disorders These don’t generally require dose reduction unless there’s an elderly patient with comorbidities.
Respiratory disorders Thyroid hormone doesn’t directly worsen most respiratory diseases; no routine dose reduction needed.
Hematological disorders These may result from hypothyroidism (e.g., anemia), but don’t warrant reduced levothyroxine dosing.
All of these Incorrect — only ischemic heart disease clearly necessitates a lower starting dose .
If a thyroid mass is pressing on the trachea and causing airway compromise, what treatment will relieve the pressure — medication or removal?
5 / 63
Category:
Endo – Pathology
A 60-year-old lady with NKCM presented in the outpatient department (OPD) with complaints of dyspnea and stridor. Examination revealed a large retrosternal goiter. Her thyroid profile was normal. Which of the following would be the best management?
This 60-year-old woman has:
A retrosternal goiter (thyroid enlargement extending behind the sternum)
Dyspnea (difficulty breathing) and stridor (upper airway obstruction sound)
A normal thyroid function test (euthyroid)
The presence of compressive symptoms (e.g., airway obstruction, stridor) in a non-toxic multinodular goiter (NKCM) is an absolute indication for surgery , even if thyroid function is normal.
➡️ The definitive treatment is total thyroidectomy , which:
Relieves tracheal compression
Prevents further growth or future complications
Eliminates recurrence risk in multinodular goiter
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Radioactive iodine (RAI) Not effective for large or retrosternal goiters , especially with compressive symptoms . RAI is more suitable for toxic goiters or hyperthyroidism .
Anti-thyroid drugs Used for hyperthyroidism , not for structurally compressive, euthyroid goiters.
Steroids May reduce inflammation , not goiter size. Not appropriate for mechanical obstruction.
Beta-blockers Provide symptomatic relief in hyperthyroidism (e.g., palpitations), but irrelevant here .
What fluid do we always start with to restore circulatory volume and sodium in dehydrated, acidotic patients?
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Category:
Endo – Pathology
A patient presented in the emergency department (ER) with Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA). His serum sodium levels were 106 mmol/L. Which of the following fluids would be administered?
In Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) , patients typically present with:
Severe dehydration
Electrolyte imbalances
Metabolic acidosis
Marked hyperglycemia
In this case, the patient has profound hyponatremia (Na⁺ = 106 mmol/L), which requires careful correction .
The first-line fluid in DKA is always isotonic saline (0.9% NaCl or normal saline) because it:
Expands intravascular volume
Begins correcting sodium and fluid deficits
Supports renal perfusion , aiding in clearance of glucose and ketones
Once glucose drops to ~200 mg/dL, 5% dextrose is added to prevent hypoglycemia while continuing insulin.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
3% saline Hypertonic and used only for symptomatic severe hyponatremia (e.g., seizures, coma). DKA management does not start with 3% saline.
5% Dextrose Not used initially — added later once blood glucose drops to prevent hypoglycemia.
Hypotonic saline Can worsen hyponatremia and lead to cerebral edema — contraindicated in this setting.
Ringer’s lactate Contains lactate , which can confound acidosis management in DKA.
When a woman misses her periods and has a high prolactin level — what’s the most common , natural cause you must exclude before suspecting disease?
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Category:
Endo – Pathology
A woman presented to the clinic with her husband with complaints of amenorrhea for 4 months. The couple has 2 kids and the husband has azoospermia. The woman has prolactin levels of 400 ng/ml. What will be the next best step?
The first and most essential step in evaluating amenorrhea , especially in a woman of reproductive age, is to rule out pregnancy — regardless of the history.
Even though the husband reportedly has azoospermia , the couple already has two children , meaning prior fertility , and laboratory errors or misdiagnosis in azoospermia are possible.
Additionally, prolactin levels can rise during pregnancy — and a level of 400 ng/mL is within the typical range seen in pregnancy , though also elevated in prolactinomas .
But before jumping to imaging or invasive workup, the most logical and cost-effective step is to check for pregnancy .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect at This Stage
Repeat husband’s semen analysis Not relevant in the acute evaluation of the woman’s amenorrhea — and she has already conceived before.
MRI abdomen and pelvis Not indicated unless you suspect structural abnormalities (e.g., masses); not first-line for amenorrhea.
MRI pituitary Could be needed if pregnancy is excluded and prolactin remains high — but not before ruling out the most common cause of elevated prolactin: pregnancy .
Ultrasound abdomen and pelvis May help assess uterus and ovaries, but urine/blood pregnancy test is simpler and more direct .
If the pituitary gland isn’t working properly, what happens to the hormones it produces — do they go up, down, or stay the same?
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Category:
Endo – Pathology
What are the lab findings in hypopituitarism?
Hypopituitarism is the deficiency of one or more anterior pituitary hormones , which includes:
When the pituitary fails , it leads to low levels of trophic hormones , including FSH and LH , resulting in:
So, in hypopituitarism , FSH and LH are both low , along with other pituitary hormones.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
No change in prolactin levels Prolactin can decrease in hypopituitarism, especially with global pituitary failure.
High FSH and LH Seen in primary gonadal failure , not pituitary failure.
Increased ACTH ACTH is typically low , leading to secondary adrenal insufficiency .
Low FSH, high LH This pattern is not seen in hypopituitarism — it would suggest some form of partial gonadotropin dysregulation , not pan-hypopituitarism.
Which neurotransmitter naturally suppresses prolactin — and what drug mimics it to shrink prolactin-secreting tumors?
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Category:
Endo – Pharmacology
A young female presents to her gynecologist complaining of irregular menstrual periods, galactorrhea, and decreased libido. She also reports experiencing headaches and vision changes (visual field defects). Physical examination reveals no abnormalities. A blood test is performed and prolactin levels are 800 ng/mL. What is the best management for this patient?
This young woman presents with:
Menstrual irregularities
Galactorrhea (milk discharge without pregnancy)
Low libido
Headache and visual field defects
Markedly elevated prolactin level (800 ng/mL)
These are classic signs of a prolactinoma — a prolactin-secreting pituitary adenoma , likely macroadenoma given the visual symptoms.
First-line treatment for prolactinomas is a dopamine agonist , such as bromocriptine or cabergoline . Dopamine inhibits prolactin secretion from the pituitary.
Bromocriptine:
Surgery is reserved for cases unresponsive to medical therapy or with acute visual deterioration.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Observation alone Not appropriate — prolactin is very high and patient has symptomatic mass effect (vision changes).
Transsphenoidal pituitary resection Considered second-line if medical therapy fails or if tumor is compressing optic chiasm severely.
Glucagon Has no role in prolactinoma treatment.
Somatostatin Inhibits GH and other hormones , but is not effective for prolactinomas.
What therapy replaces the very hormone that’s missing in patients showing signs of uncontrolled catabolism and high blood sugar?
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Category:
Endo – Pharmacology
A 30-year-old patient presents with complaints of 5 kg weight loss, fatigue, lethargy, polyuria, and polydipsia. His blood sugar level was raised. What is the best treatment for this patient?
This 30-year-old patient presents with:
These features are classic for new-onset Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus (T1DM) or possibly severe Type 2 with catabolic features . In either case, the presence of weight loss and symptoms of hyperglycemia suggests insulin deficiency , and immediate insulin therapy is required to:
Reverse the catabolic state
Prevent diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
Normalize blood glucose levels
Delaying insulin in such patients can lead to dangerous metabolic complications .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
GLP-1 receptor agonists Used in Type 2 diabetes , particularly with obesity — not first-line in symptomatic, likely insulin-deficient patients.
Glyburide (sulfonylurea) Stimulates insulin secretion — ineffective if β-cell function is significantly compromised (as in Type 1).
Thiazolidinediones Improve insulin sensitivity but act too slowly and are not suitable for acute or symptomatic hyperglycemia .
Metformin First-line in stable Type 2 diabetes , but contraindicated in acute illness or significant weight loss until insulin stabilizes the patient.
What hormone is typically missing in anovulatory cycles that can be given in a timed manner to safely trigger menstrual bleeding?
11 / 63
Category:
Endo – Pharmacology
What is the treatment for oligomenorrhea?
Oligomenorrhea refers to infrequent or irregular menstrual cycles , typically defined as menstrual intervals longer than 35 days . It can result from various causes such as PCOS , thyroid disorders , hyperprolactinemia , or hypothalamic dysfunction .
When evaluating a patient, management depends on the underlying cause , but the basic treatment for regulating cycles and ensuring endometrial protection is:
➡️ Cyclical progesterone — administered for 10–14 days every 1–2 months:
Induces regular withdrawal bleeding
Prevents endometrial hyperplasia , which can occur due to unopposed estrogen in anovulatory women
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
None of these Incorrect — untreated oligomenorrhea can lead to infertility and endometrial hyperplasia .
Metformin Helpful in PCOS with insulin resistance , but not the first-line treatment for cycle regulation.
COCPs (Combined oral contraceptive pills) Often used for hormonal regulation , acne, and contraception, but cyclical progesterone is preferred when the goal is just to induce regular shedding without contraception.
