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Endo – 2016
Questions from The 2016 Module + Annual Exam of Endocrinology
When analyzing hormone pathways, ask yourself whether the signal requires a membrane receptor and second messengers, or if it can directly influence gene transcription. What kind of molecule would need help getting into the cell—and which one wouldn’t?
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Which of the following is incorrect regarding the mechanism of action of steroid hormones?
Steroid hormones—including cortisol, aldosterone, estrogen, progesterone, and testosterone—are lipophilic (fat-soluble) molecules. Because of this property, they can freely diffuse through the cell membrane to exert their effects inside the cell , unlike peptide hormones which act via membrane receptors.
Let’s break down the mechanism of action for steroid hormones in a structured way:
✅ Why “They involve the adenylyl cyclase pathway” is the incorrect statement:
The adenylyl cyclase pathway is typically activated by G-protein coupled receptors (GPCRs) .
This mechanism is used by peptide hormones (e.g., glucagon, ACTH, TSH), not steroid hormones .
It leads to the generation of cyclic AMP (cAMP) , which activates protein kinase A , resulting in second-messenger cascades —a hallmark of non-steroid hormone action .
✅ Why the other statements are correct:
They have cytoplasmic receptors : Many steroid hormones (like cortisol) bind to cytoplasmic receptors , which then migrate into the nucleus.
They activate transcription factors : Once the steroid-receptor complex is inside the nucleus, it binds to hormone response elements (HREs) on DNA and activates transcription of specific genes.
They act on the genetic machinery of the cell : The primary outcome of steroid hormone action is gene expression regulation , which affects protein synthesis .
They have nuclear receptors : Some steroid hormones (like thyroid hormone and estrogen) bind directly to nuclear receptors without stopping in the cytoplasm.
Ask yourself:Which organ system suffers the most lethal long-term consequences of chronic hyperglycemia, and what complications are the most irreversible? Focus on macrovascular complications for causes of mortality , and microvascular complications for morbidity .
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Category:
Endo – Pathology
What is the most common cause of death in patients with diabetes mellitus?
Diabetes mellitus — especially type 2 — is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease, and cardiovascular complications are the leading cause of death in diabetic patients. The long-term effects of chronic hyperglycemia include damage to both small and large blood vessels (microvascular and macrovascular complications), but it’s the macrovascular disease that proves most fatal.
✅ Why “Heart disease” Is Correct:
Diabetics have 2–4 times higher risk of developing coronary artery disease (CAD) .
Long-standing diabetes leads to accelerated atherosclerosis , causing:
Many patients with diabetes also have co-existing hypertension , dyslipidemia , and obesity , which further compound cardiac risk.
Silent ischemia (MI without typical chest pain) is also more common in diabetics, leading to delayed diagnosis and worse outcomes.
Thus, ischemic heart disease is the most common cause of mortality in diabetics.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Wound infection and sepsis : While diabetics are prone to poor wound healing and infections , especially foot ulcers , these are more commonly causes of morbidity , not the most common cause of death .
Stroke : Stroke risk is increased in diabetes, but heart disease still accounts for more deaths than stroke in this population.
Hypoglycemia : A possible acute complication (especially from insulin or sulfonylureas), but less common as a cause of death than chronic cardiovascular disease.
Renal failure : Diabetic nephropathy is a common cause of end-stage renal disease , but cardiac events remain the leading cause of death, even in patients on dialysis.
To identify neurotransmitter precursors, ask:Is the neurotransmitter excitatory or inhibitory? And consider:Does it have an aromatic structure like catecholamines (→ tyrosine/phenylalanine) or indoleamines (→ tryptophan)?
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Category:
Endo – Biochemistry
Catecholamine-derived neurotransmitters are derived from which amino acid?
Catecholamines are a group of neurotransmitters that include:
All of these are derived from the amino acid tyrosine through a series of enzymatic steps.
🔬 Biosynthesis Pathway from Tyrosine:
Tyrosine ↓ (Tyrosine hydroxylase)
L-DOPA ↓ (DOPA decarboxylase)
Dopamine ↓ (Dopamine β-hydroxylase)
Norepinephrine ↓ (Phenylethanolamine-N-methyltransferase)
Epinephrine
This pathway is essential for the synthesis of both central and peripheral catecholamines , especially in the adrenal medulla and brain .
✅ Why “Tyrosine” Is Correct:
Tyrosine is the precursor of all catecholamines.
It provides the aromatic ring structure required for the catechol portion of these neurotransmitters.
It’s classified as a non-essential amino acid , synthesized from phenylalanine .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Glycine : An inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS, but not involved in catecholamine synthesis.
Alanine : Mainly involved in gluconeogenesis (via the alanine cycle), not neurotransmitter synthesis .
Tryptophan : Precursor of serotonin and melatonin , not catecholamines.
Valine : A branched-chain amino acid (BCAA) , important in muscle metabolism , not neurotransmitter synthesis.
Focus on timing and duration : If it starts working quickly and doesn’t last all day, it’s short-acting . If it’s steady and flat with minimal peak, it’s long-acting .
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Category:
Endo – Pharmacology
Which of the following is short-acting insulin?
Insulin preparations are classified based on their onset , peak , and duration of action . This helps tailor treatment for diabetes mellitus , depending on meal timing, glucose patterns, and patient needs.
⏱️ Types of Insulin (based on action):
Type
Example
Onset
Peak
Duration
Rapid-acting
Lispro, Aspart
~15 min
1–2 hrs
3–5 hrs
Short-acting
Regular insulin
~30–60 min
2–4 hrs
5–8 hrs
Intermediate-acting
NPH
1–2 hrs
6–12 hrs
18–24 hrs
Long-acting
Glargine, Detemir
~1 hr
None (flat)
~24 hrs
✅ Why “Regular insulin” Is Correct:
Regular insulin is short-acting .
It’s injected ~30 minutes before meals .
Its predictable peak and duration make it useful in hospital settings and diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) management.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Glyburide : Not insulin at all — it’s a sulfonylurea , which stimulates endogenous insulin secretion from pancreatic β-cells.
Insulin detemir : A long-acting insulin , used for basal (background) control , with a duration of ~20–24 hours .
Insulin glargine : Also long-acting , with no true peak , providing steady basal insulin for ~24 hours.
None of them : Incorrect — Regular insulin is clearly a short-acting insulin , so one of the options is correct.
Ask yourself:
Does this complication primarily involve small capillaries or large arteries? That distinction will guide you to whether it’s microvascular or macrovascular .
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Category:
Endo – Pathology
Which of the following is not a microvascular complication of diabetes?
Diabetes mellitus leads to long-term complications due to chronic hyperglycemia , which damages blood vessels . These complications are broadly classified into:
Understanding the type of vessel affected helps you classify the complication correctly.
✅ Why “Stroke” Is Correct:
Stroke is a result of atherosclerosis and thromboembolism affecting large cerebral arteries (e.g., carotids, vertebrobasilar system).
Therefore, it is a macrovascular complication of diabetes.
It occurs due to accelerated atherosclerosis , often in combination with hypertension and dyslipidemia in diabetic patients.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Microvascular Complications:
Neuropathy :
Caused by ischemia of vasa nervorum (tiny blood vessels supplying nerves)
Includes peripheral, autonomic, and focal neuropathies
Retinopathy :
Results from damage to retinal capillaries
Leads to microaneurysms , hemorrhages , and neovascularization
Nephropathy :
Due to glomerular capillary damage
Leads to albuminuria , glomerulosclerosis , and ultimately chronic kidney disease
Cataracts :
While not purely vascular, they result from osmotic damage in lens proteins due to sorbitol accumulation (via the polyol pathway)
Often associated with chronic hyperglycemia , and considered a non-classic microvascular complication
When thinking of pancreatic developmental defects , always ask:Which bud (ventral or dorsal) contributes to this structure, and what happens if it rotates or fuses abnormally?
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Category:
Endo – Embryology
What is the cause of the annular pancreas?
Annular pancreas is a congenital anomaly in which a ring of pancreatic tissue encircles the second part of the duodenum , potentially causing duodenal obstruction .
To understand its cause, you need to recall the embryological development of the pancreas.
🔬 Normal Development of the Pancreas:
❗ What Goes Wrong in Annular Pancreas:
In annular pancreas , there is abnormal migration/rotation of the ventral pancreatic bud .
Instead of rotating posteriorly and fusing properly with the dorsal bud, it splits or rotates abnormally , wrapping around the duodenum and forming a ring of pancreatic tissue .
This constricts the duodenum , leading to symptoms like vomiting , feeding intolerance , or duodenal obstruction , often in newborns.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Abnormal rotation of dorsal pancreatic bud : The dorsal bud usually remains relatively fixed; abnormalities in rotation typically involve the ventral bud , not the dorsal one.
Absence of pancreas : This is a different condition (pancreatic agenesis), and it doesn’t result in annular pancreas .
Presence of two pancreas : This doesn’t occur embryologically — duplication of the pancreas is not a recognized cause of annular pancreas.
None of them : Incorrect, since we do know the cause — abnormal ventral bud rotation.
When faced with hormone questions, ask:
What is the body’s goal when this hormone is released? For glucagon, it’s to raise blood sugar — so anything that mobilizes stored energy (glycogen, fats) is likely correct.
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Which of the following is the function of glucagon?
Glucagon is a catabolic peptide hormone secreted by the alpha cells of the pancreas in response to low blood glucose levels . Its main job is to raise blood glucose by acting on the liver to mobilize energy stores .
✅ Why “Promotes glycogenolysis” Is Correct:
Glycogenolysis is the breakdown of glycogen into glucose .
Glucagon stimulates hepatic glycogenolysis , releasing glucose into the blood.
This is a primary and rapid-response function of glucagon, especially between meals and during fasting.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Decreases gluconeogenesis : Incorrect — glucagon increases gluconeogenesis (the formation of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources like amino acids), which helps sustain blood glucose during prolonged fasting.
Decreases lipolysis : Wrong — glucagon increases lipolysis in adipose tissue, mobilizing fatty acids for energy.
Decrease blood sugar level : Completely opposite of glucagon’s action. This describes insulin , not glucagon.
None of them : Incorrect because promoting glycogenolysis is clearly a well-established function of glucagon.
When comparing hormone actions, ask:
Which hormones are released during stress, and how do they maintain energy and blood pressure? The more overlap a hormone has with cortisol in both metabolic and cardiovascular effects , the closer the match.
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Which of the following hormone has cortisol-like action?
Cortisol is a glucocorticoid hormone released from the adrenal cortex . It plays a key role in the long-term stress response , and helps maintain blood glucose levels , blood pressure , and metabolic balance .
Epinephrine, also known as adrenaline , is a catecholamine released by the adrenal medulla , and it participates in the acute stress (“fight or flight”) response . While it works on a faster timescale than cortisol, several of its metabolic effects mirror those of cortisol , especially during stress.
✅ Why “Epinephrine” Is Correct:
Epinephrine shares cortisol-like actions in the following ways:
Increases blood glucose by:
Promotes lipolysis in adipose tissue
Inhibits insulin secretion and stimulates glucagon secretion
Increases cardiac output and vascular tone , helping maintain blood pressure , especially under stress
These effects complement and reinforce cortisol’s slower-acting mechanisms , making epinephrine functionally similar in acute settings.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Norepinephrine: While it also supports the stress response, it is more involved in vasoconstriction and blood pressure regulation than metabolic effects like gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis.
Glucagon: Glucagon does increase glucose levels via gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis, but it lacks the broad stress-adaptive cardiovascular and metabolic actions that epinephrine and cortisol share.
Insulin: Has the opposite effects of cortisol and epinephrine — promotes glucose uptake , glycogen formation , and fat storage .
Somatostatin: Acts mainly to inhibit the release of other hormones (GH, insulin, glucagon), and does not share cortisol-like or adrenergic metabolic actions.
When asked about glandular activity , ask yourself:Are the cells working hard or resting? Increased demand = taller, more active. Decreased activity = flatter.
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Category:
Endo – Histology
Hyperactive thyroid epithelium shows which of the following?
The thyroid gland is made up of follicles lined by a single layer of epithelial cells. The appearance of these cells changes based on the functional (hormonal) activity of the gland.
🔍 What Happens in a Hyperactive Thyroid?
In conditions like Graves’ disease (hyperthyroidism) , the thyroid becomes overactive , and:
Follicular epithelial cells become taller — from cuboidal → columnar
The colloid content decreases , because it is being rapidly used up to synthesize T3 and T4
Follicles may appear small and scalloped due to colloid reabsorption
Increased vascularity is often present histologically
Thus, in a hyperfunctioning thyroid , the epithelium transforms into simple columnar as a reflection of increased protein synthesis and hormone production .
✅ Why “Simple columnar cells” Is Correct:
Simple columnar epithelium is a hallmark of stimulated, active follicles .
Seen in hyperthyroid states , when there is a high demand for thyroid hormone production .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Simple cuboidal cells : This is the normal resting state of thyroid follicular epithelium — seen when the gland is euthyroid or less active .
Squamous cells : Not a feature of thyroid epithelium; this would suggest metaplasia or malignancy , not hyperactivity.
Pseudostratified columnar cells : Found in respiratory tract epithelium , not in the thyroid gland.
Transitional epithelium : Found in urinary tract (ureters, bladder) — never in the thyroid.
If the case mentions a combination of metabolic slowing (weight gain, constipation, fatigue), cold intolerance , and skin/hair changes.
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Category:
Endo – Physio
An 18-year-old female presents with weight gain, thinning of hair, low pulse and blood pressure, cold intolerance, clammy skin that is cold, constipation, and difficulty to concentrate. What would be the most probable diagnosis?
This case presents a classic constellation of signs and symptoms of hypothyroidism , a condition where the thyroid gland underproduces thyroid hormones (T₃ and T₄) , leading to widespread slowing of metabolic processes.
🔍 Key Symptoms in the Scenario:
Symptom
Pathophysiological Basis in Hypothyroidism
Weight gain
Decreased basal metabolic rate (BMR) → fewer calories burned at rest
Thinning of hair
Poor protein synthesis and nutrient delivery → dry, brittle hair
Bradycardia (low pulse)
Reduced sympathetic tone and decreased cardiac output
Low blood pressure
Reduced heart rate and contractility, often with lower volume status
Cold intolerance
Decreased thermogenesis (heat production) due to slow metabolism
Clammy, cold skin
Poor circulation + vasoconstriction in response to cold
Constipation
Slowed GI motility (part of the overall metabolic slowdown)
Difficulty concentrating
Often referred to as “brain fog” – slow neuronal metabolism
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Hyperthyroidism: Would present with opposite symptoms : weight loss , heat intolerance , increased pulse and BP , diarrhea , and restlessness .
