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Blood – 2021
Questions from The 2021 Module + Annual Exam of Blood
When thinking about anemia, ask yourself:“Are red cells being destroyed, lost, or simply not made?” If the problem starts in the bone marrow , consider causes of reduced production .
1 / 109
Category:
Blood – Pathology
Which of the following is responsible for anemia due to reduced erythropoiesis?
Anemia due to reduced erythropoiesis means that the bone marrow is not producing enough red blood cells (RBCs) . This is exactly what happens in aplastic anemia — a condition characterized by pancytopenia (deficiency of all blood cell lines) due to bone marrow failure .
🔍 Let’s break it down:
🩸 Aplastic Anemia
Caused by destruction or suppression of hematopoietic stem cells in the bone marrow.
Leads to:
Low RBCs → anemia
Low WBCs → infections
Low platelets → bleeding
Bone marrow biopsy shows hypocellular marrow with fatty replacement.
Common causes: drugs (e.g., chloramphenicol), radiation, viral infections (like hepatitis), autoimmune diseases.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Option
Why It’s Incorrect
Sickle cell anemia
A hemolytic anemia due to abnormal hemoglobin causing sickling and RBC destruction.
Iron deficiency anemia
Caused by impaired hemoglobin synthesis , not complete suppression of erythropoiesis.
Hereditary spherocytosis
A hemolytic anemia due to membrane defects leading to splenic destruction of RBCs.
Microangiopathic hemolysis
Involves mechanical destruction of RBCs in small vessels (e.g., DIC, HUS), not reduced production.
When lymph nodes are non-tender, firm, rubbery, and persist for months —always consider whether the body is reacting or if the node itself has become part of the disease.
2 / 109
Category:
Blood – Pathology
A middle-aged male comes to the outpatient department with a low to high-grade fever that has been on and off for the last year and has lymphadenopathy. Lymph nodes are discrete, enlarged, non-tender, and have a rubbery consistency. The rest of the examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
The presentation described is textbook for Hodgkin lymphoma , especially the nodular sclerosis or mixed cellularity subtype. Let’s analyze why.
🔍 Clinical Features of Hodgkin Lymphoma:
Fever (often low-grade or intermittent) – Can follow Pel-Ebstein pattern: cyclic fevers that rise and fall over days.
Lymphadenopathy :
Painless
Discrete, rubbery, and firm
Most commonly cervical or supraclavicular
Systemic symptoms (B symptoms) :
Fever
Night sweats
Weight loss
Often occurs in young adults or middle-aged males
Lymph nodes are typically non-tender
No significant findings on general physical examination initially besides lymphadenopathy
🧪 Confirmatory Test:
❌ Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
Option
Why It’s Incorrect
Leukemia
Typically presents with diffuse bone marrow involvement , anemia , infections , and thrombocytopenia . Lymphadenopathy may occur but is not isolated.
Viral infection
Usually causes tender , soft lymph nodes and resolves within days to weeks, not year-long .
Connective tissue disorder
May have generalized lymphadenopathy but usually with joint pain, rash, or systemic involvement (e.g., lupus).
Sarcoidosis
More often involves hilar lymphadenopathy , lungs, and skin, and is less likely to cause systemic B symptoms or rubbery peripheral nodes .
Consider the structural and biochemical barriers the vascular wall employs to keep blood in a fluid state—and what would happen when that barrier is disrupted.
3 / 109
Think about which type of white blood cell is especially active against parasites and in allergic reactions—and often spikes in atopic children.
4 / 109
Category:
Blood – Pathology
A 5-year-old child, who has a history of eczema, develops rhinitis and develops asthma with seasonal change. What is the most likely change seen on the peripheral blood smear?
This child has a classic atopic triad :
Eczema (atopic dermatitis)
Allergic rhinitis
Asthma
These conditions are type I hypersensitivity reactions , which are IgE-mediated and involve eosinophil activation in response to allergens.
🔬 What Happens in the Blood?
The immune response in atopic diseases is skewed towards a Th2 (T-helper 2) profile , which promotes:
IgE production
Mast cell activation
Eosinophil recruitment
In such patients, peripheral eosinophilia (increased eosinophils in blood) is commonly seen—this is called eosinophilic leukocytosis .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Option
Why It’s Incorrect
Basophilic leukocytosis
Basophils are also involved in allergic responses but rarely cause peripheral leukocytosis.
Lymphocytosis
Seen in viral infections or chronic immune responses, not typical in acute atopy.
Monocytosis
Seen in chronic infections or inflammatory states like tuberculosis.
Neutrophilic leukocytosis
Seen in bacterial infections or acute inflammation, not allergic responses.
Think about the difference between the concentration of hemoglobin in whole blood versus the concentration within just the packed red blood cells.
5 / 109
Category:
Blood – Physiology
What is the maximum amount of hemoglobin a red blood cell can concentrate at a given time?
Hemoglobin concentration inside a single red blood cell (RBC) is very high because hemoglobin is the primary protein within RBCs responsible for oxygen transport.
The typical maximum concentration of hemoglobin inside an RBC is approximately 34 grams per deciliter (g/dL) of packed red blood cells.
This value reflects the intracellular environment , not the hemoglobin concentration in whole blood (which is about 12–17 g/dL).
It means that when RBCs are packed (removing plasma), the hemoglobin content per volume of packed cells is around 34 g/dL.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
Option
Reason for Being Incorrect
15 g/dL
Approximate hemoglobin concentration in whole blood, not inside RBCs.
25 g/dL
Lower than the actual intracellular hemoglobin concentration.
21 g/dL
Also lower than the typical maximum RBC hemoglobin concentration.
19 g/dL
Same as above.
Think about the mechanisms that slow blood flow in veins, especially in patients forced to stay still for a prolonged period.
6 / 109
Category:
Blood – Pathology
A 60-year-old patient comes to the clinic with pain in his leg for over a week. He further adds that due to pain, he could not move his leg. He has now developed deep vein thrombosis in his leg. Which of the following factors is most likely responsible for thrombus formation?
🔹 Context: Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)
DVT is the formation of a blood clot (thrombus) in a deep vein, usually in the legs.
The classic causes of thrombosis are described by Virchow’s triad :
Stasis of blood flow
Endothelial injury
Hypercoagulability
In this patient, immobilization (due to pain and inability to move the leg) causes venous stasis , which predisposes to thrombus formation.
Immobile muscles do not pump blood efficiently, causing pooling and clotting.
🔹 Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
Factor
Explanation
Hypoglycemia
Low blood sugar has no direct role in clot formation.
Hyperglycemia
Although diabetes increases vascular risk, acute hyperglycemia is not a direct cause of DVT here.