Cyproterone acetate An anti-androgen , used in hirsutism and severe acne ; not first-line for simple oligomenorrhea.
Which antithyroid drug is safest to use early in pregnancy due to fewer birth defects, even though it’s not the first choice outside pregnancy?
12 / 63
Category:
Endo – Pharmacology
A 30-year-old pregnant woman, who is a known case of Grave’s disease and has been taking medications for it came for consultation regarding her treatment during pregnancy. Which of the following will be the drug of choice for this patient?
In pregnant women with Graves’ disease , antithyroid medications are required to control maternal hyperthyroidism , which can lead to miscarriage, preterm labor , and fetal hyperthyroidism if untreated.
Propylthiouracil (PTU) is the drug of choice during the first trimester of pregnancy because:
After the first trimester, therapy may be switched to methimazole due to PTU’s potential for hepatotoxicity .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Carbimazole Associated with congenital malformations (e.g., aplasia cutis, choanal/esophageal atresia) if used in the first trimester .
Phenytoin An anticonvulsant , not used in thyroid disorders.
Iodine Can suppress thyroid hormone temporarily but is not safe in pregnancy due to risk of fetal goiter and hypothyroidism .
Beta blocker May be used for symptomatic relief (e.g., propranolol for tremor, tachycardia), but it does not treat the underlying hormone excess .
If the body isn’t making enough stress hormone, how can we test whether the glands can respond to a direct hormonal “kick”?
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Category:
Endo – Physio
A patient presented with weakness, lethargy, and significant weight loss of 5kg. His laboratory investigations revealed hypocalcemia and hyponatremia. What is the best investigation to reach the diagnosis?
This patient presents with:
Weakness, lethargy, and weight loss
Hyponatremia (low sodium)
Hypocalcemia (less specific, but sometimes seen in chronic illness or adrenal insufficiency)
These features raise suspicion for primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison’s disease) , where the adrenal glands fail to produce adequate cortisol (and often aldosterone).
The Synacthen test (also called the ACTH stimulation test ) is the gold standard for diagnosing adrenal insufficiency. It involves:
Giving synthetic ACTH (Synacthen)
Measuring cortisol response after 30–60 minutes
In normal individuals , cortisol levels rise appropriately.
In primary adrenal insufficiency , cortisol fails to rise due to adrenal failure.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
OGTT (Oral Glucose Tolerance Test) Used to diagnose diabetes , not relevant here.
TSH Evaluates thyroid function . Hypothyroidism may cause lethargy, but not hyponatremia + weight loss together with hypocalcemia.
Dexamethasone suppression test Used to diagnose Cushing’s syndrome (cortisol excess), not deficiency.
PTH Would help evaluate calcium abnormalities , but hypocalcemia here is likely secondary to chronic illness or cortisol deficiency — and wouldn’t explain all symptoms.
When the body is in an acidotic crisis due to excess ketones, what test tells you how urgently you need to correct the blood’s pH?
14 / 63
Category:
Endo – Pathology
A patient presented in the emergency department (ER) with diabetic ketoacidosis. What is the immediate investigation performed for the management?
In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) , the most immediate concern is the patient’s acid-base balance and electrolyte status — not long-term glucose control.
Arterial Blood Gases (ABGs) provide rapid and crucial information on:
This guides fluid resuscitation , insulin therapy , and electrolyte replacement , especially potassium .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect Initially
CBC May be useful later to rule out infection, but not urgent for DKA management.
UCE (Urea, Creatinine, Electrolytes) Important but not as immediate as ABG — typically ordered alongside ABG.
HbA1c Reflects long-term glucose control , not useful in acute settings.
Random Blood Sugar (RBS) Confirms hyperglycemia, but diagnosis of DKA also requires acidosis and ketones — ABG is essential.
Which class of drugs helps reduce blood glucose by acting on the kidneys , not the pancreas or liver?
15 / 63
Category:
Endo – Pharmacology
Empagliflozin belongs to which class of drugs?
Empagliflozin is a member of the SGLT2 inhibitor class of antidiabetic drugs.
It works by blocking the SGLT2 transporter in the proximal renal tubules , reducing glucose reabsorption .
This leads to increased urinary glucose excretion , thereby lowering blood glucose levels .
It also provides cardiovascular and renal benefits , making it especially useful in patients with diabetes, heart failure , or chronic kidney disease .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
DPP-4 inhibitor (e.g., sitagliptin) — increases incretin levels by preventing their degradation.
GLP-1 agonist (e.g., liraglutide) — mimics incretin hormone, enhancing insulin secretion and reducing appetite.
Biguanides (e.g., metformin) — reduce hepatic gluconeogenesis and increase insulin sensitivity.
SGLT1 inhibitor Primarily affects glucose absorption in the gut , not the kidney; empagliflozin is SGLT2-selective .
This patient’s bone density is not yet in the osteoporosis range, but her medication history puts her at high risk for fractures — which treatment would directly prevent bone resorption ?
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Category:
Endo – Pharmacology
A 65-year-old woman came to the clinic. She has been on oral steroids for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and had a DEXA scan showing a T score of -1.8. Which of the following would be the best management?
This patient has:
A T-score of -1.8 → osteopenia , not osteoporosis (osteoporosis = T ≤ -2.5)
A history of oral steroid use for COPD , which significantly increases her risk for fragility fractures
Glucocorticoid-induced bone loss is a serious concern even before T-score reaches -2.5 , especially if:
Alendronate , a bisphosphonate , is the first-line treatment in this setting. It:
Inhibits osteoclast-mediated bone resorption
Helps preserve bone density
Reduces vertebral and hip fracture risk
❌ Why the Other Options Are Less Appropriate Alone
Calcium and vitamin D supplements Essential for baseline bone health , but not sufficient alone to prevent fracture in glucocorticoid-induced osteopenia.
Abaloparatide A PTH analog , used for severe osteoporosis . Not first-line in osteopenia with moderate risk .
Raloxifene A SERM used primarily in postmenopausal women with osteoporosis and low breast cancer risk — less effective in steroid-induced cases.
All of these Overly broad; Alendronate is the best single answer per current guidelines.
When blood becomes “milky” due to very high fat levels, which organ—responsible for fat digestion—might be at risk of self-digestion?
17 / 63
Category:
Endo – Pathology
Hypertriglyceridemia is associated with which of the following condition?
Hypertriglyceridemia is a well-known and important cause of acute pancreatitis , especially when triglyceride levels exceed 1000 mg/dL .
Mechanism:
Excess triglycerides are broken down by pancreatic lipase into free fatty acids .
These free fatty acids are toxic to pancreatic acinar cells , causing inflammation, necrosis , and pancreatitis .
Hypertriglyceridemia is the third most common cause of acute pancreatitis after gallstones and alcohol .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Diabetic foot Related to neuropathy, poor circulation, and infection — not directly caused by high triglycerides.
Diabetes type 1 Can be associated with ketoacidosis and other complications, but hypertriglyceridemia is more common in type 2 diabetes or secondary to insulin resistance .
Appendicitis Caused by obstruction of the appendix , not related to lipid metabolism.
Retinopathy Complication of long-standing hyperglycemia , not directly linked to triglyceride levels.
When cortisol is high and ACTH is low, where in the endocrine system does the problem most likely originate — upstream or downstream?
18 / 63
Category:
Endo – Pathology
A 51-year-old man has noted increasing weakness and weight gain over the past 5 months. He has experienced low back pain for the past week. On physical examination, vital signs include a temperature of 37.3°C, pulse of 80/min, respirations of 15/min, and blood pressure of 155/95 mm Hg. He has bilateral breast enlargement, testicular atrophy, and a prominent fat pad in the posterior neck and back. His serum ACTH level is low. A radiograph of the spine shows decreased bone density with a compression fracture at T9, Which of the following findings is most likely to be present in this patient?
This patient has classic signs of Cushing syndrome , including:
Weight gain , central obesity , buffalo hump
Hypertension
Proximal muscle weakness
Osteoporosis with vertebral fracture
Gynecomastia and testicular atrophy (due to hormonal imbalance)
Critically, his serum ACTH is low , which indicates that his Cushing syndrome is ACTH-independent — the source of excess cortisol is not the pituitary or ectopic ACTH , but from the adrenal gland itself .
The most likely cause is a cortisol-secreting adrenal adenoma or carcinoma , which:
A 10-cm adrenal mass is concerning for adrenal carcinoma , which can be functional and cause severe Cushing syndrome .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Decreased radionuclide uptake in a thyroid gland nodule Related to thyroid disorders like a cold nodule; not related to cortisol or ACTH.
Pulmonary 6-cm right hilar mass on chest radiograph Suggestive of small cell carcinoma producing ectopic ACTH — would cause high ACTH , not low.
Sella turcica enlargement with erosion on head CT scan Seen in pituitary adenomas (Cushing disease) — which are ACTH-dependent and would show elevated ACTH , not low.
