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Blood – Microbiology
Compiled Topical Questions of Blood – Microbiology
Think of the microbial form that can survive boiling, radiation, and many disinfectants, lying dormant until conditions improve.
1 / 27
Tags:
2023
What is the most resistant form of microbial life to physical and chemical agents?
Microorganisms vary in their resistance to destruction by physical (heat, radiation) and chemical (disinfectants, antiseptics) agents. Understanding the most resistant form is important for sterilization and infection control.
Viruses : Generally less resistant because many lack protective structures and rely on a protein coat. Some non-enveloped viruses can be quite resistant but overall not the most resistant.
Gram-negative bacteria : They have an outer membrane that provides some protection, but they are less resistant than spores.
Fungal spores : More resistant than vegetative fungal cells but less than bacterial endospores.
Bacterial endospores : These are dormant, tough, and non-reproductive structures formed by some bacteria (e.g., Bacillus and Clostridium species). Endospores resist heat, radiation, desiccation, and many chemicals, making them the most resistant .
Protozoan cysts : Resistant to environmental stresses but generally less resistant than bacterial endospores.
Option analysis:
Viruses → Not the most resistant overall.
Gram-negative bacteria → Vulnerable to many agents compared to spores.
Fungal spores → Resistant but not the most resistant.
Bacterial endospores → Correct — most resistant form known.
Protozoan cysts → Resistant, but less than bacterial endospores.
Summary:
Bacterial endospores have the highest resistance to physical and chemical agents due to their tough outer layers and dormant metabolic state.
Think about which malaria species causes the most severe intravascular hemolysis—and is infamous for complications involving kidney injury, cerebral involvement, and high mortality if untreated. Which one is the true “villain” of the Plasmodium genus?
2 / 27
Tags:
2020
What is Blackwater fever a complication of?
Blackwater fever is a rare but severe complication of Plasmodium falciparum malaria. It involves massive intravascular hemolysis , leading to the release of hemoglobin into the urine , which turns the urine dark red or black —hence the name “blackwater.”
Key Features of Blackwater Fever:
Why the correct answer is right:
P. falciparum infects RBCs of all ages , leading to a high parasite load and massive hemolysis .
It is also known for causing cerebral malaria , ARDS , and renal failure .
Why the other options are incorrect:
Ovale malaria: Milder and rarely causes serious complications; it causes relapsing fever but not Blackwater fever.
Amoebic dysentery: Caused by Entamoeba histolytica , a protozoan, not a Plasmodium species. It affects the colon, not RBCs.
Dengue: A viral hemorrhagic fever that can cause capillary leakage and bleeding, but not hemoglobinuria from RBC lysis.
Vivax malaria: Known for relapses and hepatocytic hypnozoites, but typically does not cause severe hemolysis like falciparum .
This golden bug may cause serious blood infections, but it often just hangs out quietly at the front entrance of your airway .
3 / 27
Tags:
2020
An outbreak of septicemia by Staphylococcus aureus occurred in a children’s ward. Where is the causative organism usually found as part of the normal flora?
🔹 Why Nose is correct:
Staphylococcus aureus is commonly found as part of the normal flora in the anterior nares (nostrils) of healthy individuals. Around 20–30% of the population are persistent carriers , while others may be intermittent or non-carriers.
This colonization is typically asymptomatic , but in hospitalized or immunocompromised patients, nasal carriage can serve as a reservoir for infection , particularly in settings like surgical wounds, catheter-related infections, and outbreaks such as septicemia .
Nasal carriage is especially relevant in hospital settings, where contact transmission from healthcare workers or surfaces can lead to outbreaks in vulnerable populations like children or ICU patients.
❌ Why the other options are incorrect:
Lower respiratory tract Typically sterile; colonization here would suggest pathological infection , not normal flora.
Colon Dominated by anaerobes like Bacteroides and E. coli . S. aureus is not a common resident here.
Gastrointestinal tract Although some transient presence may occur, it’s not a major colonization site for S. aureus .
Throat Streptococcus pyogenes is more commonly associated with throat colonization. S. aureus prefers the anterior nares over the oropharynx.
This common laboratory bacterium is often used in genetic experiments partly because of how fast it can divide. Think about whether it can double in hours, or much sooner.
4 / 27
Tags:
2020
What is the generation time of Escherichia coli in a lab?
The generation time (also called doubling time) is the time it takes for a population of bacteria to double in number under optimal conditions.
For Escherichia coli (E. coli) in a laboratory setting with ideal growth conditions (such as nutrient-rich media and optimal temperature ~37°C), the generation time is approximately 20 minutes.