Pain
Pain itself does not cause thrombosis; it may limit mobility but is not the direct factor.
Surgery
Surgery is a risk factor but is not mentioned in the history as recent or relevant here.
Think about the protein that protects the body from oxidative damage by capturing free hemoglobin immediately after RBC destruction.
7 / 109
Category:
Blood – Biochemistry
Which protein does hemoglobin bind to after hemolysis of red blood cells?
🔹 Context: Hemolysis and Hemoglobin Binding
When red blood cells (RBCs) undergo hemolysis , hemoglobin is released into the bloodstream.
Free hemoglobin is toxic and can cause kidney damage if not quickly cleared.
Haptoglobin is a plasma glycoprotein that binds free hemoglobin released from destroyed RBCs.
The hemoglobin–haptoglobin complex is then rapidly removed by macrophages in the spleen and liver.
This prevents free hemoglobin from causing oxidative damage and conserves iron.
🔹 Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
Protein
Role and Why It’s Not the Primary Hemoglobin Binder Post-Hemolysis
Hemosiderin
An iron-storage complex found inside cells, not a plasma hemoglobin binder.
Transferrin
Iron transport protein in plasma; binds free iron, not hemoglobin.
Apoferritin
Protein shell of ferritin, involved in iron storage inside cells, not plasma binding.
Ferritin
Intracellular iron storage protein, not involved in binding free hemoglobin.
Haptoglobin
Binds free hemoglobin in plasma immediately after hemolysis (correct answer).
Which learning process depends on consequences following behavior, encouraging repetition of rewarded actions?
8 / 109
Category:
Blood – Community Medicine / Behavioral Sciences
Learning associated with reinforcement is associated with which of the following?
🔹 What is Operant Learning?
Operant learning (or operant conditioning) is a type of learning where behavior is influenced by reinforcement or punishment .
When a behavior is followed by a reward (positive reinforcement) or removal of an unpleasant stimulus (negative reinforcement), the behavior’s frequency increases .
Conversely, if followed by punishment, the behavior’s frequency decreases.
This is a core principle behind learning associated with reinforcement .
🔹 Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
Term
Explanation
Innate behavior
Behaviors that are genetically programmed, not learned or influenced by reinforcement.
Classical conditioning
Learning through association of two stimuli (Pavlov’s dogs), not directly involving reinforcement.
Modelling
Learning by observing and imitating others, not through direct reinforcement of one’s own behavior.
Stimulus presenting
Not a standard term in learning theories; possibly refers to presenting stimuli but doesn’t specify reinforcement.
Consider a chronic autoimmune disease patient presenting with low neutrophils and an enlarged spleen—what syndrome links these findings?
9 / 109
Category:
Blood – Pathology
A middle-aged woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis consults her doctor. On examination, she is found to have splenomegaly. Her laboratory results reveal neutropenia and anemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
🔹 Clinical Background:
The patient has rheumatoid arthritis (RA) .
She presents with splenomegaly , neutropenia , and anemia .
🔹 What is Felty Syndrome?
Felty syndrome is a rare complication of long-standing rheumatoid arthritis .
It is characterized by the triad of:
Rheumatoid arthritis
Splenomegaly
Neutropenia
The neutropenia increases the risk of infections.
Anemia is also common due to chronic inflammation or hypersplenism.
Splenomegaly occurs due to increased destruction and sequestration of blood cells in the spleen.
🔹 Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
Diagnosis
Explanation
Idiopathic aplastic anemia
Characterized by pancytopenia due to bone marrow failure; no typical association with RA or splenomegaly.
Septicemia
Would cause systemic infection signs but does not explain splenomegaly or chronic neutropenia.
Viral infection
May cause transient cytopenias but typically lacks chronic splenomegaly and RA association.
None of these
Felty syndrome fits clinical and laboratory findings best.
Consider the difference between the first and subsequent encounters with the same pathogen — what allows the immune system to respond more vigorously upon re-exposure?
10 / 109
Category:
Blood – Pathology
Which of the following features of the adaptive immune system produces an exaggerated response?
🔹 What is Immune Memory?
Memory is a hallmark feature of the adaptive immune system .
After initial exposure to an antigen, memory B and T cells are formed.
Upon subsequent exposures, these memory cells trigger a faster, stronger, and more effective immune response compared to the primary response.
This leads to an exaggerated (amplified) response that can rapidly clear the pathogen.
🔹 Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
Feature
Explanation
Antibody production
Important for immune defense but does not inherently imply exaggerated response.
Delayed response
Adaptive immunity is characterized by a delayed initial response, not an exaggerated one.
Immediate response
More characteristic of innate immunity; adaptive immunity takes time to mount the first response.
Antigen specificity
Allows targeting of specific pathogens but does not directly relate to response magnitude.
Which vitamin’s absorption depends on a substance produced by stomach cells and is essential for DNA synthesis in red blood cell precursors?
11 / 109
Category:
Blood – Pathology
Atrophy of stomach mucosa damages the parietal cells that secrete intrinsic factor. This causes which one of the following?
🔹 Pathophysiology:
Parietal cells in the stomach secrete intrinsic factor (IF) , which is essential for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the terminal ileum.
Atrophy of the stomach mucosa , such as in autoimmune gastritis or chronic atrophic gastritis , leads to loss of parietal cells .
Without intrinsic factor, vitamin B12 absorption is impaired , resulting in vitamin B12 deficiency .
Vitamin B12 deficiency causes megaloblastic anemia , characterized by the production of large, immature RBCs due to defective DNA synthesis.
🔹 Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
Anemia Type
Explanation
Hemolytic anemia
Results from premature RBC destruction, unrelated to intrinsic factor or B12 deficiency.
Microcytic hypochromic anemia
Usually due to iron deficiency or chronic disease, not B12 deficiency.
Idiopathic aplastic anemia
Bone marrow failure causing pancytopenia; unrelated to stomach mucosal atrophy.
Aplastic anemia
Failure of bone marrow production of all blood cells, different pathology.
Consider the difference between a disease that is always present at a baseline level in a community versus one that suddenly spikes or spreads widely .
12 / 109
Which tumor suppressor gene is famously associated with a pediatric eye cancer and tightly controls progression from one cell cycle phase to the next?
13 / 109
Category:
Blood – Pathology
A patient has been diagnosed with a malignant eye tumor in the upper right eye. His molecular analysis shows deletion of both copies of the tumor suppressor gene that checks the transition from the G1 to S phase of the cell cycle. Which of the following genes is defective?
🔹 Context:
The patient has a malignant eye tumor (likely retinoblastoma given the location and tumor suppressor gene involved).
Molecular analysis shows deletion of both copies of a gene regulating the G1 to S phase transition in the cell cycle.