Retroperitoneal 5-cm mass at the aortic bifurcation Suggestive of paraganglioma or lymphoma , not associated with cortisol production or Cushing syndrome.
After brain injury, which hormone—essential for concentrating urine and preserving body water —might be deficient, leading to dilute urine despite dehydration?
19 / 63
Category:
Endo – Pathology
A 42-year-old man sees his physician because he has had polyuria and polydipsia for the last 4 months. His medical history shows that he fell off a ladder and hit his head just before the onset of these problems. On physical examination, there are no specific findings. Laboratory findings include serum Na+, 155 mmol/L; K+, 3.9 mmol/L; Cl-, 111 mmol/L; C02,27 mmol/L; glucose 84 mg/dL; creatinine, 1 mg/dL; and osmolality, 350 mOsm/mL. The specific gravity of urine is 1.002. This patient is most likely to have a deficiency of which of the following hormones?
This patient presents with:
Polyuria and polydipsia
History of head trauma
Hypernatremia (Na⁺ 155 mmol/L)
High serum osmolality (350 mOsm/kg)
Very dilute urine (specific gravity 1.002)
These findings strongly indicate diabetes insipidus (DI) — specifically central diabetes insipidus , which occurs due to deficiency of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) , often after head trauma or hypothalamic/pituitary injury.
ADH (vasopressin) is secreted by the posterior pituitary and acts on the collecting ducts of the kidney to promote water reabsorption . Without it, water is lost in urine, leading to:
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Melatonin Regulates sleep-wake cycles; has no role in fluid balance.
Corticotrophin (ACTH) Regulates cortisol production — ACTH deficiency would cause hypotension, hyponatremia , not hypernatremia or dilute urine.
Prolactin Affects lactation; unrelated to sodium or water balance.
Oxytocin Involved in uterine contractions and milk let-down ; not related to polyuria or osmolality.
Think about the enzyme in the β-cell that determines when insulin gets released — a mutation here would raise the glucose “alarm threshold.”
20 / 63
Category:
Endo – Biochemistry
A 23-year-old woman has a routine health status examination. Her body mass index is 22. Laboratory studies show fasting plasma glucose is 120 mg/dL. Urinalysis shows mild glucosuria, but no ketonuria or proteinuria. She has no detectable insulin autoantibodies. Her father was similarly affected at age 20. She is most likely to have a mutation in a gene encoding for which of the following?
This young woman presents with:
Mild fasting hyperglycemia (120 mg/dL)
Glucosuria without ketones or protein
No insulin autoantibodies
Strong family history (father had same condition at a young age)
These features are classic for MODY type 2 (Maturity-Onset Diabetes of the Young, type 2) — a monogenic, autosomal dominant form of mild, non-progressive hyperglycemia.
The most common mutation in MODY 2 is in the glucokinase (GCK) gene . Glucokinase acts as a glucose sensor in pancreatic β-cells, triggering insulin release. A defective glucokinase results in a higher glucose threshold for insulin secretion → leading to mild, lifelong fasting hyperglycemia that rarely requires treatment.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
MHC DR Associated with type 1 diabetes mellitus , which involves autoimmune destruction of β-cells — not seen here.
Glucagon Produced by α-cells of the pancreas; not involved in sensing blood glucose or causing MODY.
Insulin Mutations in the insulin gene may cause MODY type 10 , but it’s much rarer than GCK-MODY and usually more severe.
GLUT4 Insulin-dependent glucose transporter found in muscle and fat , not the pancreas. Mutations here would not cause this specific presentation.
If a hormone from the anterior pituitary suppresses the reproductive axis, what essential life function is likely to be disrupted?
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Category:
Endo – Pathology
A 25-year-old woman has noted breast secretions for the last 1 month. She is not breastfeeding and has never been pregnant. She has not menstruated for the past 5 months. Physical examination yields no abnormal findings. MRI of the brain shows a 0.7-cm mass in the adenohypophysis. Which of the following additional complications is most likely to be present in this patient?
This woman presents with:
Galactorrhea (breast secretions)
Amenorrhea (5 months without menstruation)
A 0.7 cm pituitary mass (microadenoma)
These findings strongly suggest a prolactinoma , a prolactin-secreting pituitary adenoma .
Prolactin inhibits GnRH (gonadotropin-releasing hormone), which decreases LH and FSH secretion, leading to:
So, infertility is the most likely additional complication.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Hyperthyroidism Would present with weight loss, heat intolerance, tremors, tachycardia — none are seen here. Also, prolactin is not elevated in hyperthyroidism.
Acromegaly Caused by GH-secreting pituitary adenoma , not prolactin. Presents with enlarged hands, coarse facial features , etc.
SIADH (Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion) Leads to hyponatremia and water retention , not galactorrhea or amenorrhea. It’s usually associated with hypothalamic or ectopic ADH secretion, not pituitary adenoma.
Cushing’s disease Caused by ACTH-secreting pituitary adenoma , resulting in hypercortisolism — features like central obesity, striae, moon face would be present.
If the adrenal glands have been underused for years due to external steroid therapy, what would happen to their structure over time?
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Category:
Endo – Pathology
A 32-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus has been treated with corticosteroid therapy for several years, because of recurrent lupus nephritis. While on vacation, she undergoes an emergency appendectomy for acute appendicitis. On postoperative day 2, she becomes somnolent and develops severe nausea and vomiting. She then becomes hypotensive. Blood cultures are negative, and laboratory studies now show Na+ of 128 mmol/L, K+ of 4.9 mmol/L, Cl- of 89 mmol/L, CO2 of 19 mmol/L, glucose of 52 mg/dL, and creatinine of 1.3 mg/dL. Which of the following morphologic findings in the adrenal glands is most likely to be present in this patient?
This patient with SLE on long-term corticosteroid therapy undergoes surgery and develops acute adrenal crisis postoperatively — presenting with:
Hypotension
Hyponatremia (Na⁺ 128)
Hypoglycemia (glucose 52 mg/dL)
Low CO₂ (metabolic acidosis)
Normal-to-high K⁺ (4.9 mmol/L)
These are classic signs of acute adrenal insufficiency .
Long-term exogenous corticosteroids suppress ACTH secretion through negative feedback. This leads to adrenal cortical atrophy over time. In a stressful situation like surgery, the atrophied adrenals can’t mount a cortisol response , resulting in acute adrenal crisis .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Bilateral cortical nodular hyperplasia Seen in ACTH-dependent Cushing disease (e.g., pituitary adenoma), not in steroid-suppressed patients.
Solitary 1-cm adenoma without contralateral atrophy Suggests nonfunctioning or mildly active tumor — not relevant here. Adenomas that produce cortisol usually suppress the other adrenal (causing unilateral atrophy), not both.
Bilateral hemorrhagic necrosis Characteristic of Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome — sudden adrenal failure due to sepsis (e.g., meningococcemia), which this patient does not have.
Bilateral caseating granulomas Found in tuberculosis — a chronic cause of adrenal insufficiency, not acute post-op failure in a steroid-treated SLE patient.
When evaluating thyroid conditions, pay close attention to the onset and nature of the goiter (painful vs. painless, acute vs. gradual, diffuse vs. nodular) and the patterns of TSH and thyroid hormone levels (T3, T4) .
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Think of a fast-moving, deadly bacteremia in young, otherwise healthy individuals — especially one known for its link to meningitis and adrenal failure.
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Category:
Endo – Pathology
A 33-year-old, previously healthy woman dies suddenly after complaining of a mild sore throat the previous day, At autopsy, her adrenal glands are enlarged and there are extensive bilateral cortical hemorrhages. Which of the following organisms is responsible for the death of the patient?
This patient’s sudden death following a mild illness, combined with bilateral adrenal cortical hemorrhage , is characteristic of Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome — a rare but fatal complication of septicemia .
The most common cause of Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome is Neisseria meningitidis , a gram-negative diplococcus that can cause:
The presence of enlarged, hemorrhagic adrenal glands bilaterally at autopsy is a pathognomonic finding.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Cytomegalovirus Can cause adrenal involvement in immunocompromised patients , but not sudden death with bilateral adrenal hemorrhage.
Histoplasma capsulatum Fungal infection that can involve adrenals chronically , but not associated with sudden hemorrhage.
Mycobacterium tuberculosis Causes chronic adrenal destruction (Addison’s disease), not acute hemorrhage or sudden death.
Streptococcus pneumoniae Can cause meningitis , but rarely leads to Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome or adrenal hemorrhage.
If calcium is high, the body should naturally suppress the hormone that raises calcium. If that hormone is still elevated, where might the problem lie?
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Category:
Endo – Pathology
A 40-year-old man visits the physician due to weakness and easy fatiguability for 2 months. On physical examination, there are no remarkable findings. Laboratory studies show serum calcium of 11.5 mg/dl, inorganic phosphorus of 2.4 mg/dl, and parathyroid hormone of 54 pg/ml, which is near the top of the reference range. Radionuclear bone scan fails to show any uptake. What is the most likely cause of these findings?