This rapid reproduction rate makes E. coli a model organism in molecular biology and microbiology research.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
20 hours, 20 weeks, 20 months, 20 days: These are far too long for bacterial replication under lab conditions. E. coli can undergo multiple generations in just a few hours.
Consider the key molecules and mechanisms involved in the immune system’s ability to “clean up” pathogens once they are engulfed. What is required to effectively kill the pathogens after ingestion?
5 / 27
Tags:
2020
A child is suffering from chronic granulomatous disease. He has a genetic deficiency due to which he is more prone to infections, especially staphylococcal infection. Why is this?
Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD) is a genetic immunodeficiency disorder that primarily affects phagocytes (like neutrophils and macrophages), which are crucial for the body’s defense against infections. This condition leads to an impaired immune response, particularly in dealing with certain bacterial and fungal infections.
In CGD, there is a deficiency in NADPH oxidase , which is an enzyme complex responsible for the production of reactive oxygen species (ROS), such as the superoxide radical (O₂⁻) , during the oxidative burst . This burst is essential for killing engulfed pathogens (like bacteria) inside phagocytes.
Without NADPH oxidase , the phagocytes cannot effectively generate these reactive molecules to kill bacteria, resulting in recurrent and severe infections.
🔬 Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Decreased superoxide radical :
This is directly related to the lack of NADPH oxidase. The superoxide radical (O₂⁻) is one of the key reactive molecules produced by NADPH oxidase during the oxidative burst. So, decreased superoxide radical is a result of the NADPH oxidase deficiency, not a separate cause.
Decreased phosphorylative ability :
This refers to problems with phosphorylation pathways, which are involved in various cellular processes like signal transduction and energy production. While important for cell functions, phosphorylative ability is not specifically related to CGD or the immune system’s ability to fight infections.
Lack of antibody coating :
Antibody coating (also known as opsonization ) helps phagocytes recognize and engulf pathogens, but this is not the primary defect in CGD. CGD affects the phagocytes’ ability to kill pathogens once they have been engulfed, due to the lack of reactive oxygen species (ROS), not the inability to bind antibodies.
Absence of cofactors such as iodine and bromine :
These elements may be involved in some immune responses (e.g., halogenation reactions in certain types of bacteria), but they are not the primary factors responsible for the recurrent infections seen in CGD. The core issue is the lack of NADPH oxidase , which impairs the production of ROS and affects the ability of phagocytes to kill pathogens.
Think about which cephalosporin from this generation is prescribed for outpatient use, particularly when IV access isn’t necessary.
6 / 27
Tags:
2020
Which one of the following is an oral third generation cephalosporin?
Cefixime is a third-generation cephalosporin that is administered orally . It is used to treat a variety of bacterial infections, including:
Key Features of Cefixime:
Good oral bioavailability
Broad-spectrum activity : Effective against many Gram-negative organisms
Less effective against Gram-positive organisms compared to first-generation cephalosporins
Stable against some beta-lactamases
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Ceftizoxime :
Cefazidime :
Cefotaxime :
Ceftriaxone :
Among the Plasmodium species, one is notorious for targeting all stages of red blood cells and causing deadly vascular complications. Consider what allows a parasite to cause both kidney and brain damage simultaneously.
7 / 27
Tags:
2018
Which parasite causes blackwater fever and cerebral malaria?
🔹 Why Plasmodium falciparum is correct:
Plasmodium falciparum is the most dangerous species of malaria-causing parasites in humans. It is known for causing severe malaria , including two life-threatening complications:
Cerebral malaria : This results from the sequestration of infected red blood cells in cerebral capillaries, leading to altered mental status, seizures, and potentially coma. It’s primarily seen in children in endemic regions.
Blackwater fever : This is a rare but severe manifestation of P. falciparum malaria involving massive intravascular hemolysis, leading to hemoglobinuria (dark-colored urine, hence “blackwater”), anemia, and kidney injury.
These complications arise due to P. falciparum ’s ability to infect red blood cells of all ages, multiply rapidly, and cause cytoadherence and microvascular obstruction.
❌ Why the other options are incorrect:
Plasmodium vivax Causes benign tertian malaria, with relapses due to dormant hypnozoites in the liver. It does not cause blackwater fever or cerebral malaria.
Plasmodium ovale Similar to P. vivax , it causes a milder form of malaria with a tertian fever pattern. Like vivax , it forms hypnozoites but is not associated with severe complications like cerebral malaria.
Plasmodium malariae Causes quartan malaria with fevers every 72 hours. It is not known to cause cerebral malaria or blackwater fever.