This gene is a classic tumor suppressor gene .
🔹 Role of the Rb Gene:
The Rb (retinoblastoma) gene produces retinoblastoma protein (pRb) .
pRb regulates the cell cycle checkpoint at the G1/S transition by controlling E2F transcription factors.
When both alleles of Rb gene are deleted or mutated, this checkpoint is lost, leading to uncontrolled cell proliferation .
This mechanism is the classic cause of retinoblastoma , a malignant eye tumor in children.
Loss of both copies of Rb is consistent with Knudson’s “two-hit” hypothesis for tumor suppressor genes.
🔹 Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
Gene
Function and Relevance
NF1
Tumor suppressor gene involved in neurofibromatosis type 1 ; regulates Ras signaling, not directly cell cycle G1/S checkpoint.
K-Ras
Oncogene involved in signal transduction (GTPase activity); mutations lead to activation, not deletion.
p53
Tumor suppressor gene that regulates DNA damage response and apoptosis; acts mainly at G1/S and G2/M checkpoints but is distinct from Rb.
BCl-2
Anti-apoptotic gene; overexpression prevents cell death but not involved in cell cycle checkpoint control.
If platelet count is normal but bleeding time is prolonged with mucosal bleeding, what functional defect might platelets have?
14 / 109
Category:
Blood – Pathology
A girl is brought to the outpatient department with complaints of gum bleeding, and epistaxis. Her complete blood count (CBC) shows a normal platelet count and prolonged bleeding time. There is a family history of a younger sister with easy bruising. What is the diagnosis?
🔹 Clinical Features:
Patient has gum bleeding and epistaxis (nosebleeds) .
CBC shows a normal platelet count .
Prolonged bleeding time indicates a platelet function disorder, not a platelet number problem.
Positive family history suggests an inherited condition.
🔹 What is Glanzmann Thrombasthenia?
It is a rare inherited platelet function disorder caused by deficiency or dysfunction of the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor on platelets.
This receptor is essential for platelet aggregation (platelets sticking together to form a plug).
Platelet count is normal, but platelets cannot aggregate properly, leading to prolonged bleeding time and mucocutaneous bleeding symptoms like gum bleeding and epistaxis.
🔹 Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
Diagnosis
Explanation
Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
Characterized by low platelet count due to immune destruction, unlike this case where platelet count is normal.
Drug induced thrombocytopenia
Also presents with low platelet count; not supported here due to normal counts and family history.
Hemophilia
A coagulation factor deficiency causing prolonged clotting times (PT/PTT) , but usually normal bleeding time and no platelet abnormality.
Vitamin K deficiency
Leads to prolonged clotting times (PT), bleeding due to lack of clotting factors; normal platelet function.
Focus on the origin of the tumor— “adeno-” refers to glands, and remember benign tumors end with “-oma,” while malignant ones often end with “-carcinoma” or “-sarcoma.”
15 / 109
Which vitamin is essential for the building blocks of DNA, thus affecting rapidly dividing cells like those producing red blood cells?
16 / 109
Which hemoglobin type, abundant at birth, remains free of the mutation causing sickling and thus softens the disease’s impact?
17 / 109
Category:
Blood – Pathology
A 20-year-old male has a history of sickle cell anemia and has repeated 2-year transfusions with a hemoglobin concentration of 8.0 g/dl. Which hemoglobin has a protective effect?
🔹 Sickle Cell Anemia Basics:
Caused by a mutation in the β-globin gene producing HbS (α₂β^S₂) .
Under low oxygen conditions, HbS polymerizes, causing RBC sickling, hemolysis, and vaso-occlusion.
This leads to chronic anemia and recurrent transfusions, as seen in the patient.
🔹 Protective Role of HbF:
HbF (α₂γ₂) is the fetal hemoglobin normally dominant in newborns.
HbF does not contain β chains , so it does not sickle .
Increased HbF levels in sickle cell patients reduce polymerization of HbS by inhibiting sickling.
Hence, HbF ameliorates symptoms and severity of sickle cell disease.
Treatments like hydroxyurea work by increasing HbF production.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Hemoglobin
Explanation
HbC
Variant hemoglobin causing mild hemolytic anemia; no protective role in sickle cell anemia.
HbA
Normal adult hemoglobin (α₂β₂); absent or reduced in sickle cell disease, and does not protect.
HbA₂
Minor adult hemoglobin (α₂δ₂); no significant protective role.
HbS
The mutated hemoglobin causing sickling, so definitely not protective.
Which intervention aims to find disease before symptoms start, thereby allowing earlier treatment to improve outcomes?
18 / 109
When the body’s main oxygen carriers are destroyed, what immature cell types would rush into the bloodstream to make up for the loss?
19 / 109
Category:
Blood – Pathology
In erythroblastosis fetalis, which cells become abundant in the blood culture?
In erythroblastosis fetalis , the key pathological event is immune-mediated destruction of fetal red blood cells (RBCs) due to maternal antibodies (usually anti-Rh IgG) crossing the placenta and attacking fetal RBC antigens.
What happens next?
Due to massive hemolysis (breakdown of RBCs), the fetus develops severe anemia .
To compensate, the fetal bone marrow increases production of RBC precursors , including erythroblasts (nucleated red blood cells).
These immature RBCs enter the circulation in large numbers, which is an abnormal finding known as erythroblastosis .
Therefore, the blood culture (or peripheral blood smear) shows increased immature red blood cells , not just mature RBCs.
Why not the other options?
Option
Explanation
T-cells
Important in immune response, but not increased in circulation during erythroblastosis fetalis.
Immune cells
Too vague; the key hallmark is the increase in immature red blood cells .
Monocytes
Not specifically increased or implicated here.
Red blood cells
Correct, specifically immature RBCs (erythroblasts) become abundant in fetal blood.
B-cells
Antibody producers but not increased in fetal blood during this disease.
When beta chains are in short supply, which alternate adult hemoglobin type steps up its production using delta chains?
20 / 109
Category:
Blood – Pathology
Which type of hemoglobin (Hb) is present in greater than normal amounts in beta-thalassemia minor?
🔹 What is Beta-Thalassemia Minor?
Beta-thalassemia minor is the heterozygous form of beta-thalassemia, where one of the two beta-globin genes is mutated. It typically causes mild microcytic anemia and is often asymptomatic or discovered incidentally.
🔹 Hemoglobin Types in Adults:
Hemoglobin Type
Composition
Normal % in Adults
HbA
α₂β₂
~96–98%
HbA₂
α₂δ₂
~2–3.5%
HbF
α₂γ₂
<1%
🔹 Key Change in Beta-Thalassemia Minor:
The production of β chains is reduced , so less HbA (α₂β₂) is made.