This patient presents with:
Elevated serum calcium (11.5 mg/dL)
Low-normal phosphate (2.4 mg/dL)
High-normal PTH (54 pg/mL)
These findings are classic for primary hyperparathyroidism , where PTH is inappropriately elevated for the level of calcium . Normally, high calcium should suppress PTH — so a “normal-high” PTH in the context of hypercalcemia is abnormal .
The most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism is a parathyroid adenoma — a benign tumor of one parathyroid gland.
The radionuclear bone scan not showing uptake also suggests no widespread skeletal disease or metastatic cancer.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Chronic renal failure Causes secondary hyperparathyroidism , with low calcium , high phosphate , and very high PTH due to phosphate retention and vitamin D deficiency.
Hypervitaminosis D Causes hypercalcemia , but with low PTH due to feedback suppression. Also tends to cause high phosphate , not low.
Parathyroid hyperplasia A cause of primary hyperparathyroidism, but usually all four glands are enlarged. It’s less common than adenoma and often part of MEN syndromes .
Parathyroid carcinoma Rare; usually presents with severe hypercalcemia , very high PTH , and more aggressive symptoms like bone pain, fractures, and renal damage .
Think about what happens when poor blood flow , nerve damage , and high blood sugar all affect the same limb for years — what’s the worst outcome?
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Category:
Endo – Pathology
A 52-year-old man has been concerned about a gradual weight gain for many years. He is 174cm (5 ft 7 inches) tall and weighs 91 kg (body mass index 30 kg/m^2). He is taking no medications. On physical examination, he has decreased sensation to pinprick and light touch over the lower extremities. Laboratory studies show glucose of 169 mg/dL, creatinine of 1.9 mg/dL, total cholesterol of 220 mg/dL, HDL cholesterol of 27 mg/dL, and triglycerides of 261 mg/dL. A chest radiograph shows mild cardiomegaly. Five years later, he has claudication in the lower extremities when he exercises. Based on these findings, which of the following complications in lower limbs can occur in this patient?
This patient has long-standing type 2 diabetes mellitus with multiple associated complications:
Obesity (BMI = 30)
Hyperglycemia (glucose 169 mg/dL)
Diabetic nephropathy (elevated creatinine)
Peripheral neuropathy (reduced pinprick/light touch sensation)
Dyslipidemia (high triglycerides, low HDL)
Cardiomegaly , indicating possible diabetic cardiomyopathy
Now he has claudication — pain in the legs during exertion, which suggests peripheral artery disease (PAD)
Over time, PAD + neuropathy + poor glycemic control can lead to:
This is a classic and devastating complication of advanced diabetes .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Chronic pancreatitis More common in alcoholics and causes malabsorption and chronic pain , not linked directly to this diabetic progression.
Systemic amyloidosis Can occur in chronic inflammatory or plasma cell diseases — but this patient has no signs of such conditions.
Ketoacidosis More common in type 1 diabetes ; this patient likely has type 2 , and there’s no acute decompensation or metabolic acidosis mentioned.
Hypoglycemic coma This patient is not on medications , especially insulin or sulfonylureas , which are the main causes of hypoglycemia. His glucose is actually elevated.
If one adrenal is producing excessive hormone on its own, what would happen to the pituitary’s ACTH output — and how would the other adrenal gland respond?
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Category:
Endo – Pathology
A 30-year-old man visits the hospital because he has had a headache, weakness, and a 5-kg weight gain over the last 4 months. On physical examination, his face is puffy. His temperature is 36.9°C, pulse is 79/min, and blood pressure is 160/75 mm Hg while lying down. He has cutaneous striae over the lower abdomen and ecchymoses scattered over the extremities. A radiograph of the spine shows a compressed fracture of T11. Laboratory findings show a fasting plasma glucose level of 200 mg/dL, the plasma cortisol level is 38 pg/dL at 8:00 am and 37 pg/dL at 6:00 pm. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be present in this patient?
This patient presents with Cushing syndrome , suggested by:
Weight gain , puffy face , abdominal striae , hypertension , glucose intolerance/diabetes , muscle weakness , easy bruising , and osteoporotic fractures
Cortisol levels remain high throughout the day (normally, they decline by evening), indicating loss of diurnal variation — a hallmark of Cushing syndrome
To identify the cause , we differentiate between:
ACTH-dependent causes : Pituitary adenoma (Cushing disease), ectopic ACTH (e.g., small-cell lung cancer)
ACTH-independent causes : Adrenal adenoma, adrenal carcinoma, exogenous steroids
In this case:
Persistent high cortisol
Features consistent with Cushing syndrome
No mention of elevated ACTH , and symptoms are not rapidly progressive or malignant-appearing (as in ectopic ACTH)
An adrenal adenoma secreting cortisol would:
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Adenoma of the right adrenal cortex without atrophy of contralateral adrenal cortex This would not happen — ACTH suppression causes atrophy in the non-functioning adrenal .
Corticotroph adenoma of the anterior pituitary, medullary carcinoma of thyroid, and bilateral nodular hyperplasia of the adrenal cortex Medullary thyroid carcinoma is associated with MEN syndromes , not Cushing syndrome.
Corticotroph adenoma with bilateral hyperplasia Seen in Cushing disease , but would usually have elevated ACTH , not suppressed levels.
Small-cell carcinoma of lung with bilateral hyperplasia Ectopic ACTH production leads to rapid onset, severe symptoms , and marked ACTH elevation — not consistent with this patient’s subacute presentation.
This condition causes the thyroid to work overtime because it’s being stimulated, not destroyed . Think about how that might change the structure of the follicles and the immune presence around them.
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Category:
Endo – Pathology
A 40-year-old man comes into the outpatient department because of weight loss, increased appetite, and diplopia. On physical examination, his temperature is 37.7° C, pulse is 106/min, respiration rate is 15/min, and blood pressure is 140/80 mmHg. A fine tremor is observed in his outstretched hand. He has bilateral proptosis. The serum laboratory findings include a serum TSH level of 0.1 pU/mL. A radioiodine scan indicates increased diffuse uptake throughout the thyroid, Which of the following best describes the microscopic appearance of the patient’s thyroid gland?
This patient presents with classic signs of hyperthyroidism :
Weight loss , heat intolerance , increased appetite , tremor , tachycardia , and proptosis (exophthalmos)
His TSH is suppressed , and radioiodine uptake is diffusely increased , indicating Graves disease
Graves disease is an autoimmune hyperthyroidism caused by TSH receptor–stimulating antibodies (TRAb) . These antibodies stimulate the thyroid diffusely, causing:
Hyperplasia of follicular epithelium
Scalloped colloid due to increased uptake
Papillary infoldings into follicular lumen
Lymphoid aggregates in the stroma due to the autoimmune nature
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Nodules with nests of cells separated by hyaline stroma that stains with Congo red → Classic for medullary thyroid carcinoma with amyloid deposition , not Graves disease.
Destruction of follicles, lymphoid aggregates, and Hurthle cell metaplasia → Seen in Hashimoto thyroiditis , a hypothyroid condition, not hyperthyroidism.
Follicular destruction with inflammatory infiltrates containing giant cells → Suggestive of subacute granulomatous thyroiditis (De Quervain) — painful thyroid, often after viral illness.
Enlarged thyroid follicles lined by flattened epithelial cells → Seen in colloid goiter , a non-toxic, euthyroid condition — not associated with autoimmune hyperthyroidism.
Which hormone is known as the “universal off switch,” reducing the secretion of many different gastrointestinal and endocrine hormones?
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Which of the following hormones has inhibitory effects on the release of secretin and cholecystokinin?
Somatostatin is a powerful inhibitory hormone secreted by the D cells of the pancreas and gastrointestinal tract. Its main role is to act as a brake on the digestive system.
It inhibits the release of multiple hormones , including:
Secretin (stimulates pancreatic bicarbonate)
Cholecystokinin (CCK) (stimulates gallbladder contraction and pancreatic enzyme secretion)
Gastrin, insulin, glucagon , and others
By suppressing secretin and CCK , somatostatin slows digestion , reduces enzyme and bile secretion, and allows more time for nutrient absorption.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Glucagon Primarily raises blood glucose levels; no significant inhibitory role on secretin or CCK.
Aldosterone Regulates sodium and water balance via the kidney — unrelated to GI hormone regulation.
Insulin Promotes glucose uptake; no role in inhibiting secretin or CCK.
Growth hormone Regulates growth and metabolism; does not directly affect GI hormone secretion.
This second messenger is synthesized from ATP, not GTP — and it’s one of the most well-known “signal amplifiers” in hormone pathways like glucagon and adrenaline.
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Glucagon is a water-soluble hormone that binds to high-affinity receptors on cell membranes of hepatocytes. It activates a cascade of phosphorylation that leads to the formation of second messengers. Which of the following second messengers does glucagon lead to the formation of?
Glucagon is a water-soluble peptide hormone that acts primarily on hepatocytes (liver cells) to raise blood glucose levels during fasting or stress.