Cushing syndrome: Causes weight gain , but typically with central obesity , moon face , buffalo hump , hypertension , muscle wasting , and thin skin — not cold intolerance or bradycardia .
Hyperparathyroidism: Presents with bones, stones, groans, and psychiatric overtones (bone pain, kidney stones, GI discomfort, confusion), not prominent thyroid-type symptoms .
Hypoparathyroidism: Causes hypocalcemia , which leads to muscle cramps , tetany , seizures , Chvostek’s sign , and Trousseau’s sign — none of which are described here.
Which of these actions is a direct metabolic effect of PTH, not just a downstream consequence of another hormone like calcitriol? That’ll guide you to the most specific answer.
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Which of the following represents the metabolic function of the parathyroid gland?
The primary metabolic function of the parathyroid gland is the secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH) , which directly influences bone, kidney, and indirectly the intestines .
Among the options listed, activation of the renal enzyme alpha-1-hydroxylase is the most specific, direct, and defining metabolic function related to the parathyroid gland.
✅ Why “Activation of alpha-1-hydroxylase” Is Correct:
PTH directly stimulates 1-alpha-hydroxylase in the proximal convoluted tubules of the kidney.
This enzyme converts 25-hydroxycholecalciferol (inactive vitamin D) into 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (calcitriol) , the active form of vitamin D .
Calcitriol then acts on the intestines to increase calcium and phosphate absorption .
This step is central to the hormonal cascade that maintains calcium homeostasis .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Less Accurate:
Absorption of calcium: This happens in the intestine , but is indirectly caused by calcitriol , not directly by PTH.
Resorption of bone: PTH does stimulate bone resorption , but it’s one of multiple actions and not as metabolically defining as vitamin D activation.
Absorption of phosphate: This is increased by calcitriol , but PTH actually promotes phosphate excretion in the kidney — so it’s contradictory and not accurate as a direct metabolic function of PTH.
All of them: Although PTH plays a role in all these processes (directly or indirectly), this option is too broad , and includes absorption of phosphate , which is not directly aligned with PTH’s role — making it inaccurate as the best answer.
When identifying endocrine cells histologically, always ask:
What does their staining tell me about their function? High protein-secreting cells due to lots of RER and ribosomes .
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Category:
Endo – Histology
What is the correct statement for the histology of chief cells?
🔹 Chief Cells (Principal Cells) of the Parathyroid Gland:
Chief cells are the most numerous cell type in the parathyroid gland and are primarily responsible for producing parathyroid hormone (PTH) , which plays a key role in calcium regulation.
Histological Features:
Shape : Generally small , round to polygonal (but the more defining feature is cytoplasm).
Cytoplasm : Basophilic , due to high ribosomal RNA content associated with protein synthesis (for PTH).
Nucleus : Round and centrally placed — not lobed .
Granules : Present — they contain stored PTH , so saying “no granules” is incorrect.
Staining : Appear pale to slightly basophilic , but not deeply or darkly staining like oxyphil cells.
✅ Why “Basophilic cytoplasm” Is Correct:
Chief cells have abundant rough endoplasmic reticulum , making their cytoplasm appear basophilic (blue-purple with H&E stain).
This reflects active protein (PTH) synthesis .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
No granules : Incorrect — chief cells do have secretory granules containing PTH.
Polygonal in shape : Partially true, but not specific — many endocrine cells are polygonal. The cytoplasmic staining is more characteristic.
Darkly staining :Oxyphil cells stain more darkly, not chief cells.
Lobed nuclei : Chief cells have a single, round nucleus , not a lobed one.
When asked about embryological origins, remember:Endocrine glands like the parathyroids usually come from pharyngeal pouches , not arches. Always double-check whether the question is about arches vs pouches — it’s a common trick.
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Category:
Endo – Embryology
Which of the following is incorrect regarding parathyroid hormone?
✅ True Statements About PTH and Parathyroid Glands:
Essential for survival : Correct — PTH is vital for maintaining serum calcium levels . Without it, severe hypocalcemia can occur, leading to tetany, seizures, and even death .
Increases calcium levels : Correct — PTH raises blood calcium by:
Stimulating osteoclasts to resorb bone
Increasing renal calcium reabsorption
Stimulating vitamin D activation , which enhances calcium absorption in the gut
Encapsulated : Correct — The parathyroid glands are typically small, encapsulated glands embedded near or in the thyroid.
❌ Why “Derived from 2nd and 3rd pharyngeal arches” Is Incorrect:
This is embryologically wrong .
The parathyroid glands develop from the pharyngeal pouches , not arches :
The 2nd pharyngeal pouch contributes to the palatine tonsils , not parathyroids.
The arches give rise to skeletal and muscular components , not endocrine glands like the parathyroids.
If cortisol levels are high due to a pituitary tumor , ask yourself: Which pituitary hormone stimulates the adrenal cortex? The answer lies in ACTH…
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Which of the following is affected by the pituitary tumors to cause an increase in cortisol?
🔹 Role of Corticotrophs:
Corticotrophs are cells of the anterior pituitary that secrete adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) .
ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex , specifically the zona fasciculata , to produce cortisol .
A pituitary adenoma involving corticotrophs leads to excessive ACTH , resulting in elevated cortisol levels — this is known as Cushing’s disease (a specific form of Cushing’s syndrome caused by a pituitary tumor).
✅ Why “Corticotrophs” Is Correct:
They directly secrete ACTH, which in turn stimulates cortisol production.
Pituitary tumors involving corticotrophs → ACTH overproduction → hypercortisolism → Cushing’s disease .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Lactotrophs: Secrete prolactin → involved in lactation. Tumors here lead to hyperprolactinemia , not high cortisol.
Gonadotrophs: Secrete FSH and LH → regulate gonads. No direct effect on cortisol levels.
Somatotrophs: Secrete growth hormone (GH) → involved in growth and metabolism , not cortisol regulation.
Thyrotrophs: Secrete TSH → stimulates thyroid gland. Also unrelated to adrenal or cortisol function.
When evaluating abdominal anatomy, always ask:Is this organ retroperitoneal or intraperitoneal? If it lies close to the posterior abdominal wall and doesn’t move freely, it’s probably retroperitoneal .
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Category:
Endo – Anatomy
Which of the following statement is wrong about the location of the left adrenal gland?
✅ True Statements:
“Pancreas lies anterior to it” : Correct. The body of the pancreas lies anterior to the left adrenal gland .
“It lies opposite the vertebral level of 11th intercostal space” : Correct. The left adrenal gland lies slightly lower than the right, typically at the level of the 11th rib/intercostal space .
“It is separated from kidney by perirenal fat” : Correct. The adrenal glands lie superomedial to the kidneys and are separated by perirenal (perinephric) fat within Gerota’s fascia .
❌ Why “It is intraperitoneal” Is Wrong:
The adrenal glands are retroperitoneal organs , meaning they lie behind the peritoneum , not within the peritoneal cavity.
“Intraperitoneal” refers to organs completely surrounded by peritoneum , like the stomach, liver, or jejunum — not the adrenal glands.
✅ Why This Is the Correct Choice:
This is the only false statement .
Therefore, it correctly answers the question: which statement is wrong .
When asked about enzyme inhibition by glucocorticoids, think:What’s the earliest enzyme in the inflammation pathway? Block that, and you block everything downstream.
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Category:
Endo – Pharmacology
Which of the following enzymes is inhibited by glucocorticoids?
🔹 Mechanism of Glucocorticoids:
Glucocorticoids like hydrocortisone and prednisone are powerful anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive agents . Their anti-inflammatory effect is largely due to their ability to suppress the entire arachidonic acid pathway at an early stage.
They do this by:
Inducing lipocortin (annexin-1) , which inhibits phospholipase A2
This prevents the release of arachidonic acid from membrane phospholipids
Without arachidonic acid, both prostaglandins and leukotrienes (which cause inflammation, pain, and swelling) are not produced
✅ Why “Phospholipase A2” Is Correct:
It’s the first step in the arachidonic acid cascade.
Inhibition of this enzyme blocks the production of both prostaglandins and leukotrienes , making glucocorticoids broad-spectrum anti-inflammatory agents.
This is more upstream than NSAIDs, which block cyclooxygenase only.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Xanthine oxidase: Involved in uric acid synthesis , inhibited by allopurinol , not glucocorticoids.
Cyclooxygenase (COX): Blocked by NSAIDs (like ibuprofen, aspirin), not directly by glucocorticoids .
Histidine decarboxylase: Converts histidine to histamine , not a target of glucocorticoids.
5-lipoxygenase: Converts arachidonic acid into leukotrienes . It’s downstream of phospholipase A2, and while its activity is reduced indirectly (due to lack of arachidonic acid), glucocorticoids do not directly inhibit this enzyme.
Ask yourself: Which hormone, if missing, will cause rapid collapse of essential functions like blood pressure or electrolytes? That’s a strong clue it’s life-sustaining , not just “important.”
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Deficiency of which of the following hormone causes the life-threatening conditions?
Aldosterone’s Vital Role:
Aldosterone is a mineralocorticoid hormone secreted by the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex. It regulates:
Sodium retention
Potassium excretion
Water balance
Blood pressure
By acting on the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts of the kidney, aldosterone maintains blood volume and blood pressure . Its absence can rapidly lead to:
Severe hyponatremia
Hyperkalemia
Hypotension
Hypovolemic shock
This can be life-threatening and is seen in conditions like Addison’s disease (primary adrenal insufficiency) or adrenal crisis .
✅ Why “Aldosterone” Is Correct:
Its deficiency leads to a critical loss of sodium and water , dangerously low blood pressure, and cardiovascular collapse .
It’s essential for life , and patients with adrenal insufficiency must receive mineralocorticoid replacement to survive.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Cortisol: While important (especially for stress response), its deficiency is serious but not as immediately fatal as aldosterone deficiency unless in extreme stress. That said, it still requires replacement in adrenal insufficiency.
Adrenaline: Produced by the adrenal medulla. Important for the fight-or-flight response, but not continuously necessary for survival in resting state.
Testosterone: Important for male reproductive function and secondary sexual characteristics, but not life-sustaining .
None of them: Incorrect — aldosterone deficiency can be fatal if not managed urgently.
IMP NOTE:
Both cortisol and aldosterone are important, and losing both can cause a serious condition called adrenal crisis .
But if we have to choose one, cortisol deficiency is usually the main reason adrenal crisis becomes life-threatening, especially during stress.
So while both matter, cortisol plays the bigger role in the crisis.
When you see symptoms that suggest slowing down of body systems — think of conditions that decrease metabolism…
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Which of the following conditions causes amenorrhea, obesity, and constipation?
Hypothyroidism Overview:
Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland produces insufficient thyroid hormones (T3 and T4). These hormones regulate basal metabolic rate , so when they’re low, everything slows down — metabolism, gut motility, reproductive function, and mental processing.
✅ Why “Hypothyroidism” Is Correct:
Amenorrhea:
Thyroid hormones influence reproductive hormones.
In hypothyroidism, altered GnRH secretion and elevated TRH can cause anovulation and menstrual irregularities , including amenorrhea.
Obesity:
Constipation:
Together, these symptoms are textbook findings in hypothyroidism.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Hyperthyroidism:
Hyperpituitarism:
May cause symptoms depending on which hormone is overproduced (e.g., GH, ACTH), but doesn’t commonly present with this triad.
Hyperparathyroidism:
Usually leads to bone pain, kidney stones, abdominal pain, and psychiatric disturbances , not the features listed here.
None of them:
When interpreting fortification values in ppm, remember that iodine is lost during salt storage and cooking. Public health guidelines compensate by fortifying above daily needs at the point of production — but never so high as to cause toxicity.
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Category:
Endo – Community Medicine/Behavioral Sciences
Which one of the following represents iodine in parts per million (ppm) at the production site?
What Does 30 ppm Mean?
ppm (parts per million) is a unit used to express concentration , especially in food and chemical fortification.
In the case of iodized salt :
This corresponds to the optimal fortification level recommended by the WHO/UNICEF/ICCIDD at the production level , ensuring that after expected losses (storage, humidity, cooking), the iodine content remains sufficient at the consumer level.
✅ Why “30 ppm” Is Correct:
The WHO recommends iodine content in salt at the production level to be between 20–40 mg/kg , i.e., 20–40 ppm .
30 ppm is within this range and commonly used to balance iodine sufficiency and safety .
After transport and household use, it generally results in adequate iodine intake (~150 µg/day) .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
10 ppm: Too low — insufficient to meet physiological needs once storage and cooking losses occur.
50 ppm and 70 ppm: Exceed the recommended range — could lead to excess iodine intake , especially in sensitive populations (e.g., elderly, those with preexisting thyroid disease).
100 ppm: Significantly above the safe and recommended range — not acceptable for routine dietary use.
When evaluating a nutrient fortification level, ask yourself:Does it align with daily requirements, and is it safe for population-wide use over time? Fortification always considers losses and public safety .
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Category:
Endo – Community Medicine/Behavioral Sciences
How much iodine is present in the salt?
Iodine Fortification in Salt:
Iodized salt is the most effective strategy to prevent iodine deficiency disorders (IDDs).
The recommended level of iodine fortification, as per WHO/UNICEF/ICCIDD guidelines , is:
20–40 mg of iodine per kilogram of salt at the point of production .
This level compensates for losses during storage, transport, and cooking , ensuring an effective intake of about 150 µg/day for adults .
✅ Why “20–40 mg of iodine per kg of salt” Is Correct:
Ensures adequate iodine intake across populations.
Maintains safety — higher concentrations might cause iodine-induced hyperthyroidism in susceptible individuals.
This range balances efficacy and safety , making it the internationally accepted standard .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
60–70 mg/kg and 90–100 mg/kg: Too high — could risk excessive iodine intake and associated complications (e.g., thyrotoxicosis).
0–10 mg/kg: Too low — insufficient to meet physiological needs or correct deficiency.
None of them: Incorrect — one of the options is clearly accurate and evidence-based.
When asked about a mass public health intervention , always think:What is universally consumed, affordable, and easy to fortify?
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Category:
Endo – Community Medicine/Behavioral Sciences
What is added to the diet in order to overcome iodine deficiency?
🔹 Why Iodine Supplementation Is Necessary:
In many parts of the world — including Pakistan , India, and various African nations — soil and food sources are deficient in iodine, particularly in mountainous regions .
✅ Why “Iodized Salt” Is Correct:
Iodized salt is the most effective, affordable, and widely accepted intervention for iodine deficiency.
Salt is consumed daily and in consistent quantities across populations.
Universal Salt Iodization (USI) is a WHO-endorsed public health policy used globally to prevent IDDs.
Each gram of iodized salt typically contains about 20–40 µg of iodine .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Iodized drug: Not used routinely for population-level prevention. Iodine-containing tablets (e.g., iodized oil) may be used in emergencies or remote regions , but not as a primary strategy.