The body compensates by increasing production of δ chains , which form HbA₂ (α₂δ₂) .
Therefore, HbA₂ is elevated , usually to >3.5% , which is a diagnostic hallmark of beta-thalassemia minor.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
HbF (α₂γ₂) : Slightly increased in some cases, but not consistently or diagnostically significant in minor form.
HbS : Found in sickle cell disease , not thalassemia.
HbC : Abnormal variant associated with HbC disease , unrelated to thalassemia.
HbA : Actually reduced due to the β-chain production defect .
Which enzyme’s name literally describes the act of “inserting iron” into a ring structure, and ends the heme production line?
21 / 109
Category:
Blood – Biochemistry
In heme synthesis, Fe2+ is added to protoporphyrin to form heme. Which enzyme is needed for this process?
🔹 Overview of Heme Synthesis:
Heme is synthesized through a multi-step process that takes place partly in the mitochondria and partly in the cytoplasm of cells — especially in the liver and bone marrow.
In the final step of heme synthesis, ferrous iron (Fe²⁺) is inserted into the protoporphyrin IX ring to form heme . This reaction is catalyzed by the enzyme ferrochelatase .
🔹 Function of Ferrochelatase:
Location : Inner mitochondrial membrane
Role : Catalyzes the insertion of Fe²⁺ into protoporphyrin IX
Product : Heme (iron-protoporphyrin IX)
Clinical relevance : Deficiency of ferrochelatase leads to erythropoietic protoporphyria (EPP) , a porphyria characterized by photosensitivity.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Enzyme
Comment
Ferrooxidase
Involved in converting Fe²⁺ to Fe³⁺ (oxidation), not heme synthesis.
Ferrohydroxylase
Not a recognized enzyme in heme or iron metabolism.
Ferrocarboxylase
Non-existent or incorrectly named enzyme.
Ferrosynthase
Not a recognized enzyme in heme biosynthesis.
Only ferrochelatase is specifically and correctly involved in heme formation .
Before rushing to declare a crisis, what must a physician confirm about the nature of the illness — especially when symptoms are shared by multiple conditions?
22 / 109
Category:
Blood – Community Medicine / Behavioral Sciences
According to the report published in a newspaper regarding the cholera outbreak and a large number of patients were brought to the emergency department with diarrhea, vomiting, and fever. The district house officer asked one of his team members to investigate. What is the first step in the outbreak investigation?
While “confirmation of the existence of an outbreak” is often listed as the first step in many outbreak investigation protocols, in real-world application and authoritative sources such as the CDC and WHO , the very first operational step is:
🔍 Verification of the Diagnosis
This ensures that:
The reported condition is accurately identified .
There’s no error or misdiagnosis .
The illness matches the clinical and/or laboratory definition of the disease (in this case, cholera).
🔹 Why is this step crucial?
You must verify that what you’re dealing with is indeed cholera — and not a similar condition like food poisoning, norovirus, or another diarrheal illness — before declaring an outbreak.
✅ Official Steps of Outbreak Investigation (Ref: CDC, Park’s Textbook):
Verify the Diagnosis – Confirm through clinical exam, lab tests, and case histories.
Confirm the Existence of an Outbreak – Determine whether the number of cases exceeds the expected baseline.
Define and identify cases.
Describe data in terms of time, place, and person.
Develop hypotheses.
Test hypotheses.
Implement control and prevention measures.
Communicate findings (report writing, briefings).
❌ Why the other options are incorrect as the first step:
Confirm the existence of an outbreak : Comes second , after verifying diagnosis.
Write the report : This is a final step .
Confirm number of deaths : Important, but a later epidemiological metric .
Confirmation of all cases : A part of case definition and line listing , which comes after diagnosis verification .
Which substance, derived from arachidonic acid in platelets, acts as both a signal for narrowing vessels and a recruiter of more platelets to the site of injury?
23 / 109
Category:
Blood – Physiology
In smaller vessels, platelets are responsible for vasoconstriction by releasing which of the following?
🔹 Platelet Role in Vasoconstriction:
When a blood vessel is injured — especially a small vessel — platelets adhere to the site of endothelial damage and become activated . Upon activation, they release several substances from their granules and produce signaling molecules that initiate hemostasis.
One of the most important molecules they synthesize is Thromboxane A₂ (TXA₂) .
🔹 What does Thromboxane A₂ do?
Potent vasoconstrictor : Narrows blood vessels to reduce blood flow at the injury site.
Promotes platelet aggregation : Amplifies the formation of the primary platelet plug .
It is synthesized from arachidonic acid via the cyclooxygenase (COX) pathway .
This dual role makes TXA₂ crucial in minimizing blood loss and initiating clot formation.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
ADP (Adenosine Diphosphate):
Promotes platelet aggregation , not vasoconstriction.
It activates other platelets but doesn’t directly constrict vessels.
PGE₂ (Prostaglandin E₂):
Typically causes vasodilation , not vasoconstriction.
Also involved in pain and fever during inflammation.
NO (Nitric Oxide):
Prostacyclin (PGI₂):
Among these options, which one reflects a cognitive state rather than a local tissue response to injury?
24 / 109
Category:
Blood – Pathology
Which of these is not a cardinal sign of inflammation?
🔹 The 5 Cardinal Signs of Inflammation
(Originally described by Celsus and later expanded by Virchow):
Latin Term
English Translation
Rubor
Redness
Tumor
Swelling
Calor
Heat/Warmth
Dolor
Pain
Functio laesa
Loss of function (added later by Virchow)
These signs result from vasodilation , increased vascular permeability , and inflammatory mediator release (e.g., prostaglandins, bradykinin, histamine).
Redness (Rubor) : Caused by increased blood flow (hyperemia)
Swelling (Tumor) : Due to fluid extravasation (edema)
Warmth (Calor) : From increased perfusion and metabolism
Pain (Dolor) : From chemical mediators stimulating nerve endings
Loss of function : May result from pain, swelling, or tissue damage
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Pain – A key symptom due to chemical irritation of nerve endings.
Warmth – Caused by hyperemia (increased blood flow).
Swelling – Due to fluid accumulation (edema) in tissues.
Redness – Also a result of increased perfusion.
❌ Confusion is not a cardinal sign:
Confusion is a neurological symptom , not a classic sign of localized inflammation.
It may be seen in systemic inflammatory responses (e.g., sepsis or delirium), but it is not one of the classical signs of inflammation.
When a test tube of anticoagulated blood is centrifuged, which component forms the topmost, largest layer by volume?
25 / 109
Category:
Blood – Physiology
Most of the normal human blood is composed of which of the following?