Plasmodium knowlesi Zoonotic malaria found in Southeast Asia, with a 24-hour fever cycle. While it can cause severe disease, P. falciparum remains the primary culprit in cerebral and blackwater fever.
Think about the angle that allows just the right balance—enough resistance to spread the blood smoothly, but not so steep that it piles up, nor so shallow that it fails to move forward.
8 / 27
Consider when and how a newborn’s first microbial exposures begin — and what the conditions are like inside the womb versus immediately after birth.
9 / 27
Tags:
2019
Which of the following is correct regarding the normal flora in humans?
Normal flora (also called microbiota ) refers to the population of microorganisms that reside on and within various parts of the human body without causing disease under normal circumstances.
The correct statement is that normal flora is formed after the neonatal period . Here’s how:
At birth , a baby’s body is essentially sterile.
Colonization begins immediately during and after birth — via the birth canal, skin-to-skin contact, breastfeeding, and environmental exposure.
By the end of the neonatal period (first 4 weeks), the infant has developed a stable and diverse microbial community in various body sites (skin, gut, mouth, etc.).
So, while colonization starts at birth, a more stable and diverse normal flora develops in the weeks following birth , which is what the question refers to.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
“Formed in intra-uterine life”:
“Not present in the stomach at all due to an acidic pH”:
Incorrect. Although the stomach’s acidic environment limits bacterial growth, some bacteria (e.g., Lactobacillus , Helicobacter pylori ) are still present in small numbers.
“Not affected by antimicrobial drugs”:
“The same numbers and types of organisms inhabit the throat and the bronchioles”:
Be careful not to confuse diseases caused by different species of the same genus. Look closely at regional prevalence and vector involved to make the distinction.
10 / 27
Tags:
2019
Which of the following is not associated with a patient suffering from a disease caused by Trypanosoma cruzi?
Trypanosoma cruzi is the causative agent of Chagas disease , not sleeping sickness . This parasite is primarily found in Central and South America and is transmitted by the Triatomine bug (also known as the “kissing bug”) .
Patients with Chagas disease can present with a range of signs and symptoms, including:
Chagoma : A localized area of swelling at the site of parasite entry, often near the eye (if the conjunctiva is involved, it’s known as Romana’s sign ).
Palpable swelling : Due to the inflammatory response at the site of inoculation or as part of systemic infection.
Facial edema : Especially when the eye is involved.
Hepatosplenomegaly : Common during the acute phase of the infection due to parasite spread and immune response.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Associated with Trypanosoma cruzi:
Chagoma : Classic sign of early T. cruzi infection.
Palpable swelling : Seen at the site of infection and as part of inflammatory response.
Hepatosplenomegaly : Due to systemic dissemination of the parasite.
Facial edema : Commonly seen in the acute phase, especially with periorbital involvement.
❌ Sleeping sickness is caused by Trypanosoma brucei gambiense or T. brucei rhodesiense , transmitted by the tsetse fly , and is found in Africa . It involves:
Neurological symptoms (confusion, altered sleep cycles, coma)
Posterior cervical lymphadenopathy (Winterbottom’s sign)
So, while both diseases are caused by Trypanosoma species , they are entirely different conditions — with different vectors, clinical features, and geographic distribution .
Think about the body region that serves as a passageway for air and is constantly exposed to potential pathogens, yet also harbors microorganisms that are part of the normal defense system.
11 / 27
Tags:
2019
Streptococcus pneumoniae is a part of the normal flora of which of the following regions?
Streptococcus pneumoniae is a bacterium commonly found as part of the normal flora in the nasopharynx (the upper part of the throat behind the nose). It can coexist harmlessly in healthy individuals, especially in children, but can become pathogenic under certain conditions, leading to diseases like pneumonia, meningitis, and otitis media.
While it resides in the nasopharynx in healthy individuals, it can sometimes colonize and invade the lungs or other parts of the body, especially if the immune system is weakened.
❌ Why the other options are incorrect:
Vagina : While other organisms like Lactobacillus are part of the vaginal flora, Streptococcus pneumoniae is not commonly found there.
Colon : The colon is home to many species of bacteria, but S. pneumoniae is not a major part of the normal flora here.
Intestine : The intestine contains numerous other bacteria (e.g., Escherichia coli, Bacteroides), but Streptococcus pneumoniae is typically not one of them.
Stomach : The stomach is a hostile environment due to its acidic pH, so S. pneumoniae does not typically colonize there.
Consider the bacterial structure and mode of transmission when identifying the cause of this chronic, systemic sexually transmitted disease — not all culprits are rods or cocci.