Regular salt: Does not contain added iodine , hence not helpful in overcoming deficiency.
Iodized water: Not a standard or practical public health intervention. Difficult to regulate and distribute uniformly.
None of them: Incorrect — iodized salt is clearly the answer.
When considering daily micronutrient needs, remember that trace elements like iodine are needed in micrograms , not milligrams — but even slight deficiencies can have major developmental impacts.
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Category:
Endo – Community Medicine/Behavioral Sciences
What is the required daily iodine intake for adults?
🔹 Why Iodine Is Important:
✅ Why “150 micrograms” Is Correct:
This amount ensures adequate thyroid hormone production and helps prevent iodine deficiency disorders (IDDs) such as:
Goiter
Cretinism
Hypothyroidism
Intellectual disability
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
270 µg and 240 µg: Too high for the general adult population — these are closer to the upper limit or pregnancy-related needs .
70 µg and 100 µg: Too low to meet the metabolic demands of thyroid hormone production in adults.
For any receptor-mediated signaling , always ask:How does the hormone bind? What subunit has enzymatic activity?
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Category:
Endo – Physio
What is the structure of the insulin receptor?
🔹 Insulin Receptor Structure:
The insulin receptor is a heterotetrameric transmembrane protein .
It consists of:
The α and β subunits are synthesized as a single polypeptide that is cleaved and then connected by disulfide bonds to form the functional receptor.
✅ Why “2 alpha and 2 beta chains” Is Correct:
The 2 α-subunits are located extracellularly and are responsible for binding insulin .
The 2 β-subunits span the membrane and have intracellular tyrosine kinase domains that initiate the insulin signaling cascade upon ligand binding.
This structure enables the receptor to autophosphorylate and activate downstream signals like the PI3K-Akt pathway , resulting in:
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
1 alpha and 1 beta chain / 2 alpha and 1 beta chain / 1 alpha and 2 beta chains: All incorrect because the receptor functions as a dimer of αβ pairs — the tetrameric structure (α₂β₂) is essential for full signaling.
2 alpha and 2 sigma chains: There are no sigma chains in the insulin receptor.
When reviewing hormones, break down their structure into subunits or chains — this often helps when you’re asked for total amino acid counts.
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Category:
Endo – Physio
What are the number of amino acids in Insulin?
🔹 Structure of Insulin:
Insulin is a peptide hormone produced by β-cells of the pancreatic islets (Islets of Langerhans) .
It is composed of two peptide chains :
A chain: 21 amino acids
B chain: 30 amino acids
These are linked by two disulfide bonds (and one intra-chain bond in the A chain).
Total = 21 + 30 = 51 amino acids
✅ Why “51” Is Correct:
This is the total number of amino acids in mature human insulin .
Insulin is initially synthesized as preproinsulin , which is processed to proinsulin , and then cleaved into:
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
191: This is the number of amino acids in growth hormone (GH) .
30: Number of amino acids in the B chain only.
21: Number of amino acids in the A chain only.
76: Not related to insulin — too high for insulin and too low for GH.
When dealing with hormones, think about their origin (peptide, steroid, or amino acid derivative) and their size . Protein hormones like GH and prolactin tend to be larger (hundreds of amino acids), whereas insulin and glucagon are smaller polypeptides.
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Category:
Endo – Physio
What are the number of amino acids in growth hormone?
🔹 Structure of Growth Hormone:
Growth Hormone (GH) , also known as somatotropin , is a single-chain polypeptide hormone.
It is secreted by somatotrophs in the anterior pituitary gland .
The human growth hormone contains 191 amino acids .
✅ Why 191 Is Correct:
This is the precise number of amino acids in the biologically active form of human GH.
It has a molecular weight of ~22 kDa , making it a relatively large hormone.
It functions by binding to GH receptors and stimulating IGF-1 production , promoting growth and metabolism.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
10: Too small for a functional hormone like GH.
51: This is the number of amino acids in insulin , not GH.
89: Incorrect; no known form of GH or its fragments have this number.
230: Larger than the actual size of GH. Some GH variants exist, but 191 is the standard for functional human GH.
When it comes to pharyngeal pouch derivatives, ask yourself: Which structures migrate? Sometimes, the “inferior” structure comes from a higher-numbered pouch , because it migrates further down during development.
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Category:
Endo – Embryology
The superior parathyroid gland develops from which pharyngeal pouch?
🔹 Pharyngeal Pouch Derivatives – Key Associations:
Each pharyngeal pouch gives rise to specific structures. For the parathyroid glands:
3rd pharyngeal pouch:
4th pharyngeal pouch:
Forms the superior parathyroid glands
Also gives rise to the ultimobranchial body , which contributes C cells to the thyroid
✅ Why “4th pharyngeal pouch” Is Correct:
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
1st pouch: Forms parts of the ear and Eustachian tube — not involved in parathyroid development.
2nd pouch: Forms the palatine tonsils .
3rd pouch: Forms the inferior parathyroid glands and thymus , not the superior ones.
5th pouch: Usually considered rudimentary; may contribute slightly to the ultimobranchial body , but not to the parathyroids directly.
When asked about “most common cause” in a population , always consider modifiable environmental or dietary factors first — especially for micronutrient deficiencies.
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Category:
Endo – Community Medicine/Behavioral Sciences
What is the most common cause of iodine deficiency in Pakistan?
🔹 Why Iodine Is Important:
Iodine is essential for the synthesis of thyroid hormones (T3 and T4) .
These hormones regulate metabolism, growth, and brain development .
A deficiency can lead to:
Goiter
Cretinism
Intellectual disability
Hypothyroidism
✅ Why “Insufficient Iodine Intake” Is Correct:
The most common global and local cause of iodine deficiency is inadequate dietary intake .
In Pakistan, this is often due to:
Lack of iodized salt in rural or underserved areas
Soil iodine depletion in mountainous regions (e.g., northern Pakistan)
Lack of awareness or compliance with iodization programs
Universal salt iodization (USI) is a key public health strategy used to address this.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Too much usage of iodine in the body: Misleading — excess iodine can cause thyroid dysfunction, but not deficiency .
Impaired iodine absorption: Rare. The gut absorbs iodine efficiently. Malabsorption is not a common cause .
Impaired iodine uptake: Refers to thyroid gland dysfunction (e.g., mutations in the sodium-iodide symporter), which is rare and not a common cause at the population level.
Hereditary: Genetic causes (e.g., dyshormonogenesis) do exist, but they are rare and individual , not the main population-level cause.
When a question includes childhood developmental issues, ask yourself: Which hormones are crucial for early brain and skeletal development?
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Category:
Endo – Physio
What is Cretinism?
Cretinism refers to the severe physical and mental developmental delay that results from untreated congenital or early-life hypothyroidism .
Thyroid hormone is essential for brain development, growth, and metabolism — especially in the first few years of life.
The condition may arise due to:
Congenital absence or underdevelopment of the thyroid gland
Iodine deficiency during pregnancy
Genetic defects in hormone synthesis
Maternal hypothyroidism
✅ Why “Hypothyroidism during fetal life, infancy & childhood” Is Correct:
Early diagnosis (e.g., via newborn screening) and levothyroxine treatment can prevent these outcomes.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Hyperparathyroidism during adult life: Related to calcium and phosphate imbalance , not thyroid hormone. Has no link to cretinism .
Hyperthyroidism during childhood: Causes increased metabolism, restlessness, and growth acceleration , not cretinism.
Increased growth hormone: Would cause gigantism (in children) or acromegaly (in adults), not developmental delay or mental impairment.
None of them: Incorrect because one option is clearly correct .
When considering insulin types, always ask: Is this for maintenance or emergency? If it’s an acute condition , you’ll need an IV insulin with rapid action , not long-acting or intermediate preparations.
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Category:
Endo – Pharmacology
Which of the following is inappropriate about neutral protamine hagedorn (NPH)?
🔹 What is NPH Insulin?
NPH (Neutral Protamine Hagedorn) is an intermediate-acting insulin .
It consists of insulin complexed with protamine , which delays its absorption and prolongs its action .
Onset: 1–2 hours
Peak: 4–12 hours
Duration: 12–18 hours
It is administered subcutaneously , often twice daily .
✅ Why “It is used to treat diabetic ketoacidosis” Is Inappropriate:
NPH is not appropriate for treating diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) .
DKA requires rapid correction of hyperglycemia , acidosis, and dehydration.
The insulin of choice in DKA is regular insulin , given IV for immediate action.
NPH has a delayed onset and variable absorption , making it unsuitable for acute emergencies like DKA.
✅ Why the Other Statements Are Correct:
It is an intermediate-acting form of insulin: True. NPH is classified as intermediate-acting.
It is given subcutaneously: True. All basal insulins, including NPH, are given subcutaneously , not IV.
None of these: Incorrect because one statement (DKA use) is wrong.
All of these: Also incorrect — only one statement is inappropriate.
When seeing symptoms of gradual tissue enlargement in adults , always ask: Could this be hormonal?
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Category:
Endo – Physio
A 40-year-old man comes to the outpatient department with an enlarged face, prognathism and swollen hands and feet. What is the most likely diagnosis?
🔹 What Is Acromegaly?
Acromegaly is caused by excess secretion of growth hormone (GH) after the epiphyseal growth plates have fused (i.e., in adults).
It is most commonly due to a GH-secreting pituitary adenoma .
GH stimulates production of IGF-1 (insulin-like growth factor 1) , which promotes soft tissue and bone overgrowth.
✅ Why Acromegaly Is Correct:
Key features matching the case:
Enlarged face: Overgrowth of facial bones and soft tissues.
Prognathism: Forward projection of the jaw (mandibular overgrowth).
Swollen hands and feet: Due to soft tissue hypertrophy .
Other common signs:
Enlarged nose, lips, tongue (macroglossia )
Coarse facial features
Arthropathy
Hyperhidrosis
Insulin resistance or diabetes mellitus
Cardiomyopathy
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Hypothyroidism: Can cause puffiness, fatigue, and weight gain but not bony overgrowth or prognathism .
Hyperaldosteronism (Conn’s syndrome): Causes hypertension, hypokalemia , and muscle weakness , not bone/tissue overgrowth .
Hyperthyroidism: Presents with weight loss, tremor, heat intolerance, tachycardia , not enlargement of bones or soft tissue .
Gigantism: GH excess before epiphyseal closure , leading to tall stature in children or adolescents. A 40-year-old adult cannot develop gigantism — his growth plates are already fused.
When evaluating risks related to metabolism , prioritize where the fat is , not just how much. Visceral fat carries far more risk than subcutaneous fat.
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Category:
Endo – Community Medicine/Behavioral Sciences
Which of the following is the best indicator for metabolic syndrome?
🔹 What Is Metabolic Syndrome?
Metabolic syndrome is defined by a constellation of factors, typically:
Abdominal (central) obesity
Insulin resistance or elevated fasting glucose
Hypertension
High triglycerides
Low HDL cholesterol
While several measures relate to body composition, abdominal fat is the most metabolically active and most strongly associated with insulin resistance.
✅ Why Waist Circumference Is Correct:
Waist circumference is the most specific and direct indicator of central (visceral) obesity , which is a core component of metabolic syndrome.
It reflects intra-abdominal fat , which contributes more to insulin resistance and cardiovascular risk than total body weight.
Diagnostic cut-offs vary slightly, but typically:
Men: >102 cm
Women: >88 cm
Central obesity is more closely linked with metabolic complications than BMI.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Body mass index (BMI): Measures overall body mass , not fat distribution . A person can have a normal BMI but still have high central adiposity (the so-called “TOFI” — thin outside, fat inside).
Waist-hip ratio (WHR): Somewhat useful, but less reliable than waist circumference alone in identifying central obesity.
Body weight: Non-specific and does not account for body composition or fat distribution .
None of these: Incorrect — waist circumference is clearly a recognized clinical marker.
When analyzing renal hormone regulation, ask: Does this signal directly affect kidney perfusion or sodium sensing? If not, it’s probably not a primary driver of renin release.
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Juxtaglomerular cells secrete renin in response to all of the following except:
🔹 Role of Juxtaglomerular Cells:
JG cells are specialized smooth muscle cells located in the afferent arteriole of the nephron.
They synthesize and secrete renin , an enzyme that initiates the RAAS cascade , leading to:
✅ Why “Increased Heart Rate” Is Correct (i.e., Not a Stimulus for Renin):
Increased heart rate might occur alongside these stimuli but is not itself a direct signal to JG cells.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect (i.e., They Do Stimulate Renin):
Hemorrhage: Causes hypovolemia and hypotension , leading to renin release to restore perfusion.
Dehydration: Reduces plasma volume , activating renin via both baroreceptors and macula densa sensing low Na⁺.
Decreased blood pressure: Detected by baroreceptors → sympathetic stimulation of β1-receptors on JG cells → renin secretion .
Decreased blood volume: Leads to reduced renal perfusion pressure → JG cell activation .
Ask yourself: Is the signal acting on the same cell, nearby cells, or far away via the blood? Matching the mechanism of action with the location of the target will help you differentiate between autocrine, paracrine, and endocrine signaling.
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Which of the following is true regarding autocrine agents?
🔹 Types of Cell Signaling:
Autocrine:
The cell releases a chemical that acts on itself .
Important in immune signaling (e.g., interleukin-2 in T cells).
Allows for self-regulation or amplification of a signal.
Paracrine:
Endocrine:
✅ Why “Affect the cell in which they were synthesized” Is Correct:
This is the defining feature of autocrine signaling .
The agent binds to receptors on the same cell that released it, allowing for feedback regulation .
Example: Growth factors or cytokines in certain cancers or immune cells.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Affect adjacent cells: This describes paracrine signaling , not autocrine .
Affect distant organs: This is the role of endocrine hormones , not autocrine agents .
All of these / None of these: Incorrect because only one statement accurately describes autocrine signaling.
When evaluating hormone functions, ask: Is this action direct, indirect (via another hormone like IGF-1), or not part of the hormone’s physiological profile at all? Look out for options that incorrectly attribute unrelated endocrine effects.
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Which of the following is not true about the functions of growth hormone?
🔹 Growth Hormone (GH) Functions Overview:
GH is secreted by somatotrophs in the anterior pituitary and acts directly and indirectly (via IGF-1 ) to promote:
✅ Why “Stimulates secretion of prolactin” Is NOT True:
GH and prolactin are both anterior pituitary hormones, but they are regulated independently .
GH does not stimulate prolactin secretion . In fact, dopamine inhibits prolactin, while TRH can stimulate it.
This statement is incorrect and therefore is the right answer to a “not true” question.
✅ Why the Other Statements Are True:
Increased protein synthesis in chondrocytes and increased linear growth: GH stimulates epiphyseal plate growth , especially via IGF-1 , leading to height increase in children.