🔹 Composition of Blood:
Blood is a specialized connective tissue composed of:
Plasma (55%) – The fluid matrix that makes up the majority of blood volume .
Formed elements (45%) – These include:
So, plasma makes up the largest portion of total blood volume in a typical healthy individual.
🔹 What is Plasma?
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Clotting factors:
WBCs:
RBCs:
Platelets:
Which complement component is involved in all three activation pathways and plays a central role in opsonization, making it a reliable marker of ongoing immune activity?
26 / 109
Category:
Blood – Pathology
Which of the following complement proteins is used to detect the activity of the immune system?
🔹 Complement Protein C3:
🔹 Clinical Importance:
Hence, C3 is the most widely used marker to monitor complement activity and immune function.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
C2:
C1q:
C5:
C9:
In the final step of heme synthesis, which enzyme is responsible for inserting iron into protoporphyrin, and what happens when this step fails?
27 / 109
Category:
Blood – Biochemistry
Deficiency of which of the following enzymes causes protoporphyria?
🔹 What is Protoporphyria?
Erythropoietic Protoporphyria (EPP) is the most common form of protoporphyria , and it occurs due to a partial deficiency of the enzyme ferrochelatase .
Ferrochelatase catalyzes the final step in heme synthesis : it inserts ferrous iron (Fe²⁺) into protoporphyrin IX to form heme .
🔹 Consequence of Deficiency:
When ferrochelatase is deficient, protoporphyrin IX accumulates , particularly in erythroid cells .
This accumulation causes photosensitivity (burning or stinging pain when exposed to sunlight) due to the phototoxic nature of excess protoporphyrin.
Unlike some other porphyrias, neurologic symptoms are absent in EPP.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Uroporphyrinogen oxidase:
HMB synthase (Hydroxymethylbilane synthase):
ALA synthase:
This is the rate-limiting enzyme of heme synthesis.
Deficiency is associated with X-linked sideroblastic anemia , not protoporphyria.
Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase:
Which intracellular protein safely holds iron in a readily usable form, releasing it when iron is scarce but storing it securely when abundant?
28 / 109
Category:
Blood – Biochemistry
Which protein shows the highest storage reserves of iron?
🔹 Iron Storage Proteins:
Ferritin is the primary iron storage protein in the body.
It is found mostly in the liver, spleen, and bone marrow , and can store up to 4,500 iron atoms within its hollow spherical shell.
Iron stored in ferritin is soluble and readily mobilized when needed, making it the most important and accessible iron reserve .
Why not the others?
Hemoglobin:
Hemosiderin:
Also stores iron, but in an insoluble, aggregated form , typically during iron overload .
Less accessible and less regulated than ferritin.
Transferrin:
Haptoglobin:
Which molecule added to bilirubin in the liver makes it water-soluble and ready for excretion?
29 / 109
Category:
Blood – Biochemistry
Which of the following is attached to unconjugated bilirubin to form conjugated bilirubin?
🔹 Bilirubin Conjugation Process:
Unconjugated bilirubin is lipid-soluble and toxic , and it travels in the blood bound to albumin for transport to the liver.
In hepatocytes, UDP-glucuronosyltransferase (UGT1A1) enzyme attaches glucuronic acid molecules to unconjugated bilirubin.
This process is called conjugation , converting bilirubin into water-soluble conjugated bilirubin .
Conjugated bilirubin can then be excreted into bile and eliminated via the intestines.
Why not the others?
Albumin:
Hemoglobin:
Iron:
Phosphate:
Which syndrome results from a complete absence of the enzyme responsible for conjugating bilirubin , leading to dangerous levels of unconjugated bilirubin?
30 / 109
Category:
Blood – Biochemistry
Complete lack of glucuronidation results in which of the following diseases?
🔹 Glucuronidation and Bilirubin Metabolism:
Glucuronidation is a crucial liver process where bilirubin (a breakdown product of hemoglobin) is conjugated with glucuronic acid by the enzyme UDP-glucuronosyltransferase (UGT1A1) .
This conjugation makes bilirubin water-soluble so it can be excreted in bile.
🔹 Crigler-Najjar Syndrome:
This syndrome is caused by a complete or near-complete deficiency of UGT1A1 , leading to absence of bilirubin glucuronidation .
Results in accumulation of unconjugated bilirubin → severe unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia → kernicterus (bilirubin-induced brain damage) in infants.
It is classified as:
Type I (complete deficiency, very severe)
Type II (partial deficiency, less severe)
Why not the others?
Gilbert syndrome:
Ehlers–Danlos syndrome:
Dubin-Johnson syndrome:
Alport syndrome:
when deficient, leads to accumulation of photosensitive intermediates?
31 / 109
Category:
Blood – Biochemistry
The deficiency of which of the following enzymes causes erythropoietic protoporphyria?
🔹 Erythropoietic Protoporphyria (EPP):
EPP is caused by a deficiency of ferrochelatase , the last enzyme in the heme biosynthesis pathway.
Ferrochelatase catalyzes the insertion of ferrous iron (Fe²⁺) into protoporphyrin IX to form heme .
Deficiency leads to accumulation of protoporphyrin IX , which is photosensitive, causing cutaneous photosensitivity and related symptoms.
The disorder primarily affects erythroid cells in the bone marrow (hence erythropoietic).
Why not the others?
Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase:
HMB synthase (Hydroxymethylbilane synthase):
ALA synthase:
Uroporphyrinogen oxidase:
Think about which organ contributes to blood cell production regulation especially during fetal development before the kidneys are fully functional.
32 / 109
Category:
Blood – Physiology
Erythropoietin is produced in kidneys and other cells. What is the second major source of its production?
🔹 Erythropoietin (EPO) Production:
The primary source of erythropoietin is the peritubular interstitial cells of the renal cortex in the kidneys .
The second major source of EPO, especially during fetal life and to a lesser extent in adults, is the liver .
The liver produces EPO during fetal development , playing a critical role before the kidneys mature.
Why not the others?
Bones:
Stomach:
Adrenal cortex:
Adrenal medulla:
Which plasma protein specifically binds iron ions to transport them safely and deliver them where needed, while preventing free iron from causing damage?
33 / 109
Category:
Blood – Biochemistry
What of the following is the iron transporter protein in the plasma?
🔹 Iron Transport in Plasma:
Transferrin is a glycoprotein that binds iron (Fe³⁺) in the plasma and transports it to various tissues, especially the bone marrow for red blood cell production and the liver for storage.
Transferrin binds iron tightly but reversibly, ensuring iron is safely transported without catalyzing harmful free radical reactions.
Why not the others?
Apotransferrin
The iron-free form of transferrin ; it can bind iron but does not transport iron unless loaded.
