The question bank may take some time to load… Just enough time to stretch, blink a few times, and question your life choices — but not too long, we promise!
We recommend going Full Screen for the best experience. Have Fun !
Report a question
Blood – 2024
Questions from The 2024 Module + Annual Exam of Blood – Data Entry is ongoing.
When you start with who’s sick and match them to those who aren’t —then ask what they were exposed to—you’re retracing the steps of risk.
1 / 36
Category:
Blood – Community Medicine / Behavioral Sciences
A study recruited 12 women with ovarian cancer and 12 women without any apparent cancer. Each woman with ovarian cancer was matched to a control based on age, ethnicity, and weight. All participants were then asked whether they had taken estrogen tablets in the past. What type of study is this?
This is a case-control study because:
The participants are selected based on outcome status : those with the disease (cases) and those without (controls).
The study looks retrospectively to examine whether a past exposure (estrogen use) is more common in the cases than the controls.
Matching is used to control for confounding variables such as age, ethnicity, and weight.
This design is ideal for rare diseases or those with long latency periods, like ovarian cancer.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Cross-sectional: Evaluates exposure and outcome simultaneously in a population. It does not use matching and cannot determine temporal relationships.
Cohort: Starts with individuals based on exposure and follows them forward in time to assess outcomes. This study does the reverse.
Ecological: Uses population-level data , not individual-level data, and cannot match individuals or determine individual exposure history.
Case series: Describes a group of patients with a known condition , without a control group or retrospective exposure comparison.
When you start with the drinkers and walk forward with them through time, you’re tracking risk—step by step.
2 / 36
Category:
Blood – Community Medicine / Behavioral Sciences
A group of individuals who consume alcohol were recruited in 2008. They were then followed until 2016 to observe whether they developed conditions such as cancer or fatty liver. What type of study design does this represent?
This is a cohort study , specifically a prospective cohort study , because:
It begins with a group of individuals based on exposure (alcohol intake in 2008)
They are then followed over time to observe the development of outcomes (e.g., cancer, fatty liver)
The direction of inquiry is forward in time from exposure to outcome
This design allows for calculating incidence and studying the natural history of disease development.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Cross-sectional: Measures exposure and outcome at the same time —not suitable for establishing temporal relationships.
Case-control: Starts by selecting participants based on outcome (e.g., those who already have cancer or fatty liver), then looks back at exposures—opposite direction.
Correlational: Compares population-level data , not individual-level follow-up over time.
Case series: Describes outcomes in a group of patients with a particular condition , but without comparison or follow-up from exposure.
If he spent decades breathing in the dust while laying down insulation , his lungs may now be paying the long-term price.
3 / 36
Category:
Blood – Pathology
A man presents to the hospital, and a chest X-ray reveals a lung mass. He has a 20-year history of working in housework and the insulation industry and is also a chronic cigarette smoker. Which of the following carcinogenic agents is most likely responsible for his lung disease?
Asbestos is a known occupational carcinogen , particularly linked to industries involving insulation, construction, shipbuilding, and house remodeling . Chronic inhalation of asbestos fibers leads to:
Asbestosis (interstitial fibrosis)
Bronchogenic carcinoma (especially when combined with smoking—synergistic risk)
Malignant mesothelioma (tumor of pleura)
This patient’s history of insulation work , smoking , and a lung mass on imaging makes asbestos exposure the most likely carcinogenic factor involved.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Benzene: Associated with hematologic malignancies (e.g., leukemia), not lung cancer.
Formaldehyde: Can irritate mucous membranes and is weakly associated with nasopharyngeal cancers , not strongly with lung tumors.
Vinyl chloride: Linked to angiosarcoma of the liver , not lung cancer.
Radon: A natural radioactive gas and second leading cause of lung cancer after smoking, but not associated with the insulation industry like asbestos is.
When marrow breaks loose after bones do, the lungs are often the first to pay the price.
4 / 36
Category:
Blood – Pathology
A man presents to the emergency room with long bone fractures after a road traffic accident. He is treated appropriately but develops dyspnea and signs of pulmonary edema shortly after. What is the most likely cause of his respiratory symptoms?
Fat embolism syndrome (FES) is a complication that typically occurs 24–72 hours after long bone fractures (especially femur or pelvis). Fat globules from the bone marrow enter the bloodstream and embolize to the lungs , causing:
Respiratory distress (dyspnea, hypoxemia)
Neurological symptoms (confusion, seizures)
Petechial rash (often on chest, conjunctiva, or axilla)
The presence of dyspnea and pulmonary edema shortly after fracture fixation suggests fat embolism affecting the pulmonary microcirculation.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Pulmonary thromboembolism: Can cause dyspnea, but usually presents later unless there’s a high-risk clotting history. Also, no direct trauma-related trigger.
Myocardial infarction: Typically presents with chest pain and ECG changes; not the expected complication immediately following bone fractures.
ARDS: Can occur after trauma or sepsis, but in this context, fat embolism is the classic trigger .
Aspiration pneumonia: More common in unconscious or vomiting patients; no indication of such history in this case.
When oxygen runs low and red cells start to twist out of shape , the crisis begins.
5 / 36
Category:
Blood – Pathology
A man goes hiking at a high altitude and returns with fatigue and generalized body pain. His labs show a hemoglobin level of 9 g/dL and a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 90 fL. What is the most likely cause of his anemia?
Sickle cell anemia is a normocytic hemolytic anemia caused by a mutation in the beta-globin gene, leading to the production of abnormal hemoglobin S . Under low oxygen conditions —such as high-altitude exposure during hiking —deoxygenated HbS polymerizes, distorting red blood cells into a sickled shape. These sickled cells are prone to hemolysis and vascular occlusion , leading to symptoms like pain crises , fatigue , and low hemoglobin .