Since it can’t cross the cell membrane , it binds to a G protein–coupled receptor (GPCR) on the cell surface . This activates adenylyl cyclase , an enzyme that converts ATP into cyclic AMP (cAMP) — the key second messenger .
cAMP then activates protein kinase A (PKA) , which triggers a phosphorylation cascade . This leads to:
Glycogen breakdown (glycogenolysis)
Inhibition of glycogen synthesis
Stimulation of gluconeogenesis
Thus, cAMP is the classic second messenger for glucagon signaling.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Cyclic GTP Second messenger for nitric oxide and ANP , not glucagon.
Cyclic ATP Doesn’t exist — ATP is the precursor to cAMP.
Cyclic GDP / Cyclic ADP Not known physiological second messengers in this context.
If the body is in survival mode, it will break down its stored fuel. Which option here is actually a storage form of energy , rather than a signal or product of breakdown?
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Category:
Endo – Biochemistry
Which of the following would NOT increase during starvation?
During starvation , the body shifts into a catabolic state to maintain blood glucose and provide energy. The sequence of changes includes:
Early fasting (first 24 hours):
Prolonged fasting/starvation:
Gluconeogenesis (from amino acids, lactate, glycerol) takes over.
Ketone bodies increase to fuel the brain.
Glucagon , epinephrine , and norepinephrine all rise to mobilize energy reserves.
Thus, glycogen levels decrease , not increase.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Correctly Increased
Glucagon Increases to stimulate glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis .
Epinephrine Enhances lipolysis and supports glucose production during stress.
Norepinephrine Supports sympathetic responses and promotes fat breakdown .
Ketone bodies Increase significantly after 2–3 days of fasting to supply energy to the brain and muscles .
This hormone helps your body conserve water and elevate pressure — so what ion would naturally rise if the kidneys are told to retain more of it?
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Category:
Endo – Physio
A 38-year-old male visits the clinic with complaints of weight gain and weakness of muscles. On examination, he has thin arms and legs, purplish bruises over the abdomen and hip region, and a round face. After performing some blood tests he is diagnosed with Cushing syndrome. Which of the following electrolytes would the report show to be increased in this patient?
Cushing syndrome is caused by excess cortisol , either from endogenous overproduction (e.g., ACTH-secreting tumor, adrenal adenoma) or exogenous steroid use.
Cortisol has mineralocorticoid activity — it can bind aldosterone receptors in the kidney, promoting:
Sodium retention → hypernatremia
Water retention → hypertension
Potassium excretion → hypokalemia
Hydrogen ion loss → metabolic alkalosis
This explains the patient’s weight gain , muscle weakness , and central obesity . The thin limbs are due to protein catabolism , and purple striae from skin thinning and collagen breakdown.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Potassium Usually decreased due to increased urinary loss (hypokalemia).
Chloride Often decreased (due to metabolic alkalosis), not increased.
Calcium Cortisol reduces calcium absorption → may lead to hypocalcemia , not hypercalcemia.
Magnesium Not significantly altered in Cushing’s syndrome.
Would a hormone that is lipid-soluble and regulates metabolism long-term act on surface signals, or would it go deep into the cell and influence gene expression?
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Category:
Endo – Physio
A 21-year-old girl visits the clinic complaining of drowsiness, weight gain, puffiness of the face, and menstrual irregularities. The doctor advises some blood tests and she is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. The doctor prescribes her thyroxin as a treatment. Through which of the following does thyroxin act?
Thyroxine (T₄) , once converted to the more active T₃ , enters the target cell and binds to a nuclear receptor .
These thyroid hormone receptors are located inside the nucleus , where they bind to DNA response elements and regulate gene transcription . This changes the synthesis of proteins , affecting metabolism, growth, and development.
This mechanism is slow but long-lasting , typical of steroid and thyroid hormones — both use nuclear receptors because they are lipid-soluble .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Stimulation of enzyme synthesis at ribosome level Happens after gene transcription is regulated — not the primary site of hormone action.
Cell surface receptor Used by peptide hormones (e.g., insulin, epinephrine). Thyroxine is lipophilic and crosses membranes to act inside the cell.
Direct activation at the enzyme level Characteristic of some signaling molecules, not thyroxine — which acts at the genetic transcription level .
Interaction with nuclear chromatin Too vague and indirect — the actual mechanism is binding to a nuclear receptor , which then interacts with DNA.
If the body is struggling to manage sugar properly, what would you expect to see in the blood after eating — low sugar, normal levels, or too much sugar sticking around?
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Category:
Endo – Physio
What does ‘decreased glucose tolerance’ mean?
Decreased glucose tolerance refers to a reduced ability of the body to handle glucose properly , especially after a glucose-rich meal or oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT). It means that:
The body doesn’t clear glucose efficiently from the blood
This results in higher-than-normal blood glucose levels after eating or glucose intake (i.e., postprandial hyperglycemia )
It’s often an early indicator of insulin resistance or pre-diabetes , and can precede type 2 diabetes .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Decreased ability to absorb glucose from diet Glucose absorption from the gut is usually efficient and not the problem in glucose intolerance.
Normal physiological response It’s not normal — it’s a sign of abnormal glucose regulation.
Increased ability to absorb glucose from diet Again, absorption is not the issue; the problem is how the body processes glucose after it enters .
Following a glucose load, the body responds by hypoglycemia Opposite of what happens in decreased glucose tolerance — blood sugar stays too high , not too low.
Among the breakdown products of heme, which one normally escapes into the urine and gives it part of its color — without indicating disease?
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Which of the following is the normal constituent of urine?
Urobilinogen is a normal breakdown product of hemoglobin metabolism.
Here’s how it works:
Hemoglobin → broken down in macrophages to bilirubin
Bilirubin → conjugated in liver → excreted into bile → reaches intestines
In intestines, it is converted by bacteria into urobilinogen
Some urobilinogen is reabsorbed into the bloodstream and excreted in urine — where it’s either colorless or oxidized to urobilin , giving urine its yellow color.
Thus, small amounts of urobilinogen in urine are normal .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Stercobilin Gives stool its brown color; found in feces , not urine.
Biliverdin Intermediate in heme breakdown, converted to bilirubin — not normally present in urine.
Hemoglobin Should not appear in urine unless there is hemolysis or glomerular damage — a pathological finding.
Bilirubin Conjugated bilirubin may appear in urine in liver disease or obstruction , but it’s not normally present in healthy individuals.
What kind of activity signals the body to grow, repair, and mobilize energy — thereby naturally boosting anabolic hormone levels?
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Which of the following increases the secretion of growth hormone from the anterior pituitary gland?
Growth hormone (GH) is secreted in a pulsatile manner from the anterior pituitary , regulated by a balance between stimulatory (GHRH) and inhibitory (somatostatin) signals.
Exercise is one of the most potent physiological stimuli of GH release. It increases GH to:
The increase in metabolic demand and stress on muscles during exercise signals the hypothalamus to increase GHRH , leading to a surge in GH.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Free fatty acids Elevated levels inhibit GH secretion , acting as a negative feedback signal.
Somatostatin A GH-inhibiting hormone secreted by the hypothalamus — directly suppresses GH release.
Hyperglycemia High blood sugar suppresses GH — the body does not need to mobilize more energy.
Obesity Associated with chronically low GH levels due to persistent high insulin and fatty acids.
Think about how the body protects itself from being overstimulated by too much signal — does it reduce how many receptors are built, or does it simply remove them from the battlefield?
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Which of the following is responsible for the down-regulation of a receptor in the presence of an excess of a hormone?
Down-regulation of receptors refers to a decrease in receptor number or sensitivity in response to excess hormone stimulation — a classic negative feedback mechanism to prevent overstimulation.
This is primarily achieved through internalization of receptors :
After prolonged exposure to high hormone levels, receptors on the cell surface are endocytosed (pulled into the cell).
Once inside, they are either recycled back to the membrane or degraded .
This reduces the number of functional receptors on the surface, leading to reduced cellular response — even if hormone levels remain high.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Chemical nature of receptor Determines how the receptor works, but does not regulate its down-regulation in response to hormone levels.
Activation of receptor molecule Necessary for signaling, but does not cause down-regulation by itself.
Synthesis of receptor Opposite of down-regulation — this refers to up-regulation or increased receptor availability.
Binding of hormone to receptor Triggers activation, but down-regulation happens after prolonged binding and involves receptor internalization, not just binding itself.
Muscles need a quick and local energy source during exertion. What stored compound can they break down rapidly without waiting for help from the liver?
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Which of the following provides glucose to muscles during exercise?
During exercise , muscle cells need rapid energy , and the fastest, most immediate source of glucose is their own stored glycogen .
Muscle glycogenolysis breaks down glycogen into glucose-6-phosphate, which then enters glycolysis to produce ATP for muscle contraction. Importantly, muscles cannot export glucose (they lack glucose-6-phosphatase), so this glucose is used locally within the muscle .