12 / 27
Tags:
2019
Which of the following is the causative agent of syphilis?
Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) caused by the spirochete bacterium Treponema pallidum . This bacterium is:
Thin and spiral-shaped (spirochete)
Not culturable on artificial media
Detected via dark-field microscopy , serologic tests , or PCR
🩺 Key Clinical Features of Syphilis:
Primary stage : Painless genital ulcer (chancre)
Secondary stage : Rash (including palms and soles), mucous patches, condyloma lata
Tertiary stage : Neurosyphilis, aortic aneurysm, gummas
Congenital syphilis : Occurs when infection is transmitted from mother to fetus
❌ Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
Mycoplasma pneumoniae : Causes atypical pneumonia (especially in young adults)
Streptococcus pneumoniae : Causes typical pneumonia, meningitis, otitis media
Staphylococcus aureus : Associated with skin infections, abscesses, food poisoning
Mycobacterium tuberculosis : Causes tuberculosis
When considering bacterial growth during a specific phase, ask: Is it the pace of division that’s changing — or is it the number of cells that’s rising?
13 / 27
Tags:
2019
Which of the following is correct about the rate of multiplication of bacteria in the log phase?
The log phase (also called the exponential phase ) is the second phase in the bacterial growth curve, and it’s where bacteria multiply at a constant and maximum rate .
✅ It is constant – Correct
During the log phase:
Cells divide at a constant rate , leading to an exponential increase in population.
This occurs as long as nutrients are abundant and toxic products haven’t accumulated .
The environment is optimal during this phase, so the doubling time is stable .
❌ It depends on the environment – Incorrect
The environment does influence bacterial growth overall , but in the log phase, it is assumed optimal . If conditions change, the bacteria will exit the log phase.
❌ It is decreasing – Incorrect
This describes the deceleration or stationary phase, not the log phase.
❌ It is increasing – Incorrect
In the lag phase , the rate begins to increase. In the log phase, the rate becomes steady , not still increasing.
❌ It is zero – Incorrect
This refers to the lag phase , where bacteria are metabolically active but not dividing yet.
🔍 Mnemonic for Bacterial Growth Phases:
“Lag, Log, Stationary, Decline” ➡️ Lag : Learning the environment ➡️ Log : Loudly multiplying ➡️ Stationary : Stuck ➡️ Decline : Dying
Which test would directly show you the actual parasite in a patient’s blood—allowing both diagnosis and identification of the specific species?
14 / 27
Tags:
2019
Which of the following is the best test for the diagnosis of malaria?
The best test for the diagnosis of malaria is microscopic examination of thick and thin blood films stained with Giemsa stain .
🔬 Why Thick and Thin Films Are Best:
Thick film : Concentrates blood to increase sensitivity and allows detection of low levels of parasitemia .
Thin film : Preserves red blood cell morphology, allowing for species identification (e.g., Plasmodium falciparum , vivax , ovale , malariae , knowlesi ).
This method is:
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Enzyme-linked immunoassay (ELISA) test
Detects antibodies or antigens , but may not detect early infections or differentiate between current and past infections.
Less useful in acute clinical diagnosis .
Pap smear
Microbiological culture
Serologic test
Detects immune response , not the parasite itself.
Useful for epidemiologic studies , but not for diagnosing active infection .
Think about the temperature inside your body, where disease-causing microbes have adapted to grow and thrive.
15 / 27
Tags:
2019
Which of the following is the optimum temperature for growth of bacteria?
The optimum temperature for the growth of most human pathogenic bacteria is 37 °C , which corresponds to the normal human body temperature .
🔬 Why 37 °C?
Many bacteria, especially mesophilic organisms , thrive in this temperature range (typically between 20–45 °C ), with peak enzymatic activity and reproduction at around 37 °C.
Since human pathogens have evolved to survive in the human body, 37 °C provides ideal conditions for:
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
4 °C
This is a refrigerator temperature .
Bacterial growth is extremely slow or inhibited at this temperature.
Some psychrophiles (cold-loving bacteria) can grow here, but human pathogens generally do not .
50 °C
Some thermophilic bacteria (heat-loving) can grow at this temperature, but it’s above the optimum for most pathogens.
Proteins in many bacteria start to denature at this level.
100 °C
This is the boiling point of water.
Most bacteria are killed at this temperature.
Used in sterilization processes like boiling or autoclaving.
120 °C
Typically used in autoclaves for sterilization under pressure.
Destroys all microorganisms , including spores.
No bacterial growth occurs at this temperature
Consider which species is most notorious for complications affecting the brain and vital organs, and is the main target of global malaria eradication campaigns.