This patient’s normocytic anemia (MCV 90 fL), environmental trigger (altitude) , and systemic symptoms strongly point to sickle cell disease or sickle cell trait with complications.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Thalassemia: Typically presents with microcytic anemia and does not cause pain crises after altitude exposure.
Acute blood loss anemia: Would present with signs of trauma or bleeding and not typically be triggered by altitude or cause pain crises.
Iron deficiency anemia: Presents with microcytic, hypochromic red cells and is not associated with altitude-related complications.
Megaloblastic anemia: Characterized by macrocytosis (MCV >100 fL) and neurologic signs—not acute pain episodes.
Think of the virus that’s so linked to cervical cancer that there’s a vaccine to prevent it
6 / 36
Category:
Blood – Pathology
A woman presents with cervical warts and a history of multiple sexual partners. Which of the following viruses is most likely responsible for the development of cervical cancer in this patient?
Human papillomavirus (HPV) , particularly types 16 and 18 , is the primary cause of cervical cancer . These high-risk strains integrate into host DNA and produce viral oncoproteins E6 and E7 , which inactivate tumor suppressor proteins p53 and Rb , respectively.
Cervical warts are usually caused by low-risk HPV types 6 and 11 , but the presence of warts and a history of multiple sexual partners indicates a high risk for co-infection with high-risk oncogenic strains .
Why the other options are incorrect:
Herpes simplex virus (HSV): Can cause genital ulcers, but does not lead to cervical cancer .
Hepatitis B virus (HBV): Associated with hepatocellular carcinoma , not cervical cancer.
Epstein-Barr virus (EBV): Linked to nasopharyngeal carcinoma , Burkitt lymphoma , and other lymphoproliferative disorders.
Cytomegalovirus (CMV): Commonly causes congenital infections and disease in immunocompromised individuals, but not cervical cancer .
These cells rest quietly most of the time but spring into action when the body needs them to rebuild a vital organ.
7 / 36
Category:
Blood – Pathology
A person donates a portion of their liver, and over time the liver regenerates. What type of cells are found in the liver based on their regenerative capacity?
Liver cells (hepatocytes) are classified as stable cells . These cells are normally quiescent (in G₀ phase) but have the capacity to re-enter the cell cycle and proliferate in response to injury or partial resection, such as in liver donation.
Stable cells do not divide regularly like labile cells, but unlike permanent cells, they retain the capacity to proliferate when stimulated. This property underlies the remarkable regenerative ability of the liver .
Why the other options are incorrect:
Permanent: These cells (e.g., neurons, cardiac muscle) cannot regenerate . Liver cells do not belong in this category.
Labile: These cells (e.g., skin, GI epithelium, bone marrow) divide continuously . Hepatocytes are not constantly dividing.
Quiescent: This describes the state of stable cells at rest, not a cell type. It overlaps with “stable,” but is not a classification on its own.
Senescent: These are aged or damaged cells that have lost the ability to divide . Hepatocytes after resection are not senescent.
When healing kicks in, think of the builders and the supply lines working together to fill the gap.
8 / 36
Category:
Blood – Pathology
Granulation tissue, seen during the healing of wounds, is primarily composed of which of the following?
Granulation tissue is a hallmark of the proliferative phase of wound healing. It consists primarily of:
Fibroblasts , which produce collagen and extracellular matrix
Newly formed capillaries , which provide nutrients and oxygen to the healing tissue
Loose connective tissue and inflammatory cells , but the dominant components are fibroblasts and angiogenic capillaries
Granulation tissue is pink, soft, and granular in appearance and is essential for wound closure and tissue repair.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Epithelioid cells: These are activated macrophages found in granulomatous inflammation , not granulation tissue.
Multinucleated giant cells: Also part of granulomatous inflammation, especially in infections like tuberculosis.
Keratinocytes: These are epithelial cells involved in re-epithelialization , but not a major component of granulation tissue.
Neutrophils and eosinophils: Present during the early inflammatory phase , not the proliferative granulation phase .
If the scar breaks the rules and grows beyond where the wound ever was, it’s got a name all its own.
9 / 36
Category:
Blood – Pathology
A 2-year-old girl has her ears pierced. After healing, the scar tissue extends beyond the original boundaries of the piercing site. What is the most appropriate term for this condition?
A keloid is an abnormal proliferation of scar tissue that extends beyond the original wound margins and does not regress spontaneously. It results from excessive collagen (mostly type III) deposition during wound healing and is more common in darker-skinned individuals and in certain body areas like the ears, chest, and shoulders.
This is different from a hypertrophic scar , which remains within the boundaries of the original injury and may regress over time.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Proud flesh: Refers to excessive granulation tissue that prevents re-epithelialization; it does not extend beyond the wound boundaries like a keloid.
Fibrosis: A general term for excess collagen deposition in tissues, often internal (e.g., liver, lung), not specific to skin wounds.
Scar: A normal outcome of wound healing; it does not imply overgrowth or abnormal extension.
Hypertrophic scar: Overgrown scar that stays within the original wound boundary , unlike a keloid.
When the problem is in the clotting factors, the bleeding goes deep—not just the skin.
10 / 36
Category:
Blood – Pathology
Which of the following findings is most characteristic of a defect in secondary hemostasis?
Secondary hemostasis refers to the formation of a stable fibrin clot through the coagulation cascade , involving clotting factors like factor VIII and IX. When there’s a defect in secondary hemostasis (e.g., Hemophilia A or B ), patients experience deep tissue bleeding , which includes:
These are not typical of platelet disorders (primary hemostasis), which affect mucosal surfaces.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Epistaxis: Common in primary hemostasis defects like platelet disorders or von Willebrand disease.