This is the primary source of glucose during early and intense exercise .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Protein breakdown Not a major source of glucose during exercise — it’s a last-resort energy source in prolonged starvation.
Hepatic gluconeogenesis Generates glucose from lactate, amino acids, etc., but is slower and supports blood glucose levels , not immediate muscle energy.
Lipolysis Provides fatty acids , not glucose. Muscles can use fats for energy, but this is slower and oxygen-dependent , not the primary source for quick glucose.
Hepatic glycogenolysis Maintains blood glucose for the brain and other tissues — not the main glucose source inside the muscle
Which receptor class is responsible for tightening blood vessels , particularly in the skin and gut, during stress — and is not involved in directly regulating the heart’s rhythm or speed?
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Increase in which of the following actions of catecholamine on the cardiovascular system is mediated by alpha receptors only?
Catecholamines like norepinephrine and epinephrine act on adrenergic receptors (α and β) throughout the cardiovascular system.
Alpha-1 adrenergic receptors , located on vascular smooth muscle , are primarily responsible for vasoconstriction . When activated, they increase intracellular calcium, causing contraction of vascular smooth muscle → leading to increased peripheral resistance and blood pressure .
This vasoconstriction is mediated exclusively by alpha receptors , particularly α1 — not β receptors.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Strength of vascular muscle contraction A vague option — if referring to the heart (myocardium), β1 receptors control contractility. If vascular smooth muscle, it’s still tone , not “strength” per se — and the correct interpretation is already covered by vasoconstriction.
Blood flow to coronary arteries Regulated largely by local metabolic factors (e.g., adenosine, NO), not alpha receptors. Catecholamines may constrict coronary vessels via α , but β2-mediated vasodilation also plays a role — so not “alpha only.”
Heart rate Controlled by β1 adrenergic receptors in the SA node — not alpha.
Velocity of conduction in heart Controlled by β1 receptors in the AV node — not alpha.
Which enzyme in glucose metabolism plays a “sensor” role in the pancreas — determining whether glucose is high enough to trigger insulin release?
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Category:
Endo – Biochemistry
A postpartum 24-year-old with gestational diabetes requests a follow-up. Diet alone controls her blood glucose 12 weeks after giving birth. Her fasting glucose is 100-120 mg/dL. Her medical history is otherwise normal. Vitals, BMI, and physical exam are normal. Her gestational diabetes and fasting hyperglycemia are likely genetic. Which enzyme’s reduced activity is likely responsible?
This patient has mild fasting hyperglycemia that was first noticed during pregnancy (gestational diabetes) and has persisted postpartum . Her glucose is elevated but not diabetic-range, and it’s well-controlled with diet alone — this suggests a genetic form of mild hyperglycemia , most likely MODY (Maturity-Onset Diabetes of the Young) type 2 , caused by glucokinase (GCK) deficiency .
Glucokinase acts as the glucose sensor in pancreatic β-cells. It catalyzes the phosphorylation of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate — the first step in glycolysis. Its reduced activity raises the threshold at which β-cells secrete insulin, so patients have mild fasting hyperglycemia , especially during metabolic stress (like pregnancy), but usually don’t develop severe diabetes .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Lactate dehydrogenase Converts pyruvate to lactate — not involved in glucose sensing or regulation of insulin release.
Enolase Converts 2-phosphoglycerate to phosphoenolpyruvate — a late glycolytic step, not rate-limiting or regulatory.
Phosphofructokinase (PFK) Rate-limiting enzyme in glycolysis, but not involved in pancreatic glucose sensing. Its defect would affect energy metabolism broadly, not cause isolated hyperglycemia.
Pyruvate kinase Catalyzes final step in glycolysis; deficiency leads to hemolytic anemia , not hyperglycemia.
Think about a hormone that plays a key role in neural development , muscle tone , and gut motility — and whose deficiency in newborns can cause silent but dangerous developmental delays.
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Category:
Endo – Pathology
The emergency room receives a 2-month-old boy with worsening “floppiness” and poor eating. The baby was born vaginally to a 38-year-old lady. The parents call the baby a “good baby” who rarely cries and sleeps through the night but has been hard to wake for breastfeeding. Stools are now tiny and pellet-like. Examination reveals a hypotonic child with a big tongue, anterior fontanelle, and reducible umbilical hernia. Which of the following conditions is the infant suffering from?
This infant presents with floppiness , poor feeding , constipation , hypotonia , macroglossia , umbilical hernia , and lethargy — all classic signs of congenital hypothyroidism .
Thyroid hormone is essential for brain development , muscle tone , and metabolism . Deficiency in infancy causes:
Lethargy , minimal crying (“good baby”)
Hypotonia (“floppy baby”)
Constipation (tiny pellet stools)
Macroglossia (big tongue)
Delayed milestones , umbilical hernia
Prolonged jaundice (often present earlier)
Early diagnosis is critical , as untreated congenital hypothyroidism leads to irreversible intellectual disability . That’s why newborn screening is done universally in many countries.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
Down syndrome May have hypotonia and umbilical hernia, but wouldn’t explain constipation, sleepiness, macroglossia, or feeding difficulty at this level. Also, there’s no mention of dysmorphic facial features , simian crease, or poor Moro reflex.
Addison’s disease Rare in infants and presents with hyperpigmentation, vomiting, low sodium, low BP — not a “good baby” or macroglossia.
Botulism Causes floppy baby syndrome, but typically in the U.S. it’s associated with honey exposure or contaminated food. The onset is acute , not slow and progressive, and doesn’t cause macroglossia or hernia .
Galactosemia Presents in newborns with vomiting, jaundice, hepatomegaly , and E. coli sepsis — not hypotonia with macroglossia and hernia.
Which glucose transporter would make the most sense for a cell whose job is to secrete insulin only when blood sugar is high ?
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Which of the following transporters does glucose use to enter the pancreatic beta cells in response to hypoglycemia?
In pancreatic beta cells , glucose entry is crucial for sensing blood glucose levels and triggering insulin secretion .
The transporter responsible is GLUT-2 — a low-affinity, high-capacity glucose transporter. This means it only becomes active when blood glucose is high , making it ideal for a “glucose sensor.”
Once glucose enters via GLUT-2, it is metabolized to increase ATP, which closes K⁺ channels, depolarizes the membrane, opens Ca²⁺ channels, and leads to insulin release .
In hypoglycemia , GLUT-2 allows less glucose into the cell due to its low affinity, so insulin is not secreted — which is exactly what the body wants during low blood sugar.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
GLUT-4 Found in muscle and adipose tissue ; insulin-dependent. Not present in beta cells.
GLUT-3 Found in neurons ; high affinity — helps brain take up glucose even during hypoglycemia.
GLUT-5 Transports fructose , not glucose.
GLUT-1 Found in RBCs and the blood-brain barrier ; high-affinity transporter, not the main one in beta cells.
Fat breakdown is an energy-releasing process activated in stress. Think: which receptor helps ramp up metabolism specifically in fat cells , not heart or vessels?
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Which of the following receptors are responsible for mediating the lipolytic effect of catecholamines? – DISPUTED
Catecholamines like epinephrine and norepinephrine stimulate lipolysis — the breakdown of triglycerides into free fatty acids — to provide energy, especially during stress or fasting.
This lipolytic effect is primarily mediated through β3 adrenergic receptors found on adipose tissue . When stimulated, they activate adenylyl cyclase , increase cAMP , and activate hormone-sensitive lipase (HSL) , which breaks down fat.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
β1 adrenergic receptors Mainly found in the heart ; they increase heart rate and contractility, not fat breakdown.
β2 adrenergic receptors Involved in smooth muscle relaxation (e.g., bronchodilation), not the main mediators of lipolysis.
α1 adrenergic receptors Mediate vasoconstriction and smooth muscle contraction — not involved in lipolysis.
α2 adrenergic receptors Actually inhibit lipolysis by reducing cAMP levels, opposing β-receptor activity.
Think about which hormone naturally restrains growth signals at the pituitary level. If too much growth is the problem, what kind of signal would logically help suppress it?
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Which of the following hormonal treatments would provide the greatest therapeutic benefit in patients with acromegaly?
Acromegaly is caused by excess growth hormone (GH) secretion, usually from a pituitary adenoma. This leads to elevated insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1) , causing the characteristic symptoms: enlarged hands/feet, coarse facial features, organomegaly, and metabolic disturbances.
To treat it, we need to reduce GH secretion .
Somatostatin (also called growth hormone–inhibiting hormone) is a hypothalamic hormone that inhibits the anterior pituitary from releasing GH . Synthetic analogs like octreotide are used clinically to control GH levels and shrink tumors.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
GHRH Stimulates GH release — would worsen acromegaly.
Glucocorticoid Has no direct inhibitory effect on GH or IGF-1 in this context; not a treatment for acromegaly.
Growth hormone Giving more GH in a condition already caused by excess GH would exacerbate symptoms.
Insulin May be affected by GH excess (due to insulin resistance), but insulin itself doesn’t treat the underlying cause.