16 / 27
Tags:
2019
Which malarial parasite causes severe malaria?
Among the five species of Plasmodium known to infect humans, Plasmodium falciparum is the most dangerous and is responsible for the majority of severe and fatal cases of malaria worldwide.
🦠 Why Plasmodium falciparum Causes Severe Malaria:
It infects red blood cells (RBCs) of all ages , leading to high levels of parasitemia.
Infected RBCs adhere to endothelial cells (via “cytoadherence” and “sequestration”) in capillaries of vital organs like the brain, kidneys, and lungs.
This leads to complications such as:
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Plasmodium malariae
Causes a chronic, low-grade infection .
Associated with quartan fever pattern (every 72 hours).
Not linked with severe or cerebral forms.
Plasmodium vivax
Common and widespread, but rarely causes severe malaria .
Can cause relapses due to dormant liver forms (hypnozoites ), but usually not fatal.
Plasmodium knowlesi
A zoonotic parasite (transmitted from macaques).
Can cause rapid replication and severe disease in rare cases , but not as commonly or severely as P. falciparum .
Plasmodium ovale
Similar to P. vivax , it can also form hypnozoites and cause relapses.
Rare and typically results in mild disease .
Think about what physical action occurs regularly that could prevent bacteria from staying in or climbing up the urinary tract. It’s not about killing bacteria but physically removing them.
17 / 27
Tags:
2019
Which of the following is the mechanical factor that plays its role in the sterility of the genitourinary tract?
The genitourinary tract is normally sterile , especially the upper urinary tract (ureters, bladder, and kidneys). This sterility is maintained by several mechanical , chemical , and immune defenses. Among these, the most important mechanical factor is urinary flow .
How Urinary Flow Maintains Sterility:
Urination flushes out potential pathogens that might ascend the urethra.
It prevents bacteria from adhering to the urothelium (lining of the urinary tract).
Disruption or stagnation of flow (as in obstruction or urinary retention) increases the risk of urinary tract infections (UTIs) .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
B cells
Low pH
IgA
T cells
Focus on the early stage of the disease before the parasite crosses into the brain. Which drug prevents progression by targeting the parasite in the bloodstream but cannot cross the blood-brain barrier?
18 / 27
Tags:
2019
Which of the following drugs is usually used for the treatment of sleeping sickness?
Sleeping sickness , or African trypanosomiasis , is treated with different drugs depending on the stage of the disease (early hemolymphatic vs. late CNS stage) and the species involved (Trypanosoma brucei gambiense or T. b. rhodesiense ).
For early-stage disease (before CNS involvement), Suramin (commonly misspelled as “Sumarin”) is one of the main treatments, especially for Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense . It is not effective once the central nervous system is involved because it does not cross the blood-brain barrier .
Key Facts about Suramin:
Administered intravenously .
Inhibits parasite enzymes involved in energy metabolism.
Best suited for early hemolymphatic stage .
Not used for T. brucei gambiense as first-line (where pentamidine is preferred), but still relevant in treatment protocols.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Atovaquone
Used in the treatment of malaria , toxoplasmosis , and Pneumocystis jirovecii , often in combination with proguanil or azithromycin .
Not effective against Trypanosoma brucei .
Benzimidazole
This is a class of anthelmintics (e.g., albendazole, mebendazole) used against helminths , such as roundworms and tapeworms .
Has no role in the treatment of protozoan infections like trypanosomiasis.
Ibuprofen
A nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) , used for pain and inflammation.
Has no antiparasitic action and is not part of the treatment regimen.
Sodium stibogluconate
Used for treating leishmaniasis , another protozoal disease caused by Leishmania species.
Ineffective against Trypanosoma brucei and not used for sleeping sickness.
Think about the specific fly that transmits a parasite causing a disease with symptoms like sleep disturbances and swollen lymph nodes. This fly is only found in certain parts of Africa.
19 / 27
Tags:
2019
Which of the following organism acts as an insect vector for Trypanosoma gambiense?
Trypanosoma gambiense is the causative agent of African sleeping sickness (also known as African trypanosomiasis ). The tsetse fly (Glossina species ) is the vector that transmits the parasite from one human to another.
The Role of the Tsetse Fly:
The tsetse fly is the primary vector for Trypanosoma gambiense (as well as Trypanosoma rhodesiense , which causes a more acute form of sleeping sickness).
When the tsetse fly bites an infected person, it ingests the Trypanosoma parasites present in the person’s bloodstream.