So, while apotransferrin is the protein before iron binds, transferrin (iron-bound) is the active transporter .
Apoferritin
Hemosiderin
An insoluble iron-storage complex formed from degraded ferritin, stored in tissues during iron overload.
Not a plasma transporter.
Ferritin
Which factor is exposed at the site of vascular injury and serves as a key signal to trigger coagulation from outside the blood vessel?
34 / 109
Category:
Blood – Physiology
Which of the following factors initiates the extrinsic pathway of clotting?
🔹 Extrinsic Pathway of Coagulation:
The extrinsic pathway is initiated when blood vessels are damaged , exposing tissue factor (TF), also called Factor III , from subendothelial cells.
Tissue factor binds to Factor VII (which circulates in inactive form) to form the TF–Factor VIIa complex .
This complex then activates Factor X to Factor Xa, which feeds into the common pathway leading to thrombin generation and fibrin clot formation.
Why not the other factors?
Factor XII (Hageman factor):
Factor X:
Factor VII:
Factor VIII:
Think about which hypersensitivity type involves immune complex formation and deposition , leading to inflammation in tissues distant from the initial infection.
35 / 109
Category:
Blood – Pathology
Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is an example of which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
🔹 Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN):
PSGN is a classic example of a Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction , which is immune complex–mediated .
After a streptococcal infection (often throat or skin), immune complexes form between streptococcal antigens and antibodies .
These immune complexes deposit in the glomerular basement membrane of the kidneys.
The deposition leads to activation of the complement system , recruitment of inflammatory cells, and resultant glomerular inflammation and damage .
Key features:
Why not the others?
Type 2 hypersensitivity
Antibody-mediated cytotoxicity targeting specific cells (e.g., hemolytic anemia).
PSGN is not caused by direct antibody binding to cell surface antigens.
Type 1 hypersensitivity
Type 4 hypersensitivity
Delayed-type, T-cell mediated immunity (e.g., contact dermatitis).
PSGN is immune complex–mediated, not T-cell mediated.
Type 2 and 3 hypersensitivity
Which immune cells can recognize and destroy abnormal cells without needing antigen presentation or prior activation ?
36 / 109
Category:
Blood – Pathology
Which lymphocyte can destroy cancer cells without having to go through sensitization and hence is able to kill cancer cells in the first line of defense?
🔹 Natural Killer (NK) Cells:
NK cells are lymphocytes of the innate immune system .
They do not require prior sensitization or antigen presentation to recognize and kill abnormal cells.
NK cells detect cells with downregulated MHC class I molecules , a common feature of cancerous or virally infected cells.
Once activated, NK cells release cytotoxic granules (perforin and granzymes) to induce apoptosis in target cells.
This makes NK cells a first line of defense against tumor cells and infected cells.
Why not the others?
CD8+ T cells:
B lymphocytes:
CD4+ T cells:
Plasma cells:
Consider which pharyngeal pouch forms structures related to the immune system located at the sides of the oropharynx.
37 / 109
Category:
Blood – Embryology
Palatine tonsil is derived from which of the following?
🔹 Embryological Origin of the Palatine Tonsil:
The palatine tonsil develops from the endoderm of the 2nd pharyngeal pouch .
During development, the 2nd pouch epithelium proliferates and then invaginates , forming the tonsillar fossa and the crypts of the palatine tonsil.
The surrounding mesodermal tissue contributes lymphoid cells , which populate the tonsillar tissue, giving it its immunological function.
Why not the others?
1st pharyngeal pouch:
3rd pharyngeal pouch:
2nd pharyngeal arch:
3rd pharyngeal arch:
Which vitamin’s active forms are crucial cofactors in amino acid metabolism ?
38 / 109
Category:
Blood – Biochemistry
Pyridoxamine, pyridoxine, and pyridoxal are forms of which vitamin?
🔹 Vitamin B6
Vitamin B6 exists in three main forms (all vitamers):
Pyridoxine
Pyridoxamine
Pyridoxal
These are converted in the body to the active coenzyme pyridoxal phosphate (PLP) , which plays a critical role in amino acid metabolism, neurotransmitter synthesis, and many enzymatic reactions.
Why not the others?
Vitamin B3 (Niacin)
Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin)
Vitamin B7 (Biotin)
Vitamin B9 (Folate)
Which component rapidly creates a physical barrier at the injury site within seconds, before the clotting cascade completes?
39 / 109
Category:
Blood – Physiology
Which of the following prevents blood loss in a girl who got a cut on her finger?
🩸 Stages of Hemostasis
When a blood vessel is injured, the body initiates a multi-step process to stop bleeding:
Vasoconstriction:
Primary Hemostasis – Platelet Plug Formation:
Platelets adhere to exposed collagen at the injury site, become activated, and release granules.
Activated platelets aggregate to form a soft platelet plug — a temporary barrier preventing further blood loss.
This is the first line of defense against bleeding.
Secondary Hemostasis – Fibrin Formation (Coagulation):
Activation of clotting cascade leads to fibrin mesh formation .
Fibrin stabilizes the platelet plug, creating a firm clot .
Hemoconcentration:
Why the platelet plug is key in the scenario:
A small cut in a finger typically triggers vasoconstriction and platelet plug formation immediately.
The platelet plug is the primary, rapid response that initially prevents blood loss.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Secondary plug
Refers to the stabilized clot formed by fibrin after the platelet plug.
Secondary plug forms after the initial platelet plug.
Not the immediate factor preventing blood loss.
Vasoconstriction
Hemoconcentration
Fibrin formation
Which measure tells you the “snapshot” burden of disease in a population, rather than the flow of new cases over time?
40 / 109
Category:
Blood – Community Medicine / Behavioral Sciences
What is the most important value measured from a cross-sectional study?
🔹 Cross-Sectional Study:
🔹 What does it measure best?
Prevalence : the proportion of individuals who have a disease or condition at a given point in time (point prevalence) or over a short period (period prevalence).
It tells you how widespread the disease is, not how often new cases occur.
Why not the others?
Risk (Incidence proportion)
Odds Ratio
Incidence
Measures new cases developing over time .
Requires a longitudinal or cohort design .
❌ Not measurable from a cross-sectional study.
None of these
Consider which antibodies are best suited to directly attack and mark cells for destruction , including activation of complement and engagement with phagocytes.
41 / 109
Category:
Blood – Pathology
Which antibodies are released during type 2 hypersensitivity reactions?
🔹 Type 2 Hypersensitivity (Cytotoxic Hypersensitivity):
Type 2 hypersensitivity reactions involve antibody-mediated destruction of target cells .
The antibodies involved bind to antigens on the surface of cells or extracellular matrix , leading to cell damage or dysfunction.