Increased protein synthesis in muscle: GH enhances anabolic effects , increasing muscle mass and strength.
Increased organ size: GH promotes hypertrophy and hyperplasia of visceral organs (e.g., liver, kidneys, heart).
Promotes gluconeogenesis: GH raises blood glucose by promoting gluconeogenesis in the liver and reducing glucose uptake in peripheral tissues (anti-insulin effect).
When evaluating hormone-related disorders, ask: What happens if this hormone is in excess before vs. after puberty? The effects can differ dramatically depending on skeletal maturity.
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Which of the following is associated with growth hormone?
🔹 Growth Hormone (GH) Overview:
GH is secreted by somatotrophs in the anterior pituitary .
It stimulates growth via insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1) , especially in bones and soft tissues.
GH excess or deficiency has age-specific effects:
✅ Why Gigantism Is Correct:
Gigantism occurs when GH is secreted in excess before puberty , while epiphyseal growth plates are still open .
This results in excessive linear growth , leading to extremely tall stature .
It is typically due to a GH-secreting pituitary adenoma .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Microglossia: Means small tongue , not related to GH. GH excess actually causes macroglossia (enlarged tongue), especially in acromegaly.
Hypoglycemia: GH is anti-insulin in its action; it raises blood glucose. GH deficiency can cause hypoglycemia in children, but hypoglycemia is not directly associated with GH excess .
Acromegaly before adolescence: Wrong terminology — before adolescence, excess GH causes gigantism , not acromegaly. Acromegaly refers to post-pubertal GH excess , leading to bony and soft tissue overgrowth (hands, feet, jaw).
Lion-like facies: This is typically associated with Paget’s disease of bone , not GH disorders .
When a question asks about “most common” or “most affected” in public health, think age-related physiology, lifestyle patterns, and cumulative risk . These usually peak in middle-aged and older adults .
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Category:
Endo – Community Medicine/Behavioral Sciences
Obesity is most common in which of the following age groups?
🔹 Epidemiology of Obesity by Age:
Obesity can occur at any age , but its prevalence increases with age , particularly in middle-aged and elderly populations.
This trend is due to a combination of factors:
Slower metabolism with age
Decreased physical activity
Accumulated lifestyle risks
Hormonal changes (e.g., menopause, andropause)
Loss of muscle mass (sarcopenia), which reduces basal metabolic rate
✅ Why “Middle age and elderly” Is Correct:
Data from both global and national health surveys consistently show that the highest rates of obesity occur in adults aged 40–65 years , and remain high in the elderly.
It reflects the cumulative effect of sedentary behavior, unhealthy diet, and metabolic slowdown.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Middle age: Partially correct — but excludes the elderly , where prevalence is still high.
Childhood / Adolescence: Childhood obesity is rising , but not yet as prevalent as in adults. The long-term concern is that obese children are more likely to become obese adults.
All ages: While obesity can affect all ages, the highest prevalence is not equal across the board , making this statement inaccurate.
When asked about breakdown products of hormones or neurotransmitters, think: What is the primary end product?
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Category:
Endo – Biochemistry
Which of the following is used to check catecholamine degradation?
🔹 Catecholamines Overview:
Catecholamines include epinephrine, norepinephrine , and dopamine .
They are synthesized from tyrosine , and their actions are terminated via enzymatic degradation primarily by:
✅ Why Vanillylmandelic Acid (VMA) in Urine Is Correct:
VMA is the major end-product of epinephrine and norepinephrine metabolism .
It is excreted in the urine and serves as a biochemical marker of catecholamine degradation .
Measuring VMA levels is particularly useful in diagnosing:
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Lactate threshold test: Measures anaerobic metabolism during exercise — unrelated to catecholamines.
Glucose tolerance test (GTT): Used to assess insulin resistance and diabetes , not catecholamine metabolism.
Complete blood count (CBC): Gives information about blood cells — has no relation to catecholamine degradation.
None of these: Incorrect because VMA in urine is a valid and important test for catecholamine breakdown
If a question asks for a precursor to a catecholamine or thyroid hormone , ask yourself: Is the molecule aromatic?
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Category:
Endo – Biochemistry
Thyroid hormones are synthesized from which of the following amino acids?
🔹 Thyroid Hormone Synthesis Overview:
Thyroid hormones — T3 (triiodothyronine) and T4 (thyroxine) — are synthesized in the thyroid follicular cells from:
Iodine
Tyrosine residues on a large protein called thyroglobulin
The process includes:
Iodide uptake into the follicular cell
Oxidation of iodide to iodine
Iodination of tyrosine residues (to form MIT and DIT)
Coupling to form T3 (MIT + DIT) and T4 (DIT + DIT)
Release of T3 and T4 into the bloodstream
✅ Why Tyrosine Is Correct:
Tyrosine is the specific amino acid used as the backbone of thyroid hormones.
Each hormone contains iodinated tyrosine residues .
T3 and T4 are essentially iodinated derivatives of tyrosine .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Valine, Threonine, Glycine: These amino acids are not involved in thyroid hormone synthesis. They are important in protein structure but have no role in hormone production here.
Tryptophan: Precursor for serotonin and melatonin , not thyroid hormones.
When a question asks about deficiency , consider what the body can no longer make or do. Ask yourself: Would this result in too much or too little hormone production?
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Which of the following is not a result of iodine deficiency?
🔹 Iodine and Thyroid Function:
Iodine is an essential element required for the synthesis of thyroid hormones — T3 (triiodothyronine) and T4 (thyroxine) .
Inadequate iodine intake leads to insufficient production of these hormones, resulting in a hypothyroid state and compensatory thyroid gland changes .
✅ Why Hyperthyroidism Is the Correct (Wrong) Option:
Hyperthyroidism involves excessive thyroid hormone production.
Iodine deficiency causes hypothyroidism , not hyperthyroidism.
In fact, without iodine, the thyroid cannot produce enough hormone , even if TSH levels are elevated.
Therefore, hyperthyroidism is not a typical consequence of iodine deficiency.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Correct Consequences of Iodine Deficiency:
Intellectual disability: Seen in congenital iodine deficiency syndrome (formerly called cretinism), especially in children born to iodine-deficient mothers.
Hypothyroidism: Direct result of inadequate iodine → reduced T3/T4 synthesis → increased TSH → thyroid dysfunction.
Cold intolerance: A classic symptom of hypothyroidism , due to slowed metabolism .
Endemic goiter: Chronic iodine deficiency causes TSH to rise, stimulating thyroid hypertrophy → goiter formation , often affecting entire populations.
In conditions involving insulin resistance or glucose intolerance, ask: Does this drug help or hurt carbohydrate metabolism? That will guide you to the safest choice.
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Category:
Endo – Pharmacology
Which of the following drugs are used to treat hypertension in metabolic syndrome?
🔹 What is Metabolic Syndrome?
Metabolic syndrome refers to a cluster of conditions that increase the risk for cardiovascular disease and type 2 diabetes :
Abdominal obesity
Insulin resistance
Hypertension
High triglycerides
Low HDL cholesterol
Controlling blood pressure is a key part of treatment — but some antihypertensive drugs may worsen glucose tolerance or lipid profiles , so selection is critical.
✅ Why ACE Inhibitors Are Correct:
ACE inhibitors are often first-line therapy in hypertensive patients with coexisting diabetes or metabolic syndrome .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Aminoglycosides: These are antibiotics (e.g., gentamicin) with no role in hypertension management. They are nephrotoxic and ototoxic .
Quinolones: Another group of antibiotics (e.g., ciprofloxacin) — unrelated to hypertension treatment.
Corticosteroids: These worsen metabolic syndrome by:
None of these: Incorrect because ACE inhibitors are used in this scenario.
When considering muscle weakness, ask: Could this be due to disrupted ion gradients?
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Category:
Endo – Pathology
Which of the following causes muscle weakness in Conn’s syndrome?
🔹 What Is Conn’s Syndrome?
Conn’s syndrome refers to primary hyperaldosteronism — an endocrine disorder characterized by excessive aldosterone production , most commonly from an adrenal adenoma .
Aldosterone acts on the distal nephron in the kidney to:
Increase Na⁺ reabsorption → hypertension
Promote K⁺ excretion → hypokalemia
Promote H⁺ excretion → metabolic alkalosis
✅ Why Hypokalemia Is Correct:
Hypokalemia is a classic feature of Conn’s syndrome.
Low potassium levels impair neuromuscular excitability , resulting in:
Potassium is essential for maintaining resting membrane potential , especially in skeletal and cardiac muscle.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Hyperkalemia: This would cause increased excitability , not weakness — and is the opposite of what happens in Conn’s.
Acidosis: Conn’s syndrome actually causes alkalosis (due to H⁺ excretion). Acidosis is not a feature here.
Hyponatremia: You’d expect mild hypernatremia or normal sodium due to aldosterone’s sodium-retaining effect. Hyponatremia is not characteristic of Conn’s syndrome.
None of these: Incorrect because hypokalemia clearly contributes to muscle weakness .
When trying to localize a hormonal disorder, ask: Is the gland not producing enough hormone because it’s damaged, or because it’s not being told to? If it doesn’t respond to a stimulating hormone, the problem is likely at the level of the target gland or the receptor .
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Category:
Endo – Physio
In which of the following conditions, thyroid-stimulating hormone does not respond to thyrotropin-releasing hormone?
🔹 TRH-TSH Axis Overview:
The hypothalamus secretes thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) .
TRH stimulates the anterior pituitary to secrete thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) .
TSH then acts on the thyroid gland to produce T3 and T4 .
The TRH stimulation test is used to evaluate the integrity of this axis.
✅ Why “Pituitary Adenoma” Is Correct:
In TSH-secreting pituitary adenomas or other non-functioning pituitary tumors, the anterior pituitary is dysfunctional or autonomous .
This means it may:
Already secrete excess TSH independent of TRH , or
Be non-responsive to TRH due to tumor-related damage.
TRH administration fails to elicit a normal TSH rise , indicating a pituitary-level problem .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Graves’ disease: An autoimmune disorder where antibodies stimulate the TSH receptor — but pituitary and hypothalamic feedback remains intact . TSH is usually low , but the pituitary can still respond to TRH (although response may be blunted due to negative feedback from high T3/T4).
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis: Destruction of the thyroid gland → low T3/T4 → high TSH . The pituitary remains responsive to TRH. No issue at the level of the pituitary here.
All of these / None of these: Incorrect because only pituitary adenoma leads to non-responsiveness to TRH at the level of TSH secretion
When a question asks for the “most common” cause of an endocrine disorder, always consider: Is this typically a sporadic, benign condition or part of a rare genetic syndrome? Most commonly, it’s a single-gland adenoma .
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Category:
Endo – Pathology
Which of the following is the most common parathyroid tumor?
🔹 Primary Hyperparathyroidism:
This condition is caused by excessive secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH) , leading to:
Hypercalcemia
Hypophosphatemia
Bone resorption
Renal stones, bone pain, abdominal discomfort (“bones, stones, groans, and psychiatric overtones”)
✅ Why Parathyroid Adenoma Is Correct:
Parathyroid adenoma is the most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism , accounting for approximately 85–90% of cases.
It is a benign tumor of one parathyroid gland that causes unregulated PTH secretion .
Typically presents sporadically , but may also be seen in familial syndromes like MEN1 .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Type 1 (MEN1): Involves the parathyroid glands , pancreas, and pituitary. While MEN1 can cause parathyroid hyperplasia , it accounts for <5% of parathyroid tumors.
Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Type 2 (MEN2): MEN2 typically involves medullary thyroid carcinoma, pheochromocytoma , and parathyroid hyperplasia , but parathyroid involvement is less frequent than in MEN1.
Parathyroid hyperplasia: Accounts for about 10–15% of cases of primary hyperparathyroidism — often involves all four glands and is sometimes familial (e.g., MEN syndromes), but less common than adenoma.
Parathyroid carcinoma: Very rare (less than 1% of cases). Though it may cause severe hypercalcemia , it’s not a common tumor.
When faced with developmental origin questions, ask: Is the structure midline or lateral? Which germ layer and pouch (if any) is it derived from? For the thyroid, think midline, endoderm, and early development .
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Category:
Endo – Embryology
Which of the following is true regarding the development of the thyroid gland?
🔹 Development of the Thyroid Gland:
The thyroid gland is the first endocrine gland to develop (around the 4th week of gestation).
It begins as a median endodermal thickening in the floor of the primitive pharynx , specifically at a point called the foramen cecum — located at the base of the tongue .
From here, it forms a thyroid diverticulum , which descends in front of the pharyngeal gut , connected temporarily by the thyroglossal duct (which normally disappears later).
✅ Why “It starts from the foramen cecum” Is Correct:
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
“It is the body’s second endocrine gland to develop” : Incorrect — the thyroid is the first , not the second.
“It originates as a diverticulum between the 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches” : Incorrect — that’s the origin of the thymus and parathyroids , not the thyroid. The thyroid originates midline , not between pouches.
“All of these” / “None of these” : Incorrect, as only one of the statements is accurate — the one about the foramen cecum .
When asked about neural crest derivatives, think: What is the functional similarity between the options and the target tissue?
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Category:
Endo – Embryology
Which of the following are neural crest cells of adrenal medulla derived from?
🔹 Adrenal Gland Development Overview:
The adrenal gland is made up of two embryologically distinct parts:
The neural crest cells destined to form the adrenal medulla migrate to the adrenal gland primordium and differentiate into chromaffin cells , which:
✅ Why Sympathetic Ganglia Is Correct:
The adrenal medulla is functionally and developmentally related to the sympathetic nervous system .
Its chromaffin cells are essentially sympathetic postganglionic neurons without axons , specialized to release catecholamines directly into the blood.
These cells and sympathetic ganglia both originate from the same pool of neural crest cells .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Dorsal ganglia (dorsal root ganglia): Also neural crest–derived but give rise to sensory neurons , not adrenal medulla.
Parasympathetic ganglia: Neural crest–derived too, but they form ganglia for rest-and-digest functions, not the fight-or-flight role of adrenal medulla.
All of these / None of these: Incorrect because only sympathetic ganglia share a direct lineage and function with adrenal medullary cells .
When evaluating how a molecule circulates in plasma, ask: What fraction is free to interact with receptors and perform its function?
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Which of the following is true about calcium transport in plasma?
🔹 Calcium in Plasma Exists in Three Major Forms:
Ionized (Free) Calcium – ~50%
Protein-bound Calcium – ~40%
Complexed Calcium – ~10%
Bound to small anions like phosphate, bicarbonate, citrate, sulfate
Diffusible but not ionized
✅ Why “50% is in ionized form” Is Correct:
This statement accurately reflects the proportion of biologically active calcium in the blood.
Ionized calcium is tightly regulated by PTH, vitamin D, and calcitonin .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Ionized Ca⁺ is the biologically inactive form: Incorrect — ionized calcium is the active form responsible for physiological effects.