The parasite undergoes development in the fly’s gut , and after a period of time, the infectious form of the parasite (known as the trypomastigote ) is transmitted back to a human when the tsetse fly takes another blood meal.
The infection then progresses in the human host, initially presenting with fever, headache, and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy (Winterbottom’s sign), followed by more severe neurological symptoms.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Diptera
Diptera is the scientific order of flies, which includes many species such as mosquitoes and flies . While the tsetse fly belongs to this order, Diptera is too broad and does not specifically refer to the insect responsible for transmitting Trypanosoma gambiense .
Sand fly
Anopheles mosquito
The Anopheles mosquito is the vector for malaria , caused by the Plasmodium species, not for Trypanosoma gambiense . Anopheles mosquitoes are involved in the transmission of Plasmodium parasites, not Trypanosoma .
Deer fly
Consider the vector involved in this condition. Which disease transmitted by a fly bite is known for causing neurological symptoms and lymph node swelling?
20 / 27
Tags:
2019
A 24-year-old male presents in the outpatient department with headache, tremors, and mood changes. The patient also gives a history of fly bite. The posterior cervical lymph nodes are also enlarged. Which of the following conditions can this be?
The patient’s presentation—headache , tremors , mood changes , posterior cervical lymphadenopathy (Winterbottom’s sign) , and a history of a fly bite —are highly suggestive of African sleeping sickness , also known as African trypanosomiasis . This condition is caused by the Trypanosoma brucei parasite and is transmitted to humans by the bite of an infected tsetse fly .
Sleeping Sickness (African Trypanosomiasis):
Trypanosoma brucei exists in two subspecies: T. brucei gambiense (which causes the chronic form) and T. brucei rhodesiense (which causes the acute form).
The tsetse fly is the vector that transmits the parasite into the bloodstream when it bites an infected person.
Symptoms : The disease initially presents with flu-like symptoms, including fever , headache , and fatigue . As the disease progresses, the patient develops neurological symptoms like tremors , mood changes , confusion , and sleep disturbances (hence the name “sleeping sickness”).
Winterbottom’s sign refers to the swelling of the posterior cervical lymph nodes , which is a hallmark of this disease.
If left untreated, sleeping sickness can progress to coma and death due to the effects of the parasite on the brain.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Black Sickness
Black sickness is another name for blackwater fever , which is a complication of malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum . It is characterized by hemolysis , hemoglobinuria , and renal failure , but does not present with the neurological symptoms or lymphadenopathy described in this case. Furthermore, it is transmitted by mosquitoes , not flies.
Encephalitis
Encephalitis refers to inflammation of the brain , often caused by viral infections. While this condition can present with headache and neurological symptoms , it typically lacks the specific feature of posterior cervical lymphadenopathy seen in this case. Moreover, the history of a fly bite makes sleeping sickness more likely.
Intracranial Calcification
Intracranial calcification usually results from infections such as toxoplasmosis or cysticercosis and does not present with posterior cervical lymphadenopathy or the other symptoms described. It also typically presents as a radiological finding , not with the symptoms of headache , tremors , and mood changes .
Megacolon
Megacolon is an enlargement of the colon, often associated with Chagas disease (caused by Trypanosoma cruzi ). However, it does not present with the neurological symptoms or cervical lymphadenopathy seen here, and it is transmitted by triatomine bugs (not flies).
Consider which stage is involved in the transmission of Plasmodium falciparum from the human host to the mosquito. This stage has a distinctive crescent or banana-like appearance.
21 / 27
Tags:
2019
Which stage of P. falciparum is crescent shaped?
The crescent-shaped stage of Plasmodium falciparum is the gametocyte stage . Gametocytes are the sexual forms of the parasite that are responsible for transmission to the Anopheles mosquito , which is the vector for malaria.
Gametocyte Stage:
In the gametocyte stage , Plasmodium falciparum differentiates into male and female gametocytes . These gametocytes have a crescent or banana-shaped appearance when viewed under the microscope, which distinguishes them from the other stages.
Male gametocytes are smaller and more elongated, while female gametocytes are larger and more rounded. Together, these gametocytes are ingested by a mosquito when it takes a blood meal from an infected person.
Once inside the mosquito’s gut, the gametocytes undergo fertilization to form zygotes , which eventually develop into sporozoites , the infective form that can be transmitted to humans through the mosquito bite.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Ring Stage
Oocyte Stage
Sporozoite Stage
Schizont Stage
Consider the specific transmission vector in this case: a fly bite. Which parasitic infection associated with fly bites causes both neurological symptoms and swollen lymph nodes, particularly in the posterior cervical region?