The primary antibodies responsible here are IgG and IgM .
How IgG and IgM mediate type 2 hypersensitivity:
IgM (pentameric) is very efficient at activating the classical complement pathway , causing cell lysis.
IgG opsonizes cells for phagocytosis by macrophages and also activates complement.
Examples include:
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
IgG + IgD
IgD + IgE
IgM + IgA
IgA mainly protects mucosal surfaces.
IgA is not involved in cytotoxic hypersensitivity.
❌ IgA is not a mediator here.
IgA + IgE
Which structure in the spleen is primarily tasked with physically filtering blood, trapping and clearing old red cells, rather than mounting an immune response?
42 / 109
Category:
Blood – Histology
The red pulp of the spleen contains which one of the following?
🔹 Red Pulp of the Spleen:
The spleen is divided into two main components:
White pulp: lymphoid tissue mainly involved in immune response.
Red pulp: involved in filtering blood, removing old/damaged red blood cells, and storing blood elements.
The red pulp contains:
Cords of Billroth (also called splenic cords): These are reticular connective tissue strands filled with macrophages, red blood cells, lymphocytes, plasma cells, and granulocytes.
Sinusoids: Specialized vascular channels lined by endothelial cells through which blood flows slowly, allowing phagocytosis of damaged cells.
🔹 Structure-Function:
Cords of Billroth trap old or damaged erythrocytes, which macrophages then phagocytose.
This process helps maintain healthy blood by clearing senescent cells.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Lymphocytes
Found predominantly in the white pulp , particularly in the follicles and PALS.
❌ Not the main component of red pulp.
Central arteriole
These arteries run through the white pulp , surrounded by PALS.
❌ Located in white pulp, not red pulp.
None of these
PALS (Periarteriolar lymphoid sheaths)
T-cell rich zones in the white pulp surrounding central arterioles.
❌ Part of white pulp, not red pulp.
Consider the globin chains that dominate after birth and throughout adult life , responsible for efficient oxygen delivery in tissues.
43 / 109
Category:
Blood – Biochemistry
Which chains are involved in the formation of hemoglobin A?
🧬 Hemoglobin A (HbA)
Hemoglobin A (HbA) is the major adult hemoglobin , making up about 95-98% of hemoglobin in healthy adults.
It is composed of 4 globin chains total :
2 alpha (α) chains
2 beta (β) chains
This α₂β₂ tetramer structure enables efficient oxygen transport in adult life.
🔹 Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
2 alpha, 2 zeta
Zeta (ζ) chains are embryonic α-like globin chains, present only early in development.
Not part of adult hemoglobin.
❌ Embryonic stage only.
2 alpha, 2 delta
These chains compose Hemoglobin A2 (HbA₂) , a minor adult hemoglobin (2–3%).
Important diagnostically but not the major adult form.
❌ Minor adult hemoglobin.
2 alpha, 2 epsilon
2 alpha, 2 gamma
Composes Fetal Hemoglobin (HbF) , predominant before birth.
Has a higher affinity for oxygen, facilitating oxygen transfer from mother to fetus.
❌ Fetal, not adult hemoglobin.
When platelets degranulate, what do they release that amplifies their own activation , promotes vasoconstriction , and calls in reinforcements to help form a clot ?
44 / 109
Category:
Blood – Physiology
What is secreted as a result of degranulation of platelets?
🩸 Platelet Degranulation and Thromboxane A2
When platelets are activated (e.g., by vascular injury), they undergo degranulation , releasing various substances that promote:
One of the most important products released/formed as a result of platelet activation and degranulation is Thromboxane A₂ (TXA₂) .
🔹 Thromboxane A2:
Synthesized from arachidonic acid via the COX pathway .
Acts as a potent vasoconstrictor .
Promotes platelet aggregation , enhancing the clotting cascade.
Think of TXA₂ as the platelet’s “call-to-arms” signal: it tells nearby platelets to stick together and help plug the breach in a blood vessel.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
1. Prostaglandins
Some prostaglandins (like PGI₂ ) are actually produced by endothelial cells , not platelets.
PGI₂ inhibits platelet aggregation and causes vasodilation — the opposite of thromboxane A2.
❌ Not secreted from platelets during degranulation.
2. NO (Nitric Oxide)
Synthesized by endothelial cells , not platelets.
Causes vasodilation and inhibits platelet aggregation.
❌ Again, acts in opposition to platelet activation.
3. Lipoxins
Anti-inflammatory mediators formed via the lipoxygenase pathway .
Promote resolution of inflammation.
❌ Not involved in platelet aggregation or secreted from platelets.
4. NO Synthase
This is an enzyme that synthesizes nitric oxide in endothelial cells.
Platelets do not secrete enzymes like NO synthase during degranulation.
❌ Not a secretory product of platelets.
Think about the number of “seats” a hemoglobin molecule has — one for each of its iron-containing components. Each seat holds only one passenger, but together they make hemoglobin a fully loaded transporter when saturated.
45 / 109
Category:
Blood – Physiology
How many oxygen molecules bind to a single hemoglobin molecule?
🩸 Hemoglobin Structure and Oxygen Binding
Hemoglobin is a tetrameric protein found in red blood cells. It is made up of:
4 globin chains : 2 alpha (α) and 2 beta (β) subunits in adults (HbA).
Each globin chain is associated with one heme group .
Each heme group contains an iron (Fe²⁺) ion , which can bind one molecule of oxygen (O₂) .
🔗 So the math is simple and crucial:
This allows hemoglobin to carry 4 oxygen molecules at maximum saturation , which is essential for efficient oxygen delivery to tissues.
🌀 Cooperative Binding:
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
1. 8
2. 3
While it’s possible that a hemoglobin molecule may carry only 3 O₂s at a given moment (i.e., 75% saturation), the maximum capacity is 4 .
❌ Not the correct total binding capacity.
3. 16
4. 2
Which protein is so essential to the vascular system that a drop in its levels causes fluid to leak out of capillaries, and is also tasked with shuttling many molecules through the bloodstream?
46 / 109
Category:
Blood – Biochemistry
Which protein plays a major role in maintaining oncotic pressure and transportation of lipids and steroids?
🧪 Albumin – The Key Multifunctional Plasma Protein
Albumin is the most abundant plasma protein , produced by the liver . It plays several essential physiological roles, most notably:
🔹 1. Maintaining Oncotic Pressure
Oncotic (colloid osmotic) pressure is the pulling pressure that keeps fluid within the blood vessels , opposing hydrostatic pressure.
Albumin contributes to ~75% of the oncotic pressure of plasma.
Loss of albumin (e.g., in nephrotic syndrome, liver failure) → edema due to fluid shifting into interstitial spaces.