Petechiae: Small pinpoint hemorrhages seen in thrombocytopenia or platelet dysfunction, not coagulation factor defects.
Bruising: While can be seen in both, easy bruising is more common in platelet-related disorders .
Purpurae: Larger hemorrhages than petechiae, but still typically related to platelet or vascular disorders , not coagulation factor deficiencies.
When a shallow cut won’t stop oozing, ask yourself—are the plugs failing, or is the cement missing?
11 / 36
Category:
Blood – Pathology
A student accidentally cuts her finger superficially while chopping onions. However, the bleeding does not stop and continues to ooze. She presents to the emergency room. What is the most likely underlying pathology?
Superficial cuts typically involve small vessels and should stop bleeding quickly due to the action of platelets forming a temporary plug. If the bleeding continues to ooze and is not profuse, it suggests a problem with primary hemostasis , which is mediated by platelets .
A defect in platelet function —such as seen in conditions like von Willebrand disease or drug-induced platelet dysfunction (e.g., aspirin use)—leads to mucocutaneous bleeding , including easy bruising, nosebleeds, and prolonged bleeding from small cuts.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Thrombocytosis: An increased platelet count, often asymptomatic, and does not cause bleeding —in fact, it may cause thrombosis.
Defect in factor VIII: This is seen in Hemophilia A , which typically causes deep tissue bleeding , joint bleeds , and prolonged bleeding after trauma , not superficial oozing.
Vitamin K deficiency: Affects clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X leading to coagulation defects , but bleeding tends to be more systemic and is not limited to minor cuts.
Hemophilia: Refers to factor VIII or IX deficiency (Hemophilia A or B), which causes deep bleeding , not prolonged bleeding from superficial skin injuries.
If you were the body’s iron gatekeeper, you’d need a hormone that decides when to lock or unlock the iron export door.
12 / 36
Category:
Blood – Biochemistry
Which of the following proteins in blood plasma regulates the release of iron from the intestine, liver, and bone marrow?
Hepcidin is a key regulatory hormone produced by the liver that controls systemic iron homeostasis. It acts by binding to ferroportin, the iron exporter found on the basolateral surface of enterocytes (intestinal cells), macrophages, and hepatocytes. Once bound, hepcidin causes internalization and degradation of ferroportin, thereby decreasing iron release into the bloodstream from the intestine, liver, and bone marrow.
This regulation helps prevent iron overload and also reduces serum iron during inflammation or infection.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Haptoglobin: Binds free hemoglobin released from red blood cells but has no role in iron absorption or regulation.
Apoferritin: Binds and stores intracellular iron as ferritin, but it does not regulate iron release.
Transferrin: Transports iron in the plasma but does not regulate its release.
Ferroportin: Facilitates iron export from cells, but it is the target of regulation, not the regulator itself.
When you need to pull oxygen across the placenta from mom’s blood, would tighter or looser hemoglobin binding help more?
13 / 36
Category:
Blood – Biochemistry
As compared to HbA, HbF has which of the following characteristics?
Fetal hemoglobin (HbF) differs from adult hemoglobin (HbA) in that it has a higher affinity for oxygen. HbF is composed of two alpha and two gamma chains (α2γ2), while HbA consists of two alpha and two beta chains (α2β2).
This higher oxygen affinity is crucial for the fetus, as it allows efficient transfer of oxygen from the mother’s blood across the placenta. HbF achieves this by binding less effectively to 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate (2,3-BPG), which in adult hemoglobin promotes oxygen release.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Difficult O2 unloading: Although HbF holds oxygen more tightly, it is not the defining comparison in clinical relevance. The key point is higher affinity, not impaired function.
HbF has delta chains: This is incorrect. Delta chains are part of HbA2, not HbF. HbF has gamma chains.
HbF is less stable: HbF is functionally stable. This statement is inaccurate.
HbF binds 2,3-BPG more strongly: The opposite is true. HbF binds 2,3-BPG more weakly, which is what gives it its higher oxygen affinity.
When one side of glycolysis skips a payday, the total profit takes a hit—but doesn’t vanish.
14 / 36
Category:
Blood – Biochemistry
During glycolysis, 1 molecule of glucose is metabolized into 2 molecules of glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P). If one G3P molecule undergoes the Rapoport-Luebering shunt (bypassing ATP generation at phosphoglycerate kinase), while the other proceeds through normal glycolysis, what is the net ATP yield from the complete glycolysis of that one glucose molecule?
Normal glycolysis of 1 glucose molecule yields:
However, if one G3P goes through the Rapoport-Luebering shunt , it bypasses ATP production at the phosphoglycerate kinase step. This means 1 ATP is not produced on that side of glycolysis.
So:
Total net ATP: 2 (normal side) + 0 (shunt side) = 1 ATP
❌ Why the other options are incorrect:
Two: Would be correct for normal glycolysis (no shunt).
Three and Four: Exceed possible ATP yield from glycolysis even without any shunt.
Zero: Even with one shunt-affected G3P, the other still yields 2 ATP , offsetting losses.
When something is made and destroyed too quickly, waste builds up. Ask yourself — which part of the blood, when broken, leaves behind something yellow?
15 / 36
Category:
Blood – Pathology
A 15-year-old African American male presents to the emergency department with severe, acute leg and lower back pain that began two days ago and is progressively worsening. He describes the pain as sharp and throbbing , making him unable to walk. He also reports feeling very tired and short of breath with exertion .