22 / 27
Tags:
2019
A 24-year-old male presents in the outpatient department with headache, tremors, and mood changes. The patient also gives a history of fly bite. The posterior cervical lymph nodes are also enlarged. Which protozoan parasite might be the cause?
The patient’s symptoms—headache, tremors, mood changes, enlarged posterior cervical lymph nodes, and a history of a fly bite —are classic signs of African sleeping sickness , caused by the protozoan parasite Trypanosoma gambiense . This condition is transmitted by the bite of an infected tsetse fly (Glossina species).
🪰 Trypanosoma gambiense and African Sleeping Sickness:
Trypanosoma gambiense is one of the subspecies of Trypanosoma brucei , which causes sleeping sickness (African trypanosomiasis).
Transmission occurs when a tsetse fly bites an individual, injecting the parasite into the bloodstream.
Symptoms often begin with fever , headache , enlarged lymph nodes (especially posterior cervical lymph nodes , known as Winterbottom’s sign ), and later evolve to neurological symptoms such as tremors , mood changes , and sleep disturbances .
If untreated, it can progress to neurological involvement , causing mental changes , sleep disruptions , and coma .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Plasmodium falciparum
Plasmodium falciparum is the protozoan parasite responsible for malaria , which is transmitted by Anopheles mosquitoes , not tsetse flies.
Malaria typically presents with fever, chills, sweating , and anemia , not the neurological symptoms (headache, tremors, mood changes) and lymphadenopathy described in this case.
Leishmania donovani
Leishmania donovani causes visceral leishmaniasis (also called kala-azar ), transmitted by the sandfly . This disease typically presents with fever , splenomegaly , hepatomegaly , and weight loss , not the neurological symptoms or cervical lymphadenopathy seen in this patient.
Pneumocystis jirovecii
Pneumocystis jirovecii is a fungus, not a protozoan, and is the causative agent of Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP) , primarily affecting individuals with immunocompromised states , such as HIV/AIDS . It presents with respiratory symptoms (cough, shortness of breath) and does not cause the neurological signs or lymphadenopathy seen here.
Toxoplasma gondii
Toxoplasma gondii is a protozoan that causes toxoplasmosis , often asymptomatic in healthy individuals. In immunocompromised patients (e.g., HIV/AIDS), it can cause encephalitis . However, it is not associated with fly bites or enlarged cervical lymph nodes, making it less likely in this scenario.
This method relies on staining and visualization of intracellular organisms in circulating immune cells — a technique often used in parasitology for initial diagnosis.
23 / 27
Tags:
2019
Which of the following is an appropriate diagnostic method for a Leishmania infection?
Leishmaniasis is a disease caused by protozoan parasites of the genus Leishmania , transmitted by the sandfly . It exists in various forms, including cutaneous, mucocutaneous, and visceral (kala-azar) .
✅ Why “Peripheral blood film” is correct:
In visceral leishmaniasis , the causative organism can sometimes be detected in the peripheral blood smear , although splenic or bone marrow aspirates are more sensitive.
In peripheral blood, amastigotes (also known as Leishman–Donovan bodies) may be seen inside mononuclear phagocytes .
A peripheral smear is non-invasive , easy to perform, and a good starting point in resource-limited settings.
❌ Why the other options are incorrect:
Intestinal cross section : Not relevant for Leishmania. This might apply to intestinal parasites like Ascaris or Tapeworms , not protozoa like Leishmania.
Blood culture : Leishmania does not grow in standard blood culture media used for bacterial infections.
Complete Blood Count (CBC) : May show pancytopenia (especially in visceral leishmaniasis), but it is non-specific and not diagnostic.
Spinal cross section : Irrelevant. Leishmania does not affect the spinal cord in any diagnostic capacity.
Consider which stage of a protozoan parasite is responsible for interacting most actively with the host’s tissues and generating symptoms of disease. Which one would need energy and mobility for this?
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Tags:
2019
Which of the following is true about a trophozoite?
A trophozoite is the active , motile , and metabolically functional stage in the lifecycle of many protozoan parasites , such as Entamoeba histolytica , Giardia lamblia , and Plasmodium species.
✅ Why the correct option is right:
The trophozoite is responsible for:
Feeding on host tissues or nutrients.
Reproducing , often through asexual binary fission.
Causing symptoms in the host due to tissue invasion or toxin release.
It is usually found inside the host and is fragile outside the body , often dying quickly in the external environment.
❌ Why the other options are incorrect:
It is the non-motile stage of a lifecycle – This describes the cyst form, which is dormant and protective.