Consider the hormonal balance after delivery: when natural stimulation is removed, certain signals should subside. If a process continues despite the absence of its usual trigger, what internal mechanism might be overriding the body’s feedback?
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Category:
Endo – Physio
A 30-year-old woman completed a routine pregnancy with the uncomplicated delivery of a normal-sized baby girl 6 months ago. The woman is currently experiencing galactorrhea (persistent discharge of milk-like secretions from the breast) and has not yet resumed regular menstrual periods. The baby had been bottle-fed since birth. What is the most likely explanation of the galactorrhea?
This woman has galactorrhea and absent menstruation 6 months after giving birth, despite not breastfeeding . That’s not a normal postpartum state.
The hormone prolactin stimulates milk production and suppresses GnRH, which stops ovulation and menstruation. Since she isn’t nursing, ongoing high prolactin is abnormal — likely from a pituitary cause like a prolactinoma.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Wrong
Normal postpartum response Not normal at 6 months without breastfeeding.
Increased dopamine synthesis Dopamine inhibits prolactin — it would reduce, not raise, it.
Insufficient TSH secretion This would not cause high prolactin. Hypothyroidism may increase prolactin, but only when TRH is elevated , not when TSH is low.
Reduced growth hormone secretion GH has no role in lactation or menstrual cycles.
Consider that only a portion of total calcium circulates freely — the rest is bound or complexed.
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Category:
Endo – Physio
As part of a routine clinical examination, a patient’s serum electrolyte levels were measured. Among the measurements, it was determined that the total plasma calcium concentration was 10.2 mg/dL. What percentage of total plasma calcium is normally present as the free active Ca+ ion?
Why the other options are incorrect:
25%: Too low — ionized calcium is about 50%, not 25%.
1%: Far too low.
100%: Total plasma calcium is partly bound — not all is free.
60%: Slight overestimate — ionized fraction is about 50%.
Consider which situation involves an external hormone source reducing the body’s natural hormone production through feedback.
47 / 63
Category:
Endo – Physio
Which of the following is consistent with a decreased rate of ACTH secretion?
ACTH is secreted by the anterior pituitary to stimulate cortisol production.
Long-term use of exogenous glucocorticoids leads to negative feedback on the hypothalamus and pituitary → decreased ACTH secretion.
This may result in secondary adrenal insufficiency if glucocorticoids are withdrawn suddenly.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Stress increases CRH → increased ACTH.
Pituitary adenoma usually causes increased ACTH (if ACTH-secreting).
Low serum glucocorticoid would stimulate ACTH release, not decrease it.
In primary adrenal insufficiency, low cortisol triggers high ACTH (compensatory rise).
Think about which condition would cause the thyroid gland to fail , making the pituitary work harder
48 / 63
Category:
Endo – Pathology
A 40-year-old man presents with complaints of chronic fatigue, diffuse muscle aches, and intermittent numbness in his fingers. On examination, there is modest weight gain but no palpable thyroid enlargement. Laboratory evaluation reveals a thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level >10 μU/L (reference range: 0.5–5.0 μU/L) and a free thyroxine (T4) level that is low to low-normal.
These findings are most consistent with which of the following conditions?
High TSH + Low T4 = Primary hypothyroidism → thyroid gland is failing, so pituitary increases TSH to compensate.
Autoimmune thyroid disease (Hashimoto thyroiditis) is the most common cause of hypothyroidism in this setting — even without palpable thyroid.
Symptoms (fatigue, weight gain, myalgias, numbness) also fit hypothyroidism.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Hyperthyroidism → would show low TSH + high T4 — opposite of this case.
Iodine deficiency → rare in developed countries; patient has no signs of endemic goiter.
Hyperthyroidism secondary to hypothalamic-pituitary defect → hyperthyroidism would show low TSH + high T4 — not the case.
Hypothyroidism secondary to hypothalamic-pituitary defect → in central hypothyroidism , TSH would be low or inappropriately normal , not elevated.
Consider which scenario would cause the body to reduce the need to retain sodium and water — and therefore downregulate aldosterone.
49 / 63
Category:
Endo – Physio
Which of the following most likely results in a decreased release of aldosterone?
Aldosterone is released in response to:
If mean arterial blood pressure rises , the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS) is suppressed → less aldosterone is released.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Decreased Na⁺ at macula densa : Stimulates renin → aldosterone .
Rise in serum potassium : Directly stimulates aldosterone to promote K⁺ excretion.
Increased renin secretion : Leads to more aldosterone .
Fall in mean arterial BP : Stimulates RAAS → more aldosterone .
Think about which hormone from the adrenal cortex has a direct, long-term effect on a certain organ’s handling of sodium and water .
50 / 63
Category:
Endo – Physio
How does the adrenal gland regulate blood pressure?
Aldosterone is a mineralocorticoid secreted by the zona glomerulosa (outer layer of adrenal cortex).
It acts on the kidneys to:
It is the key hormone in adrenal regulation of long-term blood pressure — through volume control.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Epinephrine (medulla) :
Norepinephrine (adrenal cortex) :
Cortisol (zona fasciculata) :
Testosterone (zona reticularis) :
Think about which surface embryonic layer gives rise to structures related to specific glands..
51 / 63
Category:
Endo – Embryology
Which of the following gives rise to the anterior part of the pituitary gland?
The anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis) develops from an upward growth of oral ectoderm , called Rathke’s pouch .
Rathke’s pouch detaches from the roof of the mouth and forms the anterior pituitary.
The posterior pituitary comes from neuroectoderm — extension of the hypothalamus.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Mesoderm : Does not contribute to the pituitary gland.
Neuroectoderm : Forms posterior pituitary, not anterior.
Oral endoderm : Incorrect — ectoderm , not endoderm, forms anterior pituitary.
Trophoblast : Forms placenta, not involved in pituitary development.
Think about which migratory cells contribute to structures with neural and endocrine functions.
52 / 63
Category:
Endo – Embryology
During the developmental process of the adrenal gland, which of the following would lead to the formation of chromaffin cells?
The adrenal gland has two parts:
Chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla (which secrete catecholamines like adrenaline and noradrenaline) are derived from neural crest cells .
These migrating neural crest cells infiltrate the developing adrenal cortex to form the medulla.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Notochord : Forms axial structures, not involved in adrenal development.
Endoderm : Forms gut and associated organs, not adrenal medulla.
Coelomic mesothelium : Forms adrenal cortex , not chromaffin cells.
Splanchnic mesoderm : Forms heart, blood vessels, and gut connective tissue — not chromaffin cells.
Think about the midline structure that migrates from the pharyngeal floor during development — not a derivative of a pharyngeal pouch.
53 / 63
Category:
Endo – Embryology
A patient comes into the clinic with a complaint of swelling in front of the neck. After examinations and investigations, a diagnosis of an enlarged thyroid gland was made. Which of the following does the enlarged gland develop from?
The thyroid gland develops from a midline endodermal thickening in the floor of the primitive pharynx — at the foramen cecum .
It then descends into the neck to form the thyroid gland.
This explains why thyroglossal duct remnants can be found along this path.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Dorsal bud : Refers to the pancreas, not thyroid.
Third pharyngeal pouch : Gives rise to inferior parathyroids and thymus , not thyroid.
First pharyngeal pouch : Forms middle ear structures and Eustachian tube — unrelated to thyroid.
Rathke’s pouch : Forms anterior pituitary — not the thyroid.
Consider that a hyperactive gland does not maintain a uniform follicular structure — activity level varies between follicles.
54 / 63
Category:
Endo – Histology
A 32-year-old female presents with a history of palpitation, diarrhea, and weight loss for one month. Examination reveals bulging eyes that are exophthalmic in appearance. Blood tests reveal elevated levels of antibodies against the thyroid tissue, indicating Grave’s disease.
Which of the following features does the hyperactive follicle of the affected gland have?
In Grave’s disease , thyroid follicles are hyperactive and show:
Tall columnar epithelium
Scalloped/irregular colloid due to increased uptake
Variable follicular sizes — some small, some enlarged, depending on activity
Colloid amount is usually reduced , as hormone synthesis & release is very active.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Large follicular size : Follicles are variable in size, not uniformly large.
Acidophilic colloid : The colloid shows scalloping ; no distinct acidophilic change typical.
Large amount of colloid : In inactive thyroid — here, colloid is used up quickly → less colloid .
Basophilic colloid : Colloid is not distinctly basophilic in hyperactive glands.
Consider which congenital anomaly results in an anatomical ring that can physically obstruct the duodenum.
55 / 63
Category:
Endo – Embryology
A newborn is brought into the emergency department with complaints of intolerance of oral feeding and greenish vomiting. Radiography shows duodenal obstruction with stomach dilation. Which of the following situations is most likely in the case mentioned above?
Why the other options are incorrect:
Pyloric stenosis :
Hyperplasia of pancreas :
Hiatal hernia :
Esophageal atresia :
Focus on which part of the pancreas produces digestive secretions , not hormones.