He has a history of recurrent painful episodes and frequent infections requiring hospitalization and medical management. On examination, he appears pale , with yellowish discoloration of the skin and eyes , and is in significant discomfort . Vital signs reveal a slightly elevated heart rate and low oxygen saturation . Blood tests show a low red blood cell count and the presence of abnormally shaped red blood cells .
what is the significance of yellowish discoloration of skin and eyes
Yellowish skin and eyes (jaundice) happen when red blood cells break down too quickly. This releases a substance called bilirubin , which builds up in the blood.
In this case, the patient has:
These are signs of a condition like sickle cell disease , where red blood cells are destroyed faster than normal. That fast breakdown is what causes the yellow color — so it points to a red blood cell disorder .
Why the other options are wrong:
Bacterial infection – May cause fever or pain, but not jaundice like this.
Bleeding disorder – Causes bruising or bleeding, but not yellowing.
Viral infection – Only certain ones (like hepatitis) cause jaundice, not likely here.
Iron disorder – Affects blood production, not breakdown.
If you’re stopping disease before it even knocks on the door, you’re not treating or detecting — you’re preventing.
16 / 36
Category:
Blood – Community Medicine / Behavioral Sciences
EPI Program in Pakistan offers immunization of young children against various endemic infectious diseases including polio, measles, diphtheria and tetanus. The routine immunization of young children is an example of:
The Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI) in Pakistan aims to prevent diseases before they occur , especially in young children , by vaccinating them against common infectious diseases like polio, measles, diphtheria, and tetanus .
This is a classic example of primary prevention .
✅ Why Primary Prevention is Correct:
Primary prevention focuses on preventing the onset of disease by eliminating risk factors or boosting immunity before the disease develops.
Vaccines are a textbook example of primary prevention because they:
Stop infection before it starts
Build immunity in the general population
Reduce transmission of infectious diseases
So, routine childhood immunization falls squarely under primary prevention .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Outbreak Control
This involves urgent public health action in response to a sudden spike in cases.
Example: Mass measles vaccination in a school after an outbreak.
EPI is routine and ongoing , not a reaction to an outbreak.
Selective Prevention
Targets high-risk groups , not the general population.
EPI offers universal immunization , not just to children at special risk.
Secondary Prevention
Involves early detection and prompt treatment to halt progression (e.g., screening programs).
Vaccination occurs before the disease appears , not after.
Tertiary Prevention
When no single cause can explain the condition, and the origin of disease feels more like a network of tangled threads than a straight line — you’re dealing with a model that maps complexity, not simplicity.
17 / 36
Category:
Blood – Community Medicine / Behavioral Sciences
The disease causation model that can be used for explaining the mechanism of chronic diseases occurrence like diabetes, heart disease with multiple risk factors is:
When dealing with chronic diseases like diabetes or heart disease , the cause is not usually a single factor . Instead, it’s a complex interaction of multiple interrelated risk factors — such as genetics, diet, lifestyle, stress, socioeconomic status, etc.
To explain such multifactorial diseases , we use the Web of Causation model .
✅ Why Web Causation is Correct:
It allows public health professionals to:
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Determinants of Disease
This is a broad concept , not a model.
Refers to factors like age, sex, income, behavior, etc., that influence health — but it doesn’t explain how they interact to cause disease.
Dynamics of Disease Transmission
Refers to how infectious diseases spread , involving concepts like reservoirs , modes of transmission , infectivity , etc.
Not used for chronic diseases .
Epidemiological Triangle
Includes Agent–Host–Environment .
Useful for explaining infectious diseases where a pathogen is involved .
Not sufficient to explain chronic conditions without a single causative agent.
Wheel Model
An alternative model that shows genetic core surrounded by environmental influences .
While somewhat applicable to chronic diseases, it’s less detailed than the web of causation , and doesn’t emphasize interconnection between multiple risk factors.
When disease frequency spikes far above what’s usually expected within a region ,
18 / 36
Category:
Blood – Community Medicine / Behavioral Sciences
The occurrence of disease in a community or region of an illness with a frequency clearly in excess of normal expectancy is called:
The question describes a situation where a disease occurs more frequently than usual in a particular community or region . This is the textbook definition of an epidemic .
📌 Definition of Epidemic :
An epidemic is the occurrence of a disease in a population, community, or region , at a rate significantly higher than expected for a given time period.
✅ Why Epidemic is Correct:
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Outbreak
Very similar to an epidemic, but usually refers to a more limited geographic area (e.g., a school, factory, neighborhood).
An outbreak can be a small epidemic , but the question refers to a broader community or region , which fits epidemic better.
Endemic
A disease that is consistently present in a population or region, often at a baseline level .
Example: Malaria in certain parts of Africa is endemic , not epidemic.
No sudden increase beyond the usual — so doesn’t fit the question.
Exotic
Refers to diseases that are imported from another country and are not native to a particular area.
It’s about origin , not frequency.
Pandemic
A global epidemic — disease spreading across countries or continents .
Example: COVID-19 in 2020 was a pandemic , not just a regional epidemic.
If you’re planning to track people forward in time to see who develops a condition — and worrying about losing touch with them .. What study is it 🙂
19 / 36
Category:
Blood – Community Medicine / Behavioral Sciences
A professor of epidemiology was teaching epi study designs to his students. He was emphasizing on how to do the follow-up of the patients and how to reduce loss to follow up in an epidemiological study. The professor is teaching which of the following study designs to his students?
The key phrase in this question is:
“follow-up of the patients and how to reduce loss to follow-up .”
These are hallmark features of a cohort study — the only observational design that actively tracks a group of individuals over time to observe outcomes .
✅ Why Cohort Study is Correct:
A cohort study begins with a group of people without the disease , categorized based on exposure (e.g., smokers vs. non-smokers).