30% is bound to plasma proteins: Close, but not accurate. Around 40% (not 30%) of calcium is protein-bound.
20% is complexed to phosphate and citrate: Not quite — this fraction is ~10% , not 20%.
None of these: Incorrect because one of the statements — “50% is in ionized form” — is true.
If a disease has many rare genetic or autoimmune forms, always ask: What is the most frequent and preventable cause in a clinical setting? Often, the answer is iatrogenic (surgery-related).
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Category:
Endo – Pathology
Hypoparathyroidism most commonly occurs secondary to which of the following?
🔹 What Is Hypoparathyroidism?
Hypoparathyroidism is characterized by low parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels , leading to:
✅ Why Surgery-Induced Hypoparathyroidism Is Most Common:
The most frequent cause of hypoparathyroidism is accidental removal or damage to the parathyroid glands during neck surgeries , particularly:
Thyroidectomy
Parathyroidectomy
Radical neck dissection
This iatrogenic cause is far more common than genetic or autoimmune forms.
Surgeons now try to identify and preserve the parathyroid glands during surgery to avoid this complication.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Congenital absence of the parathyroid glands: Occurs in rare syndromes like DiGeorge syndrome , but not the most common cause overall.
Familial isolated hypoparathyroidism: A rare genetic condition , not a common cause.
Autosomal dominant hypoparathyroidism: Another inherited form , seen in familial syndromes — again, rare .
Autoimmune hypoparathyroidism: Seen in conditions like Autoimmune Polyendocrine Syndrome Type 1 (APS-1) — important, but less common than post-surgical hypoparathyroidism.
When assessing whether a structure has adrenergic receptors, ask: Does the sympathetic nervous system need to quickly regulate the function of this organ during stress? If the answer is no, it likely lacks adrenergic receptors.
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Adrenergic receptors are present in all of the following except:
🔹 What Are Adrenergic Receptors?
Adrenergic receptors are G protein-coupled receptors that respond to epinephrine and norepinephrine . There are several subtypes:
Alpha (α1, α2)
Beta (β1, β2, β3)
They mediate a wide range of sympathetic effects on different organs.
✅ Why Bone Is the Correct Answer:
Bone tissue does not have a significant density of adrenergic receptors for direct sympathetic control.
While bone metabolism can be indirectly affected by systemic hormones (like epinephrine or cortisol), bone cells (osteoblasts/osteoclasts) do not actively use adrenergic receptor signaling in a primary or clinically significant way.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Intestines: Contain α and β adrenergic receptors . Stimulation leads to decreased peristalsis and vasoconstriction of intestinal blood vessels.
Skeletal Muscle: Rich in β2 receptors — stimulation causes vasodilation , increasing blood flow during “fight or flight”.
Viscera: Organs like the liver, kidneys, and GI tract have α and β receptors involved in blood flow regulation and metabolism.
Heart: Contains β1 receptors — stimulation leads to increased heart rate and contractility .
When a question involves regulation of salt and water, think: Which hormone system is directly tied to blood volume and renal function?
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Which of the following regulates mineralocorticoids?
🔹 Mineralocorticoids:
✅ Why Angiotensin II Is Correct:
This mechanism ensures rapid correction of hypotension and hyponatremia.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH): Stimulates TSH from the anterior pituitary — has no effect on adrenal cortex or aldosterone.
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH): Stimulates the thyroid gland , not the adrenal glands.
Epinephrine / Norepinephrine: These catecholamines are secreted by the adrenal medulla and influence heart rate and vasoconstriction , but they do not regulate aldosterone or mineralocorticoid activity.
When evaluating the most obvious clinical sign of a deficiency, ask: What is the earliest and most visible manifestation across all ages? Think in terms of what a clinician or public health worker could detect without a lab test .
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Category:
Endo – Community Medicine/Behavioral Sciences
Which of the following is the most obvious clinical manifestation of long-standing iodine deficiency?
🔹 Iodine and Thyroid Function:
Iodine is essential for the synthesis of thyroid hormones (T3 and T4) .
In iodine deficiency, the thyroid cannot produce adequate hormones, leading to compensatory TSH stimulation , which causes thyroid gland enlargement → goiter .
✅ Why Goiter Is the Most Obvious Clinical Manifestation:
Goiter is a visible and palpable enlargement of the thyroid gland.
It reflects the body’s attempt to trap more iodine and compensate for the hormone deficit.
Most common and easily observed sign in populations with iodine deficiency.
Public health surveys often use goiter prevalence to assess iodine deficiency disorders (IDD) in populations.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Endemic cretinism: A severe neurological consequence of congenital iodine deficiency, particularly in offspring of iodine-deficient mothers — important, but less common and less immediately visible than goiter in the general population.
Abortion / Reproductive failure: Iodine deficiency can increase risk, but these outcomes are less specific and less visible compared to goiter.
Mental retardation: A tragic and irreversible consequence in infants born to iodine-deficient mothers, but again, not the most obvious early or general population sign — it reflects long-term developmental damage .
When distinguishing endocrine emergencies, ask: Is this condition causing the body to “rev up” or “slow down”? Storms are always about hyperactivity — think heat, speed, and danger.
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Category:
Endo – Pathology
Thyroid storm is seen in which of the following diseases?
🔹 What is Thyroid Storm?
Thyroid storm is a life-threatening, hypermetabolic state caused by excessive thyroid hormone activity .
It is an extreme form of thyrotoxicosis and presents with:
High fever
Tachycardia or arrhythmias
Agitation, delirium, or coma
GI symptoms (nausea, vomiting, diarrhea)
It’s usually triggered by acute stress (infection, surgery, trauma) in someone with untreated or poorly controlled hyperthyroidism .
✅ Why Grave’s Disease Is the Correct Answer:
Grave’s disease is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism and therefore the most common underlying condition in thyroid storm .
It is an autoimmune disorder where TSH receptor antibodies stimulate the thyroid to produce excessive hormone.
In the setting of additional stress, this can precipitate thyroid storm .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis: This is a cause of hypothyroidism , not hyperthyroidism. No thyroid storm here — though early stages may have transient thyrotoxicosis.
Wolff-Chaikoff effect: This is a protective autoregulatory mechanism where excess iodine inhibits thyroid hormone synthesis — it actually reduces thyroid activity.
Myxedema coma: The opposite of thyroid storm — a severe hypothyroid emergency characterized by hypothermia, bradycardia, hypotension , and altered mental status.
Hypothyroidism: Chronic low thyroid function — does not cause storm; rather, untreated severe cases may lead to myxedema coma .
When analyzing hormonal causes of metabolic issues, ask: Does this hormone promote fat breakdown or inhibit fat storage? If it does — its deficiency could logically lead to fat accumulation , including in the liver.
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Deficiency of which hormone causes fatty liver?
🔹 Growth Hormone and Metabolism:
Growth hormone (GH) does much more than just promote linear growth. It plays a major role in lipid metabolism , particularly by:
Stimulating lipolysis (breakdown of fat)
Inhibiting lipogenesis (formation of fat)
Enhancing fatty acid oxidation
Reducing fat accumulation in the liver
✅ Why GH Deficiency Can Cause Fatty Liver:
In the absence of GH , lipolysis is reduced, and fat tends to accumulate in tissues, especially the liver .
GH deficiency leads to:
This is seen in both GH-deficient adults and children , and can be improved with GH replacement therapy .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Oxytocin: Primarily involved in uterine contraction and lactation — no known role in fat metabolism or liver fat accumulation.
Somatostatin: A universal inhibitor hormone (inhibits GH, insulin, glucagon, etc.) — but its deficiency doesn’t lead to fatty liver .
Prolactin: Mostly involved in milk production and immune modulation. No direct impact on hepatic fat metabolism.
None of them: Incorrect because GH deficiency is a well-established cause of fatty liver.
When distinguishing between parts of the pituitary, ask: Is this structure producing hormones itself (anterior) or just releasing hormones made elsewhere (posterior)? The answer will guide you to the correct anatomical term.
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Category:
Endo – Anatomy
What is another name of the anterior pituitary gland?
🔹 The Pituitary Gland (Hypophysis) Has Two Major Lobes:
Anterior Pituitary = Adenohypophysis
Posterior Pituitary = Neurohypophysis
✅ Why Adenohypophysis Is Correct:
“Adeno- ” means gland , reflecting its hormone-producing function .
It’s the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Neurohypophysis: This is the posterior pituitary, not the anterior. It’s involved in hormone storage and release , not production.
Pars intermedia: A small, poorly developed region between anterior and posterior pituitary — secretes little or no hormone in adults.
Pars nervosa: This is a part of the neurohypophysis (posterior pituitary) — where oxytocin and ADH are released.
All of them: Incorrect because only adenohypophysis refers to the anterior pituitary ; the others refer to different or incorrect parts.
When evaluating drug indications, ask: Does this condition benefit from vasoconstriction or antidiuretic action? If neither applies — especially in clot-related disorders — the drug is likely not indicated .
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Category:
Endo – Pharmacology
Which of the following is not an indication for vasopressin therapy?
🔹 What Is Vasopressin?
Also known as antidiuretic hormone (ADH) , vasopressin is a posterior pituitary hormone with two primary actions:
V1 receptor activation → vasoconstriction (hemostasis)
V2 receptor activation → increased water reabsorption in kidneys (antidiuretic effect)
Vasopressin and its analogs (e.g., desmopressin/DDAVP ) are used therapeutically in various conditions.
✅ Indications Where Vasopressin Is Used:
Esophageal varices: Vasopressin causes splanchnic vasoconstriction , reducing portal pressure and controlling bleeding.
Diabetes Insipidus (central type): Vasopressin (or desmopressin) replaces deficient ADH , reducing excessive urination.
Diverticular bleeding: As a vasoconstrictor , it can help manage GI bleeding including that from diverticula.
Von Willebrand disease: Desmopressin , a synthetic analog, increases release of vWF and factor VIII from endothelial stores — useful in mild cases.
❌ Why “Venous Thromboembolism” Is Incorrect:
Vasopressin is not used to treat or prevent VTE.
VTE management relies on anticoagulants (e.g., heparin, warfarin, DOACs), not vasoconstrictors .
In fact, vasopressin could theoretically worsen vascular constriction , which is not beneficial in thrombotic states.
When a hormone’s effect is carried out by a downstream molecule, ask yourself: Does that molecule loop back to signal the gland to slow down? If yes, it’s most likely functioning as an inhibitor .
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Somatomedins act as which of the following?
🔹 What Are Somatomedins?
Somatomedins, particularly Somatomedin C (also called IGF-1) , are peptide hormones produced primarily in the liver in response to growth hormone (GH) .
They mediate many of the growth-promoting effects of GH — such as increased protein synthesis, cell proliferation, and bone growth.
✅ Why Somatomedins Are Inhibitors:
IGF-1 (Somatomedin C) provides negative feedback to regulate GH secretion:
At the hypothalamus : stimulates somatostatin (GHIH) release, which inhibits GH secretion.
At the anterior pituitary : directly inhibits GH release .
Thus, while IGF-1 promotes growth peripherally , it inhibits further GH production centrally .
This is a classic negative feedback loop — once growth effects are sufficient, GH secretion is reduced.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Stimulators: Somatomedins do not stimulate GH — they actually suppress it through feedback inhibition.
Partial agonist / Antagonist: These terms refer to receptor binding behavior in pharmacology. Somatomedins are not acting on GH receptors , but rather on downstream IGF receptors and feedback systems .
None of them: Incorrect, because somatomedins clearly inhibit GH release via a well-defined feedback mechanism.
When dealing with the autonomic nervous system’s effect on hormones, ask: Does this agent mimic fight-or-flight or rest-and-digest? Then consider how that state affects growth and energy use.
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Exogenous administration of which of the following substances will decrease the release of growth hormone?
🔹 Growth Hormone Regulation Overview:
GH secretion is controlled by a delicate balance between:
Stimulatory factors :
Inhibitory factors :
✅ Why Beta Adrenergic Agonists Decrease GH:
Stimulation of β-adrenergic receptors (e.g., by isoproterenol ) leads to inhibition of GH release .
This contrasts with α-adrenergic stimulation , which increases GH .
Beta-adrenergic activation likely suppresses GHRH and/or enhances somatostatin action.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Dopamine: In physiological doses , it can stimulate GH release , although its effect can vary depending on receptor subtype and dose.
Ganglion blockers: These nonspecifically block autonomic ganglia but do not directly suppress GH secretion reliably. In some cases, they may even enhance GH by blocking inhibitory sympathetic signals.
5-HT receptor agonist (Serotonin): Generally stimulates GH release via central mechanisms, especially through 5-HT2 receptors .
Alpha adrenergic agonists: Increase GH secretion by stimulating the hypothalamus to release GHRH.
When thinking about hormone regulation, ask: Does this substance act as part of a feedback loop that signals “mission accomplished”? If so, it’s likely to inhibit further hormone release.
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Growth hormone is inhibited by which of the following?
What is Somatomedin?
Somatomedin C , also known as Insulin-like Growth Factor 1 (IGF-1) , is produced mainly in the liver in response to GH.
It mediates many of the growth-promoting effects of GH.
✅ Why Somatomedin Inhibits GH:
This keeps GH levels in check once its effects (mediated through IGF-1) are sufficient.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH): Stimulates FSH and LH from the anterior pituitary — has no role in GH regulation.
Hypoglycemia: Stimulates GH release as part of the counter-regulatory hormonal response to raise blood glucose.
Deep sleep: One of the strongest natural stimuli of GH — especially during slow-wave (stage 3 & 4) sleep .
Exercise: Another powerful physiological stimulus for GH secretion.
When faced with a question about hormone structure, ask: Is this hormone part of a structural family (like glycoproteins)? Think in terms of shared subunits and where they’re secreted from .
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Which of the following hormones have the same alpha unit?
🔹 Glycoprotein Hormones:
The hormones TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone) , LH (luteinizing hormone) , FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) , and hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin) are all glycoproteins that share a common alpha subunit , but have distinct beta subunits that confer biological specificity .
The α-subunit is identical across all of them. The β-subunit is unique to each hormone and determines receptor binding and function .
✅ Why TSH, LH, and FSH Share the Same Alpha Subunit:
All three are pituitary glycoprotein hormones
Share a common alpha chain (~92 amino acids)
The beta chains differ in amino acid sequence and length:
TSH → thyroid gland
LH & FSH → gonads
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
GH, prolactin, LH: GH and prolactin are single-chain polypeptide hormones , not glycoproteins. They do not have alpha/beta subunits .
LH, TSH: While both are glycoproteins and do share an alpha unit, this option is incomplete — FSH also shares it. Hence, not the best answer.