56 / 63
Category:
Endo – Histology
A patient comes into the outpatient department with severe pain in the epigastrium radiating to the back. After examination and investigation, a diagnosis of inflammation of the pancreas is made on the basis of increased levels of digestive enzymes from the exocrine part of the pancreas.
Which of the following cells of the affected part of the gland are responsible for increased enzyme levels?
The exocrine pancreas secretes digestive enzymes (amylase, lipase, proteases).
These enzymes are produced by serous acini — clusters of acinar cells.
In pancreatitis, damaged acini leak large amounts of enzymes into the blood — leading to elevated serum amylase, lipase.
Endocrine cells (alpha, beta, delta, islet cells) produce hormones — not digestive enzymes.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Alpha cells : Secrete glucagon — endocrine.
Beta cells : Secrete insulin — endocrine.
Delta cells : Secrete somatostatin — endocrine.
Islets of Langerhans : Clusters of endocrine cells — no digestive enzyme role.
Think about which rapid-acting stress hormone kicks in to support glucose levels if the primary counter-regulatory hormone doesn’t suffice.
57 / 63
Category:
Endo – Physio
Which hormone functions as the second line of defence to prevent hypoglycemia?
The first line of defense against hypoglycemia is glucagon , which rapidly increases blood glucose through glycogenolysis.
Epinephrine acts as the second line of defense , stimulating:
Epinephrine helps maintain glucose availability when glucagon alone is insufficient.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Growth hormone : Slower, long-term action — enhances lipolysis and reduces glucose uptake over hours.
Insulin : Lowers blood glucose; would worsen hypoglycemia.
Cortisol : Acts later (hours), supports gluconeogenesis — not an immediate defense.
Glucagon : First line of defense, not second.
Consider which acute abdominal complication is directly linked to severe hypertriglyceridemia, especially above 1000 mg/dL.
58 / 63
Category:
Endo – Pathology
A 34-year-old woman presents to the outpatient clinic for routine follow-up, one year after being prescribed fenofibrate for a lipid disorder. She reports frequent non-adherence to the medication regimen. Additionally, she mentions a strong family history of lipid disorders, with several maternal uncles on lipid-lowering therapy. On examination, her height is 163 cm (5’4″), weight 82 kg (180 lb), with a BMI of 31.6 kg/m². Notable findings include bilateral yellow plaques on the eyelids and multiple firm, painless nodules over the extensor surfaces of the hands. Laboratory analysis reveals a triglyceride level of 1100 mg/dL (12.43 mmol/L).
This patient is at greatest risk of developing which of the following complications?
Severely elevated triglycerides (> 1000 mg/dL) greatly increase risk of acute pancreatitis .
This is due to excess chylomicrons impairing pancreatic blood flow and triggering inflammation.
Patients often show xanthomas when triglycerides are elevated — seen here.
Pancreatitis is the most immediate and life-threatening risk in this patient.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Coronary heart disease : Elevated LDL is more strongly associated with CHD; triglycerides contribute less directly. While this is a long-term risk, pancreatitis is more urgent here.
Cholelithiasis : Fibrates may increase gallstone risk, but no gallstone symptoms here; also, TG elevation more likely leads to pancreatitis first.
Appendicitis : No relationship to triglyceride levels or lipid metabolism.
Hepatitis : No mention of hepatotoxic drug use or liver enzyme abnormalities.
Think about the most chronic, slowly progressive pattern of neuropathy commonly seen in long-standing poorly controlled diabetes.
59 / 63
Category:
Endo – Pathology
A 60-year-old female presents to the clinic with complaints of pins and needles sensation along with burning feet over the last 8 to 9 months. She is a known case of diabetes and has been non-compliant with oral hypoglycemic therapy for the last 15 years. Clinical examination reveals sensory loss in a stocking pattern, absent ankle jerks, and subtle weakness of dorsiflexion of the toes. Which of the following is the dominant type of neuropathy in this patient?
The most common type of diabetic neuropathy is distal symmetric polyneuropathy (also called distal symmetric neuropathy).
It typically presents with:
Bilateral symptoms starting in the feet (stocking pattern).
Burning, tingling, pins and needles sensations.
Loss of ankle jerks.
Mild weakness in distal muscles (toe dorsiflexion).
It progresses slowly over months to years — fits this case perfectly.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Amyotrophic neuropathy : Involves proximal muscle weakness and wasting, usually of thighs or pelvic girdle — not the distal, sensory-dominant pattern seen here.
Entrapment neuropathy : Localized, single nerve compression (e.g., carpal tunnel); not symmetric stocking pattern.
Mononeuropathy multiplex : Multiple single nerves affected in an asymmetric, patchy way — this patient has a symmetric pattern.
Small fiber neuropathy : Presents mostly with pain and temperature sensory issues without weakness or reflex loss — here weakness and absent reflexes suggest involvement of large fibers too.
Think about which medication not only reduces thyroid hormone production but also carries a known risk of serious bone marrow suppression .
60 / 63
Category:
Endo – Pharmacology
A patient who is taking antithyroid drugs for hyperthyroidism develops sore throat and fever. Her total leukocyte count is low. Which of the following drugs is she most likely taking?
Methimazole is an antithyroid drug used to treat hyperthyroidism by inhibiting thyroid hormone synthesis.
One of its serious adverse effects is agranulocytosis (a marked reduction in neutrophils).
Agranulocytosis presents with fever, sore throat, and low leukocyte count — exactly what this patient shows.
Patients on methimazole are advised to report sore throat and fever promptly.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Nadolol and Propranolol : Beta-blockers; used for symptomatic control in hyperthyroidism (reduce heart rate, tremors), but they do not cause agranulocytosis.
Radioactive iodine : Destroys thyroid tissue, but agranulocytosis is not a typical side effect.
Digoxin : Cardiac glycoside; used in heart failure and atrial fibrillation. Does not affect leukocyte count.
Consider which hormone plays a direct role in controlling how much water your kidneys reabsorb.
61 / 63
Category:
Endo – Physio
Diabetes insipidus is caused by deficiency of which hormone?
Diabetes insipidus (DI) is a condition characterized by:
The cause is a deficiency of ADH (also called vasopressin), or a lack of response to it.
ADH acts on the kidneys to promote water reabsorption . Without it, water is lost in urine.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Angiotensin II : Involved in vasoconstriction and blood pressure regulation, not directly related to water reabsorption in DI.
Aldosterone : Regulates sodium and water retention, but DI is specifically due to ADH issues.
FSH : Follicle-stimulating hormone; unrelated to kidney water handling.
Insulin : Regulates blood glucose; deficiency causes diabetes mellitus, not DI.
Think about when the body first starts needing androgen production from the adrenal cortex — is this requirement already present during fetal life, or does it become important later?
62 / 63
Category:
Endo – Embryology
When is zona reticularis developed?
The zona reticularis is the innermost layer of the adrenal cortex.
It is responsible for producing weak androgens (e.g., DHEA, androstenedione).
This layer is not fully developed during fetal life .
It begins to develop postnatally , typically over the first few years after birth.
Why the other options are incorrect:
In ninth month of fetal life : The fetal adrenal cortex at this stage is dominated by a large fetal zone and primitive cortical zones — not a developed zona reticularis.
In fifth, sixth, or third month of fetal life :
Early adrenal development occurs, but zona reticularis formation does not occur this early .
The definitive cortex and zona fasciculata start forming during these months — zona reticularis comes later, after birth.
Think about the first step after cholesterol takes its leap of faith — the molecule that becomes the “parent” of all steroid hormones.
63 / 63
Category:
Endo – Biochemistry
Which of the following is the obligatory and intermediate lipophilic and hydrophobic hormone in the biosynthesis of both estradiol and dihydrotestosterone?
Pregnenolone is the first and most essential intermediate in the steroid hormone biosynthesis pathway . It is synthesized from cholesterol (27C) through the action of the enzyme desmolase (CYP11A1) , located in the mitochondria of steroidogenic tissues (like adrenal cortex, ovaries, and testes).
Once formed, pregnenolone becomes the common precursor for all classes of steroid hormones, including:
Glucocorticoids (e.g., cortisol)
Mineralocorticoids (e.g., aldosterone)
Androgens (e.g., testosterone, dihydrotestosterone)
Estrogens (e.g., estradiol)
Thus, whether the end goal is estradiol or dihydrotestosterone (DHT) , the pathway must begin with pregnenolone — making it the obligatory intermediate in all steroid hormone production.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Testosterone ❌ Comes later in the pathway — it’s a precursor for DHT , but not required for estradiol , which can be formed from androstenedione .
Androstenedione ❌ Important downstream branch point , but pregnenolone must be formed first before reaching this stage.
Dihydrotestosterone (DHT) ❌ It’s a final product , not an intermediate. Made from testosterone via 5α-reductase .
Progesterone ❌ A downstream metabolite of pregnenolone via 3β-HSD , important in glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid pathways , but not essential in the androgen/estrogen pathway .
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