These individuals are then followed over time to see who develops the outcome (e.g., diabetes, cancer, etc.).
Loss to follow-up is a major challenge in cohort studies, as it may bias the results or affect validity.
Thus, methods to reduce attrition , like regular contact or incentives, are actively taught and applied.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Case-control study
Starts after the outcome has occurred.
No follow-up is done — instead, it looks backward at past exposures.
Loss to follow-up is not an issue here because participants are only contacted once .
Experimental study
Although it may involve follow-up (e.g., in Randomized Controlled Trials ), the question clearly refers to observational study teaching — and cohort studies are the observational type that fits this best.
Also, RCTs have intervention , which isn’t mentioned in the question.
Case series
Cross-sectional study
When a few extreme values stretch the data to one side, the distribution becomes unbalanced
20 / 36
Category:
Blood – Community Medicine / Behavioral Sciences
A group of researchers was analyzing their research dataset. The data showed that the frequency distribution of BMI among study participants had a long tail on the right-hand side of the curve than the left-hand side. This frequency distribution is:
The question states that the frequency distribution of BMI has a long tail on the right-hand side . This refers to how the data is spread out , especially in relation to symmetry.
🔍 What does that mean?
When a distribution has a long tail on the right , it means most values are clustered on the left , with fewer but larger values stretching out to the right .
This is called a right-skewed distribution (also known as positively skewed ).
So, the distribution is not symmetrical — hence, not normal or Gaussian .
✅ Why “Skewed” is Correct:
The term skewed describes asymmetrical data.
Right-skewed (positive skew): Long tail on the right side.
Left-skewed (negative skew): Long tail on the left side.
In the scenario described, BMI values have some high outliers pulling the tail to the right.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Normal
A normal distribution is symmetrical , bell-shaped, with no skewness .
The mean, median, and mode are all equal and centered.
Not applicable here because the curve is asymmetric .
Gaussian
Same as “normal distribution.” It’s another name for a symmetrical bell curve .
Again, doesn’t apply because the distribution is skewed.
Steep
Wide
Describes spread or variance , not shape or skewness .
You can have a wide normal curve, a wide skewed curve — but “wide” doesn’t explain the tail direction .
Think of it as a medical story told by a doctor — not a large group study, but a focused look at one intriguing patient.
21 / 36
Category:
Blood – Community Medicine / Behavioral Sciences
A lecturer was teaching his student a very simple form of epidemiological study designs. He explained that this study is based on a unique/unusual condition or rare disease reported by consultant in a patient. Which of the following study designs the lecturer was referring to?
The lecturer is describing a study that focuses on a unique or rare condition in a single patient , often reported by a clinician.
This is the hallmark of a case report .
✅ Why Case Report is Correct:
A case report is a detailed description of a single patient’s medical history , symptoms, diagnosis, treatment, and follow-up.
It often highlights:
It’s commonly written by clinicians or consultants when they encounter something medically uncommon or noteworthy .
Example: A doctor notices a rare side effect of a new drug in one patient and writes a report about it.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Cohort study
Involves groups of individuals , typically comparing exposed vs. non-exposed.
Measures incidence over time.
Not used for rare or individual cases.
Case-control study
Involves two groups : cases (with disease) and controls (without disease).
Designed to find associations with past exposures , not to report individual rare cases .
Randomized control trial (RCT)
Involves randomly assigning subjects to treatment vs. control groups.
Evaluates effectiveness of interventions, not rare diseases or one-off cases.
Cross-sectional study
If you’re tracking who develops a disease over time, you’re “watching a story unfold”
22 / 36
Category:
Blood – Community Medicine / Behavioral Sciences
A researcher conducted a research study to find the incidence of diabetes mellitus in Karachi city. Which of the following epidemiological study designs is undertaken for this research?
🔍 What is Incidence ?
This requires:
That’s exactly what a Cohort study does.
✅ Why Cohort Study is Correct:
It starts with a group of disease-free individuals .
Follows them over time .
Measures who develops the disease (i.e., incidence).
Can be prospective (looking forward) or retrospective (looking back using past records).
Example: Track 1,000 Karachi residents without diabetes for 5 years to see how many develop it — that’s a cohort study measuring incidence .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Case-control study
Starts after disease has occurred.
Compares those with disease (cases ) to those without (controls ) to find prior exposures.
Not suitable for measuring incidence — it doesn’t follow a population over time .
Experimental study
Involves intervention (e.g., giving a drug or vaccine).
Used to assess the effectiveness of treatment, not the natural incidence of disease in a population.
Case series
Descriptive report of patients with a condition .
No comparison group, no population-based follow-up.
Can’t estimate incidence.
Cross-sectional study
Measures prevalence , not incidence.
It’s like a snapshot — tells how many currently have the disease, not who developed it over time .
Think of a study that takes a “snapshot” of a population’s health at one moment — much like a photo capturing who’s sick and who’s not — rather than tracking them over time.
23 / 36
Category:
Blood – Community Medicine / Behavioral Sciences
A researcher was conducting a research study to find the prevalence of diabetes mellitus in Karachi city. Which of the following epidemiological study designs is undertaken for this research?
The researcher’s goal is to determine the prevalence of diabetes in a population — in this case, the population of Karachi city .
What does prevalence mean?
So we’re looking for a study design that:
That perfectly describes a Cross-sectional study .
🔍 Why Cross-sectional Study is Correct:
It collects data at one point in time from a population.
It assesses both exposure (e.g., obesity, sedentary lifestyle) and outcome (e.g., diabetes) simultaneously.
It is ideal for measuring prevalence .
❌ Why the Other Options are Incorrect:
Cohort study
This follows a group over time to see who develops the disease.
It measures incidence (new cases), not prevalence.