ACTH, TSH: ACTH is a peptide derived from POMC , not a glycoprotein hormone — structurally and functionally unrelated.
TSH, GH: GH is a protein hormone with no structural similarity to TSH in terms of subunit composition.
When comparing endocrine tumors, always ask: Which one is the most functionally active and clinically obvious — yet also responds well to medical therapy? The answer often lies in what is easiest to detect early and common in young adults .
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Which of the following is the most common type of pituitary adenoma?
🔹 Pituitary Adenomas:
✅ Why Prolactinoma Is Most Common:
Prolactin-secreting adenomas (prolactinomas) account for ~40–50% of all pituitary adenomas.
They arise from lactotroph cells in the anterior pituitary.
Common in young women and may present with:
Amenorrhea
Galactorrhea
Infertility
In men: decreased libido, erectile dysfunction, and visual symptoms if large.
First-line treatment is often dopamine agonists (e.g., bromocriptine, cabergoline), which inhibit prolactin release.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Growth hormone cell adenoma: Causes acromegaly in adults, gigantism in children — second most common, but less frequent than prolactinomas.
FSH-producing adenoma & LH-producing adenoma: These gonadotroph adenomas are usually non-functional and detected late due to mass effect — rare as functioning tumors.
ACTH cell adenoma: Causes Cushing’s disease (hypercortisolism). Less common than prolactinomas.
Ask yourself: Which condition leads to increased insulin resistance and pro-inflammatory states? In lifestyle-related diseases, think of what causes metabolic overload — not just emotional or social strain.
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Category:
Endo – Community Medicine/Behavioral Sciences
What is the major lifestyle risk of developing type 2 diabetes mellitus?
🔹 Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus (T2DM):
T2DM is a chronic metabolic disorder characterized by:
While genetic predisposition plays a role, lifestyle factors are the most critical modifiable risks .
✅ Why Obesity Is the Major Risk Factor:
Obesity, especially central (visceral) obesity , is the single most important lifestyle-related risk for T2DM.
Mechanisms include:
Increased free fatty acids → insulin resistance
Pro-inflammatory cytokines from adipose tissue
Reduced adiponectin , which enhances insulin sensitivity
Obesity strongly correlates with impaired glucose tolerance and metabolic syndrome .
Studies show that more than 80% of people with T2DM are overweight or obese.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Physically active: Protective against T2DM — regular exercise improves insulin sensitivity .
High mental stress: May contribute indirectly, but not a primary or major modifiable risk factor like obesity or inactivity.
Underweight: Associated with lower risk of T2DM. In fact, it may signal other medical issues, but not T2DM risk.
Parenthood: Not a risk factor — unless associated with gestational diabetes , which increases the mother’s future risk of T2DM.
When analyzing hormonal regulation, think: Does this condition signal the body to grow, mobilize energy, or conserve? GH increases in catabolic states (like fasting or hypoglycemia), but decreases when the body is in energy surplus ….
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Which of the following causes a decrease in growth hormone release?
🔹 Growth Hormone (GH):
GH is secreted by somatotrophs in the anterior pituitary and is regulated by:
Stimulatory factors:
Inhibitory factors:
✅ Why Obesity Decreases GH:
This is clinically relevant — obese individuals often have blunted GH responses to stimuli like exercise or insulin-induced hypoglycemia.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Exercise: Strong stimulator of GH release due to increased metabolic demand.
Stress: Physiological stress (e.g., surgery, trauma) increases GH via hypothalamic activation.
Hypoglycemia: Potent stimulus for GH — part of the counter-regulatory hormone response to raise blood glucose.
Sleep: Especially deep (slow-wave) sleep , significantly boosts GH secretion — part of its role in tissue growth and repair.
When evaluating side effects of diuretics, always ask: Does this drug increase sodium reabsorption at the cost of potassium excretion — or block that process entirely? The potassium-sparing agents behave opposite to loop and thiazide diuretics.
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Which antihypertensive drug causes hyperkalemia?
Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic and an aldosterone antagonist . It is commonly used for:
🔹 Mechanism Behind Hyperkalemia:
Aldosterone normally promotes Na⁺ reabsorption and K⁺ excretion in the collecting ducts of the nephron.
Spironolactone blocks aldosterone receptors , leading to:
↓ sodium reabsorption
↓ potassium excretion
Result: Potassium accumulates → hyperkalemia
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Furosemide: A loop diuretic that promotes K⁺ loss → causes hypokalemia , not hyperkalemia.
Metolazone: A thiazide-like diuretic → increases distal sodium delivery, leading to increased potassium loss → hypokalemia .
Hydrochlorothiazide: Classic thiazide diuretic → also causes hypokalemia .
Fludrocortisone: A mineralocorticoid agonist (like aldosterone) → increases K⁺ excretion , causing hypokalemia , not hyperkalemia.
If you’re asked which gland controls the activity of other endocrine glands, think about the one that sends stimulating (tropic) hormones to multiple targets — and sits at the top of the endocrine chain.
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Which gland is regarded as the master gland?
The pituitary gland , also known as the hypophysis , is considered the “master gland” of the endocrine system because it controls the function of several other endocrine glands through its hormone secretions.
🔹 Functions of the Pituitary Gland:
The pituitary has two lobes with distinct functions:
Anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis) – Produces tropic hormones that regulate other glands:
Posterior pituitary (neurohypophysis) – Releases:
Because it controls so many other endocrine organs, it sits atop the hormonal hierarchy , hence the title “master gland.”
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Thyroid gland: Important for metabolism but regulated by TSH from the pituitary , so it’s not at the top of the command chain.
Adrenal gland: Produces critical hormones (cortisol, aldosterone), but it’s also under control of ACTH from the pituitary.
Pancreatic islets: Secrete insulin and glucagon independently — important but not central controllers of other glands .
Pineal gland: Secretes melatonin — mainly involved in circadian rhythm, not hormone regulation of other organs .
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Category:
Endo – Physio
What is the most common cause of hyperparathyroidism?
When a gland shows hormone overproduction without widespread systemic disease, ask yourself: Is this more likely due to a single benign lesion or a systemic/inherited cause? The frequency often favors the former.
🔹 Types of Hyperparathyroidism:
There are three main types :
Primary hyperparathyroidism – intrinsic overproduction of PTH
Secondary hyperparathyroidism – reactive increase due to hypocalcemia (e.g., chronic kidney disease)
Tertiary hyperparathyroidism – autonomous PTH secretion after longstanding secondary hyperparathyroidism
🔹 Primary Hyperparathyroidism — Most Common Cause:
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Autoimmune: Not a known cause of hyperparathyroidism. Autoimmune damage is more relevant in hypoparathyroidism .
Infection: Rare to cause any form of parathyroid dysfunction. Not implicated in hyperparathyroidism.
Carcinoma: Parathyroid carcinoma is very rare (<1% of cases), though it can cause severe hypercalcemia .
Hyperplasia: Involves all four parathyroid glands. Occurs in 10–15% of cases , often in familial syndromes like MEN-1 and MEN-2A — but still less common than solitary adenoma .
Consider the clinical setting where a patient develops muscle spasms or tingling sensations soon after a medical procedure. What recent intervention might explain the abrupt change in calcium regulation?
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Category:
Endo – Physio
What is the most common cause of hypoparathyroidism?
🔹 What is Hypoparathyroidism?
Hypoparathyroidism refers to insufficient secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH) → leading to hypocalcemia , hyperphosphatemia , and neuromuscular excitability (e.g., tetany, Chvostek’s and Trousseau’s signs).
✅ Why Surgery is the Most Common Cause:
Post-surgical hypoparathyroidism is the most common cause , particularly following:
The parathyroid glands are small and easily damaged or accidentally removed during surgery involving the thyroid or neck.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Idiopathic: Rare — implies no known cause. Most cases have an identifiable cause like surgery or autoimmune destruction.
Genetic: Seen in syndromes like DiGeorge syndrome , but genetic forms are rare compared to surgical causes.
Autoimmune: Seen in autoimmune polyendocrine syndromes , but still less common than postsurgical cases.
Congenital: Includes agenesis of parathyroids (e.g., in DiGeorge), but again, much less common than iatrogenic (surgical) causes.
When analyzing lab cut-offs, ask yourself: Is this value used for fasting, random, or post-load testing? Always match the value to the testing context .
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Category:
Endo – Physio
What is the cut-off for fasting blood glucose level in diabetes?
🔹 Fasting Plasma Glucose (FPG) Test:
This is one of the primary methods for diagnosing diabetes mellitus , based on guidelines from the American Diabetes Association (ADA) and WHO .
✅ Interpretation of Fasting Blood Glucose Levels:
Fasting Blood Glucose (mg/dL)
Interpretation
< 100
Normal
100–125
Impaired fasting glucose (Pre-diabetes)
≥ 126
Diabetes mellitus (confirmed on 2 occasions)
Thus, ≥ 126 mg/dL is the diagnostic threshold for diabetes .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
250 mg/dL: Extremely high — may be seen in uncontrolled diabetes or diabetic emergencies , but not used for diagnosis based on fasting glucose.
140 mg/dL: This is used in postprandial (2-hour) glucose values, not fasting .
100 mg/dL: Borderline — this is the upper limit of normal fasting glucose, not diagnostic for diabetes.
80 mg/dL: Normal fasting level — not a diagnostic threshold.
When choosing a diagnostic test for a hormone disorder, ask: What is the feedback loop? Then: Can we challenge that loop (e.g., glucose suppression)?
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Which of the following is the diagnostic test for acromegaly?
🔹 What is Acromegaly?
Acromegaly is caused by excess growth hormone (GH) secretion after epiphyseal plate closure (in adults).
Most often due to a pituitary adenoma secreting GH.
GH stimulates IGF-1 production , leading to abnormal growth of soft tissues and bones.
✅ Why Glucose Tolerance Test (GTT) Is Diagnostic:
In normal physiology, glucose suppresses GH secretion .
In acromegaly, this suppression fails — GH levels remain elevated even after glucose ingestion.
Therefore, the oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) with measurement of GH is the gold standard for diagnosing acromegaly.
Steps:
Give oral glucose (75g).
Measure GH levels at baseline and at intervals (30, 60, 90 minutes).
Failure of GH suppression (GH stays high) confirms acromegaly.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Homocysteine levels: Used to assess cardiovascular risk and vitamin B12/folate status , not related to GH function.
Somatostatin levels: Somatostatin inhibits GH , but its levels are not routinely used for diagnosing acromegaly.
Liver function test (LFT): Not specific. While IGF-1 is produced in the liver in response to GH, LFTs do not help diagnose acromegaly .
Insulin levels: May be affected in acromegaly (due to insulin resistance), but insulin is not a diagnostic marker .
When asked about developmental origins of complex glands, always consider whether they have dual embryonic sources . Ask: Does one part come from ectoderm, and another from the brain (neuroectoderm)?
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Category:
Endo – Embryology
Regarding the development of pituitary gland, which of the following is true?
🔹 Anterior Pituitary (Adenohypophysis):
Develops from oral ectoderm .
Specifically, it originates as the hypophyseal diverticulum or Rathke’s pouch , which arises from the roof of the stomodeum (primitive mouth cavity) .
This diverticulum grows dorsally toward the diencephalon.
🔹 Posterior Pituitary (Neurohypophysis):
Develops from neuroectoderm of the floor of the diencephalon .
Forms the infundibulum , which gives rise to the pars nervosa (posterior pituitary).
✅ “Hypophyseal diverticulum arises from the floor of stomodeum” — TRUE
The roof of the stomodeum (oral cavity) gives rise to Rathke’s pouch , which is the hypophyseal diverticulum .
Although the statement says “floor of stomodeum,” embryologically, it refers to the upper limit of the primitive mouth — so it’s considered correct in standard texts.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
“It is purely ectodermal in origin” — FALSE
Only the anterior pituitary is from ectoderm (Rathke’s pouch).
The posterior pituitary is neuroectodermal , so the gland has dual origin .
“The entire gland develops from Rathke’s pouch” — FALSE
Only the anterior pituitary (pars distalis, pars intermedia, pars tuberalis) comes from Rathke’s pouch.
The posterior pituitary comes from the infundibulum (neuroectoderm of diencephalon).
“Pars nervosa develops from Rathke’s pouch” — FALSE
“The hypophyseal diverticulum loses its connection from the stomodeum by twelfth week” — FALSE
When asked what decreases in a hypermetabolic state, think: What substances are cleared faster or consumed more due to increased metabolic rate?
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Which of the following will be decreased in plasma in hyperthyroidism?
🔹 What happens in Hyperthyroidism?
Hyperthyroidism = ↑ T₃ & T₄ → increased basal metabolic rate and upregulation of metabolic pathways . This leads to faster turnover of many molecules, including lipids, proteins, and carbohydrates.
✅ Why Cholesterol Is Decreased:
Thyroid hormones stimulate LDL receptor expression in the liver → increased clearance of LDL from plasma.
Result: ↓ total cholesterol and ↓ LDL cholesterol in hyperthyroidism.
This is a well-known and routinely tested finding.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Bilirubin: May be normal or slightly increased , especially in liver dysfunction due to thyrotoxicosis . Not a reliable marker for decreased levels in hyperthyroidism.
Thyroxine binding globulin (TBG): Usually normal or increased .
TBG is increased in conditions like pregnancy or estrogen therapy , but not typically decreased in hyperthyroidism.
Free T₄ and T₃ levels increase in hyperthyroidism, but TBG remains normal or high .
Reverse T3 (RT3): RT3 is typically low in hyperthyroidism — sounds like a good candidate. However, cholesterol is a more consistent and classically decreased marker . RT3 is made from T₄ via an alternate pathway and is increased in euthyroid sick syndrome , but decreased in true hyperthyroidism due to T₄ shunting toward active T₃.
If this were a two-best answer type, RT3 would be second to cholesterol , but cholesterol is the most robust, consistent, and well-accepted answer .
Albumin: Usually remains normal in hyperthyroidism unless there’s another illness. It is a negative acute-phase reactant , but it’s not consistently decreased in hyperthyroidism.
When asked to identify pairs of neurotransmitters based on function, always ask: Which ones have a consistent, widespread excitatory or inhibitory effect in the brain and spinal cord? Think beyond individual functions — look at their global action across the CNS
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Which of the following is an excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitter respectively?
In the central nervous system (CNS) , neurotransmitters can be broadly categorized based on whether they excite or inhibit postsynaptic neurons.
✅ Correct Pair:
Thus, Glutamate (excitatory) and GABA (inhibitory) are the most accurate and commonly tested pair.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Glycine, glutamate: Glycine is inhibitory , not excitatory (especially in the spinal cord). Glutamate is excitatory , so the order is reversed and inaccurate.
GABA, glycine: Both are inhibitory neurotransmitters. No excitatory component here.