It is the infectious stage of a lifecycle – While some trophozoites can be infectious in certain conditions, the cyst is usually the primary infectious form in fecal-oral transmission.
It is the death stage of a lifecycle – Trophozoite is an active growth stage , not terminal.
It is the vector stage of a lifecycle – The trophozoite exists within the host , not the vector (e.g., mosquito in malaria).
If an infection leads to destruction of red blood cells, shows cyclical fever, and is common in tropical areas where mosquitoes thrive, what class of protozoan might be responsible?
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Tags:
2019
Which infection is caused by plasmodium falciparum?
Plasmodium falciparum is one of the five species of Plasmodium that infect humans and is the most deadly among them. It causes malaria , a mosquito-borne infectious disease transmitted through the bite of the female Anopheles mosquito .
🦠 Why Plasmodium falciparum causes malaria:
It infects red blood cells and leads to their destruction , causing cyclical fever , chills , sweating , and anemia .
Unlike other malaria-causing species (e.g., P. vivax ), P. falciparum can infect red cells of all ages , which results in higher parasitemia and more severe disease.
Complications can include cerebral malaria , acute renal failure , pulmonary edema , and hypoglycemia , making it a medical emergency in many cases.
❌ Why the other options are incorrect :
Sleeping sickness – Caused by Trypanosoma brucei and transmitted by the tsetse fly . Not related to Plasmodium .
Ascariasis – A helminth infection caused by the roundworm Ascaris lumbricoides . It’s an intestinal parasite, not a protozoan.
Chagas disease – Caused by Trypanosoma cruzi , transmitted by the Triatomine (kissing) bug . Affects the heart and digestive system.
Babesiosis – Caused by Babesia microti and related species. It also infects red blood cells but is transmitted by ticks , not mosquitoes.
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2017
Which parasite causes blackwater fever and cerebral malaria?
Among the five species of Plasmodium that infect humans, Plasmodium falciparum is by far the most dangerous. It is the only Plasmodium species that causes both blackwater fever and cerebral malaria.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect
🔍 Plasmodium malariae
Causes a milder, chronic form of malaria.
Known for its quartan fever pattern (every 72 hours).
Does not cause cerebral malaria or blackwater fever .
🔍 Plasmodium ovale
Causes relapsing malaria due to dormant liver stages (hypnozoites ).
Symptoms are generally mild to moderate.
No cerebral or blackwater fever association.
🔍 Plasmodium vivax
Causes relapsing malaria like P. ovale (due to hypnozoites).
May cause moderate anemia and splenomegaly, but not cerebral malaria or blackwater fever .
🔍 Plasmodium knowlesi
Zoonotic parasite (primarily affects macaques).
Can cause daily fevers (quotidian pattern), and rapid parasitemia .
While it can cause severe malaria, it is rarely associated with blackwater fever or cerebral malaria — much less so than P. falciparum .
Consider what component is so abundant and thick in gram-positive bacteria that it allows them to hold onto dye through alcohol washes, unlike their gram-negative counterparts. What gives their walls such strong mechanical support?
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Tags:
2017
High amounts of which of these make up the cell walls of the gram-positive bacteria?
The cell wall structure of bacteria is a key feature that determines their Gram staining properties , structural integrity, and pathogenic characteristics.
🦠 Gram-Positive Bacteria:
Have a thick peptidoglycan layer , which is multi-layered and dense .
The peptidoglycan layer retains crystal violet stain during Gram staining, making these bacteria appear purple under the microscope.
Also contain teichoic acids and lipoteichoic acids (e.g., glycerol phosphate polymers), but these are not the main structural component .
🔬 What is Peptidoglycan?
It is a polymer of sugars and amino acids .
Consists of repeating units of N-acetylglucosamine (NAG) and N-acetylmuramic acid (NAM) linked by β-1,4-glycosidic bonds.
These chains are cross-linked by short peptide bridges , giving the cell wall rigidity and strength .
In gram-positive bacteria , the peptidoglycan layer is much thicker than in gram-negative bacteria (up to 90% of the cell wall).
❌ Why the other options are incorrect:
A) Proteins: Proteins are found in bacterial membranes and may be involved in transport or signaling, but they are not the main structural component of the cell wall in gram-positive bacteria.
C) Glycerol phosphate: This is a component of teichoic acids , which are present in gram-positive walls. However, they make up a small portion of the wall and are not the primary bulk material .
D) Lipopolysaccharide (LPS): This is a hallmark component of gram-negative bacteria , found in their outer membrane , and is absent in gram-positive bacteria .
E) None of these: Incorrect, because peptidoglycan is the correct and significant component .
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