It’s about risk factors and cause-effect , not population-level disease rates at a single time.
Case-control study
Experimental study
This involves intervention (e.g., giving a treatment or vaccine) and then measuring outcomes.
It’s used to assess cause-effect relationships , not prevalence.
Case series
This deficiency results from chronic blood loss and leads to pale, small red blood cells.
24 / 36
Category:
Blood – Pathology
A person is diagnosed with anemia and is found to have a hookworm infection. What type of nutritional deficiency is most likely to be seen in this case?
Hookworms such as Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus attach to the mucosa of the small intestine and feed on host blood. Chronic blood loss caused by these parasites leads to iron deficiency. This results in microcytic, hypochromic anemia, especially in individuals with heavy infestations or poor nutritional intake.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Vitamin B12 deficiency is typically due to malabsorption or pernicious anemia, not blood loss from parasitic infection.
Folate (Vitamin B9) deficiency can also cause anemia, but it results in megaloblastic anemia, not commonly associated with hookworm.
Vitamin B6 deficiency may cause sideroblastic anemia, but it is not linked to blood loss from parasites.
Vitamin C plays a supportive role in iron absorption but is not the primary deficiency caused by hookworm infection.
Consider which vitamin improves the body’s ability to absorb plant-based sources of iron, especially in vegetarian diets.
25 / 36
Category:
Blood – Biochemistry
Which of the following vitamins helps in the absorption of non-heme iron in the gastrointestinal tract?
Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) enhances the absorption of non-heme iron by converting ferric iron (Fe³⁺) to its more absorbable ferrous form (Fe²⁺). It also forms soluble iron complexes in the acidic environment of the stomach, making iron more available for absorption in the duodenum.
This is particularly important in diets rich in plant-based foods, where iron is predominantly non-heme and not as readily absorbed as heme iron from animal sources.
Why the other options are incorrect:
Vitamin K is essential for clotting factor activation but does not aid in iron absorption.
Vitamin A is involved in vision and immune function but does not directly influence iron uptake.
Vitamin B12 is important for red blood cell formation and nervous system health, not iron absorption.
Vitamin D plays a role in calcium and phosphate homeostasis but has no direct effect on iron metabolism.
Would you launch a full-scale investigation without first confirming there’s actually a problem?
26 / 36
Category:
Blood – Community Medicine / Behavioral Sciences
In an outbreak investigation, the ultimate goals are to manage the current outbreak and prevent future ones. What is the logical first step in the investigation process?
The first step in any outbreak investigation is to establish that an outbreak is occurring . This involves determining whether the number of cases exceeds the expected baseline in a defined population, time, and place.
For example, if five cases of measles appear in a city where none are typically expected, this would justify further investigation . Establishing the outbreak is essential before moving to further steps like hypothesis generation or control measures.
❌ Why the other options are incorrect:
Development of a hypothesis: This step comes later , after data is collected and patterns are identified. You can’t form a valid hypothesis until you’re certain there’s an outbreak.
Data analysis: Data analysis helps test the hypothesis , but occurs after initial case definition and data collection .
Identification of the causative agent: While important, identifying the cause requires prior steps such as establishing the outbreak, defining cases , and collecting specimens.
Implementation of control measures: This is a later step , typically after confirming the outbreak and identifying the mode of transmission.
When trying to understand someone’s mental health journey, it often helps to start where the story began.
27 / 36
Category:
Blood – Community Medicine / Behavioral Sciences
A 25-year-old man presents to the psychiatry unit with a 4-year history of depression, as well as current mood swings and suicidal thoughts. To better understand the origin and nature of his symptoms, which component of his history would be most useful in establishing a psychiatric diagnosis?
Childhood history is crucial in psychiatric assessment, especially when symptoms like chronic depression, mood instability, and suicidality are present in a young adult. Early life experiences often provide:
Clues to trauma , abuse , or neglect
Insight into early-onset psychiatric symptoms , such as behavioral disorders , ADHD , or mood dysregulation
Understanding of attachment patterns , social development , and coping mechanisms
These factors are foundational in diagnosing personality disorders , bipolar disorder , or complex trauma-related conditions .
❌ Why the other options are incorrect:
Birth history: More relevant in evaluating neurodevelopmental disorders (e.g., intellectual disability, cerebral palsy) rather than adult mood disorders.
Treatment history: Very helpful for management and tracking progress , but it doesn’t reveal the origin or developmental context of psychiatric illness.
Education history: Offers context on cognitive or functional impairment , but lacks depth in uncovering psychiatric risk factors .
Family history: Important for assessing genetic predisposition , but not as informative for individual psychological development or environmental factors influencing current presentation.
If someone walks and talks like the disease but hasn’t been tested yet, what do we call them while we wait?
28 / 36
Category:
Blood – Community Medicine / Behavioral Sciences
A person presents with characteristic clinical features of a disease, but lacks laboratory confirmation. What is the most appropriate classification for this case?
In public health and epidemiology, a probable case is defined as a person who shows clinical features of a disease but does not yet have laboratory confirmation . This definition helps in early identification, surveillance, and sometimes even treatment while awaiting test results.
Probable cases are especially important in outbreak settings where diagnostic resources may be limited or delayed.
❌ Why the other options are incorrect:
Confirmed case: Requires both clinical features and laboratory confirmation —which this case lacks.
Infectious case: Refers to someone who is capable of transmitting the disease , regardless of lab confirmation. The term doesn’t describe case classification based on diagnostic criteria.
Possible case: Typically used when there are non-specific symptoms and insufficient evidence to strongly suspect the disease. This is a weaker classification than “probable.”
Subclinical case: Refers to a person who is infected but asymptomatic —not someone who shows clinical features.