GABA, glutamate: Again, the order is reversed — GABA is inhibitory , and glutamate is excitatory . So this statement is incorrect in direction .
Dopamine, glutamate: Dopamine is not classified strictly as excitatory or inhibitory — it is modulatory , with context-dependent effects. Glutamate is excitatory, but dopamine doesn’t pair with it meaningfully in this context.
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Category:
Endo – Community Medicine/Behavioral Sciences
In 2025, what will be the ranking of Pakistan amongst top ten countries having diabetes?
According to the International Diabetes Federation (IDF) Diabetes Atlas (2021–2023 reports) , Pakistan ranks 4th in the world in terms of the number of adults (aged 20–79) with diabetes in 2025.
🔢 Top 5 Countries with Highest Diabetes Burden (2025 projection):
China
India
United States
Pakistan
Brazil
Pakistan is estimated to have over 33–34 million adults with diabetes by 2025, representing one of the fastest-growing diabetic populations globally.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Seventh / Eighth / Fifth: These underestimate Pakistan’s burden. The data places Pakistan higher on the list — at 4th .
Second: Overestimates the burden. While Pakistan’s diabetes prevalence rate is among the highest , in absolute numbers , it still ranks below China, India, and the U.S.
When analyzing lymph node involvement in deep organ pathology, ask: Does this lymph node lie along a vascular/visceral axis or is it associated with structures like skin and fascia?
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Category:
Endo – Anatomy
A girl presents to the outpatient department with enlargement of the right thyroid gland. Which of the following lymph nodes would not be involved?
🔹 Thyroid Lymphatic Drainage (Clinical Relevance):
When there is a thyroid enlargement — such as in goiter, thyroiditis, or thyroid carcinoma — the lymphatic drainage becomes clinically important , especially for predicting metastasis or surgical planning .
The right lobe of the thyroid primarily drains into:
Prelaryngeal nodes — in front of the larynx
Pretracheal nodes — in front of the trachea
Paratracheal nodes — along the sides of the trachea
Deep cervical nodes — along the internal jugular vein
❌ Why “Superficial cervical” is not involved:
These nodes lie along the external jugular vein , superficial to the sternocleidomastoid muscle .
They typically drain superficial skin and tissues of the neck , not deep structures like the thyroid gland.
The thyroid drains along deep neurovascular pathways , not the superficial lymphatic channels.
✅ Why the Other Options Are Correct:
Deep cervical nodes : Terminal nodes for thyroid lymph — especially important in spread of thyroid cancers.
Prelaryngeal nodes : Also called Delphian nodes — drain the upper anterior part of the thyroid isthmus and lobes .
Paratracheal nodes : Lie laterally to the trachea — drain the lower lateral lobes .
Pretracheal nodes : Anterior to the trachea — drain lower parts of the thyroid isthmus .
When thinking about lymphatic drainage of deep organs like the thyroid , ask yourself: Would superficial lymph nodes be involved, or will drainage follow deep neurovascular structures? If it’s a deep organ, it likely uses deep lymphatic pathways .
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Category:
Endo – Anatomy
Which of the following is inappropriate about the lymphatic drainage of thyroid gland?
🔹 Lymphatic Drainage of the Thyroid Gland:
The thyroid gland has a rich lymphatic network that drains mainly into deep cervical lymph nodes . The drainage typically follows the vascular supply .
✅ The key groups involved are:
Prelaryngeal (Delphian) nodes
Pretracheal nodes
Paratracheal nodes
Deep cervical nodes (superior and inferior)
Located along the internal jugular vein
Receive lymph from prelaryngeal, pretracheal, and paratracheal nodes
This is the final common drainage pathway
❌ Why “Superficial cervical” is inappropriate :
Superficial cervical nodes lie along the external jugular vein , superficial to the sternocleidomastoid muscle .
They are involved in draining skin and superficial tissues , not the thyroid gland .
The thyroid’s lymphatics are deeper and follow deep vessels → thus drain into deep cervical nodes , not superficial.
✅ Why the Other Options Are Correct:
Pretracheal, prelaryngeal, paratracheal, and deep cervical nodes are all genuine parts of the thyroid’s lymphatic drainage system.
Ask yourself: if a hormone speeds up everything in the body , what symptoms would reflect that increased pace — metabolism, heart rate, bowel movements, and temperature regulation?
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Category:
Endo – Physio
What is the best sign seen in hyperthyroidism?
🔹 What is Hyperthyroidism?
Hyperthyroidism refers to excess levels of thyroid hormones (T₃ and T₄) , which cause a hypermetabolic state affecting multiple organ systems.
🔬 Key Symptoms and Signs of Hyperthyroidism:
System Affected
Common Findings
Metabolic
Weight loss, heat intolerance, increased appetite
Cardiovascular
Tachycardia, palpitations, increased systolic BP
Gastrointestinal
Diarrhea , hyperdefecation
Neuromuscular
Tremor, hyperreflexia, anxiety, restlessness
Reproductive
Menstrual irregularities, decreased libido
Skin
Warm, moist skin; sweating
So among the listed choices, the most typical and specific sign is:
✅ Heat intolerance — due to the increased basal metabolic rate and thermogenesis caused by thyroid hormone excess.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Constipation: Seen in hypothyroidism , not hyperthyroidism. Hyperthyroid patients may have diarrhea or frequent bowel movements.
Bradycardia: Also seen in hypothyroidism . Hyperthyroidism usually causes tachycardia and sometimes atrial fibrillation.
Weight gain: Hyperthyroid patients typically have weight loss despite increased appetite.
Lethargy: This is characteristic of hypothyroidism . Hyperthyroidism more commonly causes restlessness, insomnia, and anxiety .
Think of the anterior pituitary as a hormone factory with 5 departments. Which one controls height, muscle growth, and metabolism — the functions you associate with growth hormone?
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Which of the following cells secretes growth hormone (GH)?
🔹 Anterior Pituitary (Adenohypophysis) Cell Types:
The anterior pituitary contains five major hormone-producing cell types , each with a specific secretion:
Cell Type
Hormone Secreted
Somatotropes
Growth hormone (GH)
Lactotropes
Prolactin (PRL)
Gonadotropes
LH and FSH
Corticotropes
ACTH (Adrenocorticotropic hormone)
Thyrotropes
TSH (Thyroid-stimulating hormone)
✅ Why Somatotropes Are Correct:
Somatotropes are the most abundant cells in the anterior pituitary.
They secrete growth hormone (GH) , which:
Stimulates linear growth (especially during puberty)
Promotes protein synthesis
Mobilizes fatty acids for energy
Raises blood glucose levels (anti-insulin effect)
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Lactotropes: Secrete prolactin , which promotes milk production in the breast. No role in GH secretion.
Gonadotropes: Secrete LH and FSH , which regulate gonadal function — testosterone, estrogen, ovulation, spermatogenesis — not GH.
Corticotropes: Secrete ACTH , which stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce cortisol — no connection to GH.
Thyrotropes: Secrete TSH , which stimulates the thyroid gland to produce T₃ and T₄ .
When you see a question about adrenal hormones , always ask: Which zone of the adrenal cortex is involved? Then consider: Does the hormone act via the pituitary, kidneys, or sympathetic system?
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Which of the following pituitary hormone is responsible for regulation of aldosterone?
🔹 Aldosterone Overview:
🔹 Regulators of Aldosterone Secretion:
Primary regulator:
Secondary regulator:
So while RAAS is the main controller , ACTH is the correct choice among the pituitary hormones listed.
✅ Why ACTH Is Correct:
ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex , particularly the zona fasciculata , to produce cortisol .
It also has a mild effect on the zona glomerulosa , promoting aldosterone release , especially under stress.
Among pituitary hormones, ACTH is the only one linked to adrenal hormone regulation .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Luteinizing hormone (LH): Acts on gonads (Leydig cells and ovarian theca cells) — regulates sex steroid synthesis , not adrenal function.
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH): Also acts on the gonads — regulates spermatogenesis and follicular growth .
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH): Regulates thyroid gland , stimulating T₃ and T₄ production — no effect on aldosterone.
Growth hormone (GH):
Acts on various tissues to promote growth and metabolism — does not regulate adrenal cortex or aldosterone.
When thinking about muscle contraction in reproductive physiology , ask: which hormone works via positive feedback during labor , and is also known for its emotional or bonding effects?
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Which of the following hormones causes uterine contraction?
🔹 What is Oxytocin?
Oxytocin is a peptide hormone produced by the hypothalamus (specifically, the paraventricular nucleus ) and stored and released from the posterior pituitary .
It plays a key role in reproductive physiology , particularly in labor and lactation .
✅ Primary Functions of Oxytocin:
Uterine Contraction:
During labor , oxytocin binds to receptors on the myometrium (uterine muscle) .
This causes rhythmic uterine contractions , facilitating childbirth.
Its release is part of a positive feedback loop : contractions → cervical stretch → more oxytocin → stronger contractions.
Milk Ejection (Let-down Reflex):
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH): Also released from the posterior pituitary, but its main role is water reabsorption in the kidneys via V₂ receptors. It also causes vasoconstriction via V₁ receptors — but not uterine contraction .
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH): Secreted by the anterior pituitary , stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce cortisol . No role in labor or uterine contraction.
Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH): Secreted by the hypothalamus , it regulates secretion of LH and FSH from the anterior pituitary. Again, no direct effect on uterine muscle.
Prolactin: Secreted by anterior pituitary , promotes milk production (not milk ejection). It has no contractile effect on the uterus.
Insulin’s job is to build and store — glycogen, fat, protein. So if a function promotes breakdown of fuel stores, ask: does this align with insulin’s role?
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Category:
Endo – Biochemistry
Which of the following is incorrect about insulin?
✔️ “The beta chain has 30 amino acids” — Correct
✔️ “It is made up of 51 amino acids” — Correct
✔️ “Insulin is formed by the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas” — Correct
Exactly right.
Beta (β) cells in the pancreas produce insulin .
Alpha (α) cells → glucagon
Delta (δ) cells → somatostatin
❌ “It increases the activity of hormone-sensitive lipase” — Incorrect (Correct Answer)
This is false .
Insulin inhibits hormone-sensitive lipase (HSL), not activates it.
HSL breaks down stored triglycerides into free fatty acids (lipolysis).
Insulin suppresses lipolysis , because its job is to store energy , not release it.
So, insulin inhibits HSL and promotes lipogenesis (fat storage).
✔️ “The alpha chain has 21 amino acids” — Acceptable phrasing
This is a bit of a technical stretch — the proper term is A chain , not “alpha chain”.
But some sources, including certain MCQs and textbooks, use “alpha chain” interchangeably with A chain .
Since the number (21 amino acids) is accurate, and no better option is given, we accept it here.
When asked about hormones of the posterior pituitary , remember that this part of the gland is neural tissue , not glandular. So ask yourself: Which hormones are stored here but made elsewhere?
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Which of the following is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland?
🔹 Structure of the Pituitary Gland:
The pituitary gland (hypophysis) is divided into:
🔹 Posterior Pituitary – What Does It Do?
The posterior pituitary does not synthesize hormones itself .
Instead, it stores and secretes two hormones that are:
Synthesized by the hypothalamus
Specifically, by neurons in the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei
These two hormones are:
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) — also called vasopressin
Oxytocin
Both hormones are transported down axons to the posterior pituitary , where they are stored in Herring bodies and released into circulation.
✅ Why “Antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin” is Correct:
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Growth hormone and adrenocorticotropic hormone: Both are produced and secreted by the anterior pituitary .
Prolactin and oxytocin:
Prolactin: from the anterior pituitary
Oxytocin: from the hypothalamus , released by the posterior pituitary
Gonadotropin releasing hormone and prolactin:
Antidiuretic hormone and prolactin:
Think about why certain drugs are preferred for long-term management: Would a medication that needs conversion and has a long duration be more useful for stability — or a fast-acting one with a short duration?
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Category:
Endo – Pharmacology
Which of the following is inappropriate about levothyroxine?
🔹 What is Levothyroxine?
Levothyroxine is a synthetic form of T₄ (thyroxine) , the major hormone secreted by the thyroid gland. It is the mainstay of therapy for hypothyroidism and is converted to T₃ (triiodothyronine) in peripheral tissues, which is the active form.
🔬 Pharmacokinetics:
Half-life of levothyroxine (T₄): Approximately 7 days in euthyroid individuals (can be longer in hypothyroidism and shorter in hyperthyroidism)
Half-life of liothyronine (T₃): About 1 day — much shorter
This is why levothyroxine provides stable, long-term thyroid hormone replacement , whereas liothyronine acts faster but is not used routinely due to risk of rapid hormonal swings.
✅ Correct Statements (All True):
“It has longer half life than liothyronine”: True — levothyroxine (T₄) has a much longer half-life than liothyronine (T₃).
“Lower initial doses are administered in older patients with longstanding myxedema”: True — because starting high doses in such patients can trigger cardiac events (like angina or arrhythmias). Hence, a “start low, go slow” approach is used.
“It is usually the first form of choice in patients with hypothyroidism”: Absolutely true — levothyroxine is standard first-line therapy .
“It is slower acting than liothyronine”: Also true — levothyroxine needs conversion to T₃ and has a slower onset.
❌ Why “It has a short half-life” is inappropriate (False):
Levothyroxine’s long half-life is one of its greatest advantages — it allows for once-daily dosing and stable blood levels .
So stating that it has a short half-life is incorrect and does not reflect its clinical utility .
When answering structure-based hormone questions, always focus on the amino acid count and function first — terminology sometimes varies across texts, but the biochemical facts don’t change .
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Category:
Endo – Biochemistry
Which of the following is true about insulin?
🔹 Insulin Structure Overview:
Insulin is a peptide hormone composed of two polypeptide chains :
One chain contains 21 amino acids
The other contains 30 amino acids
Total = 51 amino acids
The two chains are connected by disulfide bonds
🔹 Correct Terminology vs Common Usage:
Technically:
However:
In some textbooks, exam questions, or informal settings , you may encounter the terms “alpha chain” and “beta chain” in place of A and B.
While not strictly correct, if the amino acid numbers are accurate , and no better option is given, the answer may still be considered “correct” by intent in a multiple-choice context.
So in this case:
“It has an alpha chain with 21 amino acids and beta chain with 30 amino acids” will be accepted as true , especially since it’s the only option that reflects the correct amino acid lengths.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
It has 29 amino acids: Incorrect — this is the length of glucagon , not insulin.
None of these: This would be correct only if we were judging terminology strictly — but here, we’re allowing the common phrasing for exam context.
It is released from delta cells: Delta (δ) cells release somatostatin , not insulin.
It is released from alpha cells: Alpha (α) cells release glucagon , not insulin.
When answering questions about peptide hormones, ask yourself: Is this hormone a single chain or made of multiple chains? And does it come from a larger precursor , or is it synthesized directly in its final form?