If a parasite drinks your blood every day, what vital mineral might you eventually run low on?
29 / 36
Category:
Blood – Pathology
Hookworm is a parasitic nematode that resides in the small intestine and attaches to the mucosa of its host, where it matures and feeds. Chronic hookworm infection most commonly leads to which of the following nutritional deficiencies?
Hookworms , such as Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus , attach to the mucosa of the small intestine and feed on host blood . Each worm can cause chronic blood loss , and in heavily infected individuals, this leads to iron deficiency anemia .
This type of anemia is typically microcytic and hypochromic , and may present with fatigue, pallor, and reduced physical development in children.
❌ Why the other options are incorrect:
Folic acid deficiency: Not typically caused by hookworms. Folic acid is absorbed in the jejunum and is more affected by diet or medications , not blood loss.
Vitamin A deficiency: Not directly linked to hookworm. This vitamin is fat-soluble and more associated with malnutrition or fat malabsorption .
Vitamin B12 deficiency: Seen in conditions affecting the ileum (e.g., Diphyllobothrium latum infection), not typically due to hookworms, which reside in the duodenum/jejunum .
Vitamin C deficiency: Results from poor dietary intake , not blood loss from parasitic infection.
Would you invest in mass treatment where the disease is uncommon, or where you’re sure it’s hitting hardest?
30 / 36
Category:
Blood – Community Medicine / Behavioral Sciences
Ascariasis (large roundworm infection) is transmitted through the fecal-oral route, and adult worms reside in the lumen of the small intestine. As a public health strategy, mass deworming and preventive treatment measures are typically focused on which of the following populations or areas?
Ascariasis is a soil-transmitted helminthic infection , primarily spread via ingestion of eggs from contaminated food or hands. The World Health Organization (WHO) recommends mass drug administration (MDA) programs in areas where prevalence is high , typically where >20% of the population is infected.
Targeting highly prevalent areas ensures cost-effective use of resources, and reduces the disease burden and transmission cycle. These interventions often include mass deworming , health education, and improved sanitation.
❌ Why the other options are incorrect:
Areas having more children: Children are more vulnerable , and often the target group for deworming, but mass measures are planned based on prevalence , not just age demographics.
Urban areas: Urban settings may have better sanitation and lower prevalence. Mass treatment is not determined by urban or rural classification alone.
Rural areas: While many rural areas do have high prevalence, treatment is based on data , not geography alone. A rural area with low prevalence would not be prioritized.
Densely populated areas: Population density may facilitate transmission , but again, public health action is based on epidemiological prevalence , not just density.
If you start with a group of healthy people and monitor them over years to see who gets sick based on their habits—what kind of path through time are you walking?
31 / 36
Category:
Blood – Community Medicine / Behavioral Sciences
In a study that began in 2001, a group of 3,500 adults in Karachi were asked about their alcohol consumption. The subsequent occurrence of chronic liver disease cases between 2018 and 2023 was then studied in this group. What is the most appropriate classification of this study design?
This is a cohort study — specifically, a prospective cohort design:
The study begins with a group of individuals free of the outcome (chronic liver disease) in 2001 .
They are classified based on exposure (alcohol consumption).
They are then followed over time (up to 2023) to see who develops the outcome .
This is the hallmark of a cohort study: start with exposure , and follow forward in time to assess incidence of disease.
❌ Why the other options are incorrect:
Case-control study: Starts with people with and without disease and looks backward for exposure. This study starts with exposure, not outcome.
Case series: Describes a group of patients with a particular disease , without a comparison group or prospective follow-up.
Correlational study: Examines data at the population level , often simultaneously, without tracking individuals. This study follows individuals , not groups.
Cross-sectional study: Measures exposure and outcome at a single point in time . This study follows people over many years , so it is not cross-sectional .
If you first identify people who are sick and then ask what they were exposed to, what direction is the investigation moving — forward or backward?
32 / 36
Category:
Blood – Community Medicine / Behavioral Sciences
In a small study, 12 women with ovarian cancer and 12 women without the disease were contacted and asked whether they had ever used estrogen. Each woman with cancer was matched to a woman without cancer based on age, race, weight, and parity. Which of the following best describes the study design?
This is a classic case-control study . The key features are:
Selection based on outcome (disease status): Participants were grouped into cases (women with ovarian cancer) and controls (women without cancer).
Retrospective exposure assessment: Investigators looked backward to see whether the participants had been exposed to estrogen in the past.
Matching: Matching for confounders like age, race, weight, and parity is a common technique in case-control studies to reduce bias.
❌ Why the other options are incorrect:
Case report: A case report describes a single patient or a very small number without comparison or analysis—this study involves comparison groups , so it’s not a case report.
Cohort study: A cohort study follows groups based on exposure status (e.g., estrogen use vs. non-use) and then tracks outcomes (e.g., ovarian cancer). This study starts from the outcome , not exposure.
Cross-sectional study: In a cross-sectional study, exposure and outcome are assessed at the same time , usually in a large population snapshot. This study looks retrospectively at past exposure based on outcome groups.
Ecological study: Ecological studies examine population-level data , not individual-level data. This study involves individual matching and analysis , not group-level comparisons.
If your goal is to miss fewer sick people , you’ll widen your net — but in doing so, might you also catch more healthy ones by mistake?
33 / 36
Category:
Blood – Community Medicine / Behavioral Sciences
A screening test for diabetes mellitus initially uses a fasting blood glucose (FBS) cutoff of 105 mg/dL. The cutoff is later decreased to 100 mg/dL. What is the most likely impact of this change on the test’s validity?
When you lower the cutoff value for a screening test (e.g., from 105 mg/dL to 100 mg/dL for fasting blood sugar), more people will test positive , including those with milder elevations or even false positives . This leads to:
Increased sensitivity : You are more likely to catch true positives , so fewer diabetics are missed (fewer false negatives).
Decreased specificity : You are also more likely to label healthy individuals as diabetic , increasing the false positive rate .
This is a classic trade-off in screening tests — increasing sensitivity often comes at the cost of decreased specificity.
❌ Why the other options are incorrect:
Sensitivity will decrease: Incorrect. Lowering the cutoff increases sensitivity by detecting more true cases.
Specificity will decrease: Partially correct — but doesn’t acknowledge the increase in sensitivity , which is central to understanding the change.
Specificity will increase: Incorrect. Lowering the cutoff leads to more false positives , thereby decreasing specificity .
Specificity will increase but sensitivity will decrease: This would be true if the cutoff were raised , not lowered.
If your immune system hasn’t seen a threat before, what kind of response can it mount without relying on memory or antibodies?
34 / 36
Category:
Blood – Pathology
A gardener is bitten by a cobra, and the venom enters the bloodstream. Which complement pathway is most likely to be activated in response to the venom?
The alternative complement pathway is part of the innate immune system and is triggered directly by foreign surfaces , such as bacterial walls, viruses, or venoms , without the need for antibodies. Cobra venom, being a non-self protein that enters the bloodstream, can directly initiate the alternative pathway.
In this pathway, C3 spontaneously hydrolyzes , and C3b binds to the foreign surface. This leads to the formation of the C3 convertase (C3bBb) , amplifying the response and generating C3a and C5a , which promote inflammation and recruit immune cells.
Factor H plays a regulatory role in this pathway, preventing damage to host cells by inactivating C3b when bound to self-surfaces.
❌ Why the other options are incorrect:
Classical pathway (antigen-antibody complex dependent): This requires antibodies (IgG or IgM) bound to antigens to initiate the cascade. Since the cobra venom exposure is an acute event and antibodies may not yet be present, this is unlikely to be the primary pathway.
Lectin pathway (triggered by mannose-binding lectin): This pathway targets microbial surfaces with mannose residues , such as those on bacteria or fungi. Cobra venom does not activate this pathway.
Activation of factor H and C3b regulation: While factor H is a regulator of the alternative pathway (not a trigger), it prevents complement activation on host cells , not foreign ones like venom. This is a regulatory mechanism , not the main activation pathway.
Direct activation of C3a and C5a without initial antibody involvement: While C3a and C5a are products of complement activation, this option describes an effect , not a pathway . It’s better to identify the specific pathway (alternative) that leads to their activation in this context.
When macrophages encounter something they cannot digest, they may form a cellular fortress around it. What type of inflammation builds such fortresses?
35 / 36
Category:
Blood – Pathology
A 35-year-old man presents with an enlarged cervical lymph node. An excisional biopsy reveals the presence of epithelioid cells and multinucleated giant cells. Which of the following types of inflammation is most consistent with these findings?
The presence of epithelioid cells (activated macrophages with a squamous-like appearance) and multinucleated giant cells is characteristic of granulomatous inflammation . This form of chronic inflammation occurs in response to indigestible substances, such as persistent pathogens (e.g., Mycobacterium tuberculosis ), foreign bodies, or autoimmune triggers.
Granulomas are organized collections of macrophages surrounded by lymphocytes, and often contain Langhans-type giant cells (with peripheral nuclei) or foreign body-type giant cells .
❌ Why the other options are incorrect:
Serous inflammation: This is characterized by a watery, protein-poor fluid , such as that seen in blisters or viral pleuritis—not by cellular infiltrates like giant cells.
Ulcerative inflammation: Involves necrosis and sloughing of the surface epithelium (e.g., peptic ulcers). It does not typically feature giant cells or epithelioid macrophages.
Fibrinous inflammation: Characterized by fibrin-rich exudate due to increased vascular permeability (e.g., in pericarditis). It lacks granuloma formation.
Acute inflammation: Dominated by neutrophils , not macrophages or giant cells. The features here indicate a chronic process.
Think about the timeline and location of blood formation during embryonic development—where does the earliest but short-lived process occur compared to the one that sustains life?
36 / 36
Category:
Blood – Embryology
Which of the following is not a characteristic of definitive hematopoiesis?
Definitive hematopoiesis is the process by which mature, functional blood cells (including enucleated red blood cells, all types of white blood cells, and platelets) are produced from hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) . It differs from primitive hematopoiesis , which occurs earlier and mainly in the yolk sac.
Let’s break down each option:
It occurs in the yolk sac ❌ → Incorrect statement (Correct answer) . The yolk sac is the site of primitive hematopoiesis , not definitive. Definitive hematopoiesis begins later, initially in the aorta-gonad-mesonephros (AGM) region , then moves to the liver (fetal stage) , and finally establishes in the bone marrow .
Red blood cells produced are enucleated ✅ → True. In definitive hematopoiesis, erythrocytes lose their nuclei , unlike in primitive hematopoiesis, where nucleated RBCs are formed.
It produces a significant number of white blood cells ✅ → True. Unlike primitive hematopoiesis, which mostly produces erythroid cells, definitive hematopoiesis also generates myeloid and lymphoid cells (WBCs).
It occurs during fetal life ✅ → True. Definitive hematopoiesis begins in the fetus and continues throughout life.
It involves hematopoietic stem cells ✅ → True. A hallmark of definitive hematopoiesis is the generation of multipotent HSCs capable of self-renewal and differentiation into all blood lineages.
Your score is
The average score is 72%
Follow us on our Socials ! Thank you.
Restart quiz
Anonymous feedback
Thank you for your feedback.