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Category:
Endo – Biochemistry
What is the number of amino acids in glucagon?
🔹 What is Glucagon?
Glucagon is a peptide hormone secreted by the α-cells of the pancreas (islets of Langerhans). Its primary role is to raise blood glucose levels by:
Stimulating glycogenolysis (breakdown of glycogen)
Stimulating gluconeogenesis (formation of glucose from non-carbohydrates)
Promoting lipolysis in adipose tissue
🔹 Amino Acid Length of Glucagon:
Mature glucagon is composed of exactly 29 amino acids .
It is derived from a larger precursor molecule called proglucagon , which also gives rise to GLP-1 and GLP-2 in other tissues (like the intestine).
These 29 amino acids form a single-chain peptide , with no disulfide bonds.
✅ Why 29 is Correct:
The mature, functional glucagon hormone is 29 amino acids long .
This structure is highly conserved and essential for its interaction with the glucagon receptor on target tissues.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
40: Too long — no known active glucagon isoform has 40 amino acids.
51: This is the length of insulin , which is made of two chains (A = 21, B = 30) linked by disulfide bridges.
30: Might seem close, but it’s the length of insulin’s B chain , not glucagon.
21: This is the length of insulin’s A chain .
Ask yourself: which enzyme controls the very first committed step — the moment the cell says, “We’re making steroids now”? That’s the step the body would regulate the most tightly.
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Category:
Endo – Biochemistry
Which of the following is the rate-limiting enzyme in steroidogenesis?
🔹 What is Steroidogenesis?
Steroidogenesis refers to the biosynthesis of steroid hormones (glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and sex steroids) from cholesterol , primarily in the adrenal cortex and gonads .
🔹 What Is the Rate-Limiting Step?
The rate-limiting step is the slowest and most regulated step of a biochemical pathway. For steroidogenesis, this crucial step is:
Conversion of cholesterol to pregnenolone
This reaction is catalyzed by the enzyme:
Desmolase , also called cholesterol side-chain cleavage enzyme or CYP11A1
It cleaves the side chain of cholesterol (C27) to produce pregnenolone (C21) .
This occurs inside the mitochondria .
It is stimulated by ACTH in the adrenal cortex.
Because it’s the first committed step , and tightly regulated, it’s the rate-limiting enzyme .
✅ Why Desmolase Is Correct:
It initiates steroid hormone biosynthesis.
It’s the rate-limiting step , controlled by ACTH and other trophic hormones.
Found in all steroid-producing tissues .
❌ Why the Other Enzymes Are Incorrect:
17α-Hydroxylase: Important in cortisol and sex steroid synthesis, but not the rate-limiting enzyme. Acts later in the pathway.
11β-Hydroxylase: Catalyzes the final step in cortisol and aldosterone synthesis. Also not rate-limiting , and occurs after pregnenolone is formed .
21-Hydroxylase: Converts progesterone and 17-hydroxyprogesterone to mineralocorticoid and glucocorticoid precursors. Clinically important in CAH, but again, not rate-limiting .
3β-Hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase: Converts pregnenolone to progesterone (and analogs), early but not rate-limiting .
Which enzyme is central to both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid synthesis , and whose deficiency would cause both hormonal insufficiency and androgen excess ? Think about where a metabolic “traffic jam” would cause the biggest hormonal detour.
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Category:
Endo – Pathology
What is the most common enzyme defect in congenital adrenal hyperplasia?
🔹 What is Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH)?
CAH is a group of autosomal recessive disorders involving defects in cortisol biosynthesis in the adrenal cortex. When cortisol synthesis is impaired, there’s a loss of negative feedback on the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis. This leads to increased ACTH , causing adrenal hyperplasia and overproduction of other steroid hormones proximal to the enzymatic block .
🔹 21-Hydroxylase Deficiency — The Most Common Form:
🔸 Blocked Cortisol + Aldosterone Synthesis:
↓ Cortisol → ↑ ACTH → adrenal hyperplasia
↓ Aldosterone → salt-wasting , hypotension, dehydration
🔸 Shunting to Androgens:
✅ Why 21-Hydroxylase is the Correct Answer:
It’s the most frequently mutated enzyme in CAH.
Presents with salt-wasting, hypotension, and hyperandrogenism .
Confirmed by elevated 17-hydroxyprogesterone levels .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
17α-Hydroxylase:
Leads to ↓ cortisol and sex steroids , but ↑ mineralocorticoids .
Causes hypertension , hypokalemia , and sexual infantilism .
Rare form of CAH.
11β-Hydroxylase:
Leads to excess deoxycorticosterone , causing hypertension and virilization .
Second most common (~5-8%) but still less common than 21-hydroxylase .
17,20-lyase:
Involved in androgen synthesis , rare mutation.
Results in impaired sexual development , but not classic CAH.
18-Hydroxylase:
Involved in aldosterone synthesis .
Not typically classified under CAH; associated with hypoaldosteronism , not virilization or cortisol defects.
When a structure produces both steroid hormones and catecholamines , is it likely that one germ layer is enough to explain its full developmental origin? Consider how neural crest cells influence other structures in the body.
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Category:
Endo – Embryology
What layer(s) is the adrenal gland derived from?
🔹 1. Adrenal Cortex (Outer Layer):
Embryonic Origin: Mesoderm
Specifically, it arises from the intermediate mesoderm (the same region that contributes to the urogenital system).
The cortex synthesizes steroid hormones :
🔹 2. Adrenal Medulla (Inner Layer):
Embryonic Origin: Ectoderm , but more precisely from neural crest cells , which are derived from ectoderm .
The medulla contains chromaffin cells , which are essentially modified postganglionic sympathetic neurons.
These cells secrete catecholamines :
✅ Why “Ectoderm and Mesoderm” is Correct:
Because:
The cortex arises from mesoderm , and
The medulla arises from neural crest cells , which are ectodermal in origin .
So both ectoderm and mesoderm contribute to the formation of the adrenal gland.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Only ectoderm: Incorrect — only the medulla is derived from ectoderm. The cortex comes from mesoderm.
Only mesoderm: Incorrect — only the cortex is mesodermal. The medulla requires ectoderm-derived neural crest cells.
Only endoderm: Completely incorrect — endoderm does not contribute to the adrenal gland at all. It gives rise to epithelial linings of the GI and respiratory tracts.
Ectoderm and endoderm: Incorrect — endoderm is not involved; the correct pairing is ectoderm + mesoderm .
Ask yourself: if a gland has an influence on body metabolism right from fetal life — including brain development — when would it make sense for it to develop?
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Category:
Endo – Embryology
Which statement is wrong regarding the thyroid gland?
The thyroid gland is the first endocrine gland to develop in the embryo.
It begins development around the 4th week of gestation .
It originates from an endodermal thickening in the floor of the primitive pharynx , specifically at the future site of the foramen cecum of the tongue .
The gland descends to its final position in the neck by the 7th week of gestation , well before birth .
✅ “It develops from a diverticulum in the tongue” – Correct:
True. The thyroid originates from a median endodermal diverticulum near the base of the tongue (foramen cecum).
This connection is initially maintained via the thyroglossal duct , which usually involutes later.
✅ “It is supplied by the inferior thyroid artery” – Correct:
✅ “It may form a thyroglossal duct” – Correct:
True. During its descent, the thyroid remains temporarily connected to the tongue by the thyroglossal duct .
Normally, this duct disappears , but if it persists, it can form a thyroglossal duct cyst — typically in the midline of the neck.
✅ “It is at the vertebral level of C5–T1” – Correct:
Also true. In the adult, the thyroid gland lies anterior to the trachea and larynx , approximately spanning vertebral levels C5 to T1 .
It straddles the 2nd to 4th tracheal rings .
Think about the command center of the endocrine system — the structure that sends regulatory hormones downstream to tell other glands what to do. Which one acts as the master regulator here?
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH) is released by which of the following structures?
GHRH stands for Growth Hormone-Releasing Hormone . It is a hypothalamic peptide hormone responsible for stimulating the anterior pituitary to release growth hormone (GH) .
🔹 Where is GHRH produced?
GHRH is synthesized and secreted by neurons in the hypothalamus , specifically in the arcuate nucleus .
From there, it travels through the hypophyseal portal system to the anterior pituitary , where it binds to receptors on somatotrophs (GH-secreting cells), prompting the release of growth hormone into the systemic circulation.
✅ Why This Option is Correct:
Hypothalamus: This is the correct answer. The hypothalamus produces releasing and inhibiting hormones like GHRH , TRH , CRH , and GnRH , which control the anterior pituitary .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Melanocytes: These are pigment-producing cells found in the skin. They have no endocrine function related to GHRH or growth hormone.
Posterior pituitary: The posterior pituitary does not produce hormones . It simply stores and releases hormones like oxytocin and ADH , which are produced in the hypothalamus . GHRH is not involved here.
Anterior pituitary: While the anterior pituitary releases growth hormone , it does not produce GHRH . Instead, it responds to GHRH by releasing GH.
Pineal gland: The pineal gland is primarily involved in the production of melatonin , a hormone that regulates sleep-wake cycles . It has no role in GHRH or GH regulation .
Ask yourself: which type of transport system would make use of an existing ion gradient to bring another substance into the cell against its concentration gradient ? Think about what ions usually provide the “pull” for such co-transport in many tissues.
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Iodine uptake in thyroid cells takes place through which of the following?
Thyroid Hormone Synthesis and Iodide Uptake
Thyroid hormones (T₃ and T₄ ) require iodine for their synthesis. But iodine in the bloodstream is mostly present in the iodide (I⁻) form, and it must be actively transported into thyroid follicular cells for hormone production.
This active transport occurs at the basolateral membrane of thyroid follicular cells and involves a specialized membrane protein called the:
Sodium-Iodide Symporter (NIS)
⚙️ How It Works:
The NIS uses the sodium gradient established by the Na⁺/K⁺ ATPase.
It co-transports 2 Na⁺ ions and 1 I⁻ ion into the thyroid follicular cell from the bloodstream.
This is called a symport because sodium and iodide move in the same direction across the membrane.
This step is energy-dependent (secondary active transport) because it relies on the sodium gradient generated by ATP.
Once inside the cell, iodide is transported into the follicular lumen , where it is oxidized and organified into thyroglobulin to make thyroid hormones.
✅ Why This Option is Correct:
Sodium-iodide symporter is the specific and physiologically accurate transport mechanism for iodide into thyroid follicular cells.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Potassium-iodide symporter : There is no known physiological mechanism using potassium to drive iodide uptake in thyroid cells. Potassium gradients aren’t used for this transport.
Potassium-iodide antiporter : Again, no such antiport mechanism exists in thyroid iodide transport. This is not involved in any known iodide uptake process in the thyroid.
Sodium-iodide antiporter : This would imply sodium and iodide move in opposite directions, which is incorrect. They move together into the cell, not in opposite directions.
Iodide-chloride symporter : This is incorrect and unrelated to thyroid physiology. No such symporter is used for iodide in the thyroid, and chloride is not involved in iodide uptake in this context.
Consider the different ways cells can communicate — with themselves, with neighbors, or with distant cells. Think about the immune system: does it stay local, or can it produce body-wide effects?
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Category:
Endo – Physio
Cytokines can act as which of the following?
Cytokines are small signaling proteins secreted by various cells, especially immune cells (like T cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells). They play crucial roles in cellular communication , particularly during inflammation, immune responses, and tissue repair .
Unlike hormones produced by classical endocrine glands, cytokines are usually produced locally and act locally or systemically depending on the context.
🔬 Types of Signaling by Cytokines:
Paracrine Action
Autocrine Action
Endocrine Action
✅ Why This is the Correct Choice:
Cytokines can act in all three ways — paracrine, autocrine, and endocrine — depending on the physiological context. Their versatility in signaling pathways allows them to coordinate localized immune responses as well as systemic effects, such as fever or acute phase responses.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Paracrine molecules only: Incorrect because many cytokines also act on the same cell (autocrine) and at distant sites (endocrine) under specific conditions.
Paracrine + autocrine molecules only: While many cytokines do act in both of these ways, some — especially during infections or systemic inflammation — circulate in the bloodstream and affect distant organs (endocrine function). So this answer is incomplete.
Paracrine + endocrine molecules only: Again, this excludes autocrine signaling , which is a major pathway for many cytokines, especially in T cell proliferation and feedback loops .
Exocrine molecules: Exocrine signaling involves secretion into ducts (e.g., saliva, sweat, digestive enzymes), which has nothing to do with cytokines . Cytokines are not secreted through ducts , so this is completely incorrect.
Think carefully about which condition results from the absence of a natural hormone and would therefore benefit from its replacement. Which one among the options reflects a problem of water imbalance rather than sugar, airways, or heart rate ?
91 / 91
Category:
Endo – Pharmacology
In which of the following conditions is vasopressin indicated?
Vasopressin, also known as antidiuretic hormone (ADH) , is a hormone synthesized in the hypothalamus and secreted by the posterior pituitary gland. It plays a crucial role in water reabsorption in the kidneys and vascular tone regulation .
There are two major types of vasopressin receptors :
V1 receptors: found in vascular smooth muscle — cause vasoconstriction .
V2 receptors: found in the kidneys — stimulate insertion of aquaporin-2 channels in the collecting ducts, leading to increased water reabsorption and concentrated urine .
✅ Why the Correct Option is Right:
Central diabetes insipidus is caused by a deficiency of vasopressin (either due to damage to the hypothalamus or the posterior pituitary). The hallmark symptom is polyuria (excessive urination) with dilute urine , leading to polydipsia (excessive thirst) and a risk of dehydration and hypernatremia .
Because central DI results from low or absent ADH , vasopressin replacement (or its synthetic analog desmopressin) is the treatment of choice. Administering vasopressin compensates for the hormone deficiency, reducing urine output and restoring fluid balance.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Wrong:
Bronchospasm Bronchospasm is typically treated with bronchodilators like β2-agonists (e.g., salbutamol). Vasopressin has no role in bronchodilation and may worsen conditions by causing vasoconstriction that could reduce perfusion.
Diabetes mellitus This is a glucose metabolism disorder , not related to ADH. The confusion may stem from the similar names (“diabetes insipidus” vs. “diabetes mellitus”), but their causes and treatments are entirely different . Vasopressin has no role in managing blood glucose.
Tachycardia Although vasopressin can increase blood pressure by vasoconstriction (via V1 receptors), it does not directly treat tachycardia . In fact, by increasing afterload and blood pressure, it could potentially worsen certain types of tachycardia. Management of tachycardia depends on its cause and may involve beta-blockers, vagal maneuvers, or antiarrhythmics , not vasopressin.
Hypertension Vasopressin causes vasoconstriction , which can raise blood pressure , so it is contraindicated in hypertension . Administering vasopressin here could worsen the condition , not improve it.
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