🔹 2. Transport Functions
Albumin acts as a carrier protein for:
Free fatty acids
Steroid hormones
Bilirubin
Drugs (e.g., warfarin, phenytoin)
Calcium (binds ~40–50% of serum calcium)
This makes albumin vital for the distribution and bioavailability of many substances in the bloodstream.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
1. C-reactive protein (CRP)
Acute phase reactant made by the liver.
Increases in inflammation , infection, and tissue damage.
Used as a biomarker , not involved in maintaining oncotic pressure or transporting lipids/steroids.
❌ Not a transport or pressure-maintaining protein.
2. Fibrinogen
Also made in the liver.
Essential for blood clotting — converted into fibrin by thrombin.
Contributes minimally to oncotic pressure.
❌ Primarily a coagulation factor, not a transporter.
3. Haptoglobin
Binds free hemoglobin released from erythrocytes.
Helps prevent renal damage and iron loss .
Important in hemolysis , not fluid balance or lipid transport.
❌ Highly specific function, not general transport.
4. Globulin
Broad class of proteins (α, β, γ-globulins).
Involved in immunity (antibodies), transport of metal ions and hormones.
Contribute to oncotic pressure, but less than albumin .
❌ Less abundant than albumin and not the primary protein for oncotic pressure.
Consider which hemoglobin variant is naturally dominant in fetal life and does not require β-globin chains , thus buffering the effects of a β-chain synthesis disorder until it fades after birth.
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Category:
Blood – Pathology
Which type of hemoglobin prevents symptoms of thalassemia from appearing in neonatal life?
🧬 Thalassemia in Neonates: Why Symptoms Are Delayed
Thalassemia refers to inherited disorders where there’s reduced or absent synthesis of either α or β globin chains of hemoglobin. The type and severity depend on which chain is affected:
🔹 In Neonates:
At birth, the dominant hemoglobin is HbF (α₂γ₂) .
HbF contains no β chains , so β-thalassemia symptoms do not appear immediately .
It takes 6 months for HbF levels to fall and HbA (α₂β₂) to become the predominant hemoglobin.
This is why infants with β-thalassemia major appear healthy at birth , and symptoms like anemia, failure to thrive, and splenomegaly develop only after 4–6 months of age.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
1. HbA (Adult Hemoglobin, α₂β₂)
Not present in significant amounts at birth (only ~20–25%).
In β-thalassemia, HbA production is impaired.
❌ It doesn’t prevent symptoms; rather, its absence triggers them.
2. HbA₂ (α₂δ₂)
Minor adult hemoglobin.
Becomes measurable around 6 months of age .
Helps in diagnosing β-thalassemia trait , where its level is elevated .
❌ Too low in neonates to prevent symptoms.
3. HbS (Sickle Hemoglobin)
Abnormal hemoglobin found in sickle cell disease .
Unrelated to thalassemia prevention .
❌ Causes pathology, doesn’t prevent it.
4. HbC
Variant hemoglobin associated with mild hemolytic anemia when homozygous.
Often studied in HbSC disease .
❌ Not involved in fetal life or thalassemia symptom delay.
Which condition results when the body’s storage system is overwhelmed by a nutrient it has no efficient way of getting rid of — especially when that nutrient is introduced repeatedly and directly into the bloodstream?
48 / 109
Category:
Blood – Pathology
Which of the following may result from frequent blood transfusions?
🩸 Why Hemochromatosis Is Correct:
Hemochromatosis is a condition characterized by excess iron accumulation in the body. It can be:
Each unit of transfused blood contains about 250 mg of iron , and the body has no natural way to excrete excess iron . Therefore, chronic transfusions , such as in patients with:
Thalassemia major
Sickle cell anemia
Aplastic anemia
…can lead to secondary hemochromatosis , also called transfusional iron overload .
🌍 Where the Iron Accumulates:
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
1. Wilson disease
Disorder of copper metabolism , not iron.
Involves mutations in the ATP7B gene .
Affects liver and central nervous system .
❌ Unrelated to blood transfusions.
2. Anemia of chronic disease
Associated with chronic inflammation, infections, or malignancy .
Involves impaired iron utilization due to high hepcidin levels.
❌ Not caused by blood transfusions — in fact, transfusions may treat this anemia.
3. Iron deficiency anemia
Results from chronic blood loss , poor intake, or malabsorption.
Characterized by low iron stores .
❌ Opposite of what happens in repeated transfusions (which increase iron levels).
4. None of these
Which antibody is the immune system’s long-term strategist — small enough to move easily, versatile enough to do many jobs, and persistent enough to stay in the fight for years?
49 / 109
Category:
Blood – Histology
Which antibody isotype is the most abundant in serum?
🧬 Immunoglobulin G (IgG)
IgG is the most abundant antibody isotype in serum , comprising ~75–80% of the total serum immunoglobulins .
It plays a key role in long-term immunity and immunologic memory .
🔑 Key Functions of IgG:
Crosses the placenta — provides passive immunity to the fetus.
Neutralizes toxins and viruses .
Opsonization — enhances phagocytosis by marking pathogens.
Activates the classical complement pathway .
Present in extracellular fluids , lymph, and blood.
Its monomeric structure allows it to easily diffuse into tissues , making it ideal for systemic defense.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
1. IgA
Most abundant overall in the body (including mucosal secretions), but not in serum .
In serum, it makes up only ~10–15%.
Predominant in mucosal secretions (e.g., saliva, tears, milk).
❌ Not the most abundant in serum.
2. IgD
3. IgE
Involved in allergic reactions and parasite defense .
Binds tightly to mast cells and basophils.
Found in very low concentrations in serum .
❌ Least abundant in serum.
4. IgM
First antibody produced in a primary immune response.
Exists as a pentamer in serum.
Makes up about 5–10% of serum immunoglobulins.
❌ Not the most abundant.
Which antibody must act quickly and aggressively at the beginning of an infection, using strength in numbers rather than finesse? Think about the benefit of having multiple antigen-binding sites packed into a single molecule.
50 / 109
Category:
Blood – Histology
Which antibody has a pentameric structure?
🧬 Immunoglobulin M (IgM)
IgM is the first antibody produced in a primary immune response .
In its secreted form , IgM exists as a pentamer :
🔑 Key Features of IgM:
Pentameric structure = 10 antigen-binding sites
Very efficient at agglutination and complement activation .
Found predominantly in the intravascular compartment (blood and lymph), as it’s too large to diffuse easily into tissues.
Because of its multivalency, it’s very effective at neutralizing pathogens early in infection.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
1. IgE
2. IgD
Found mainly on naïve B cells as an antigen receptor.
Plays a role in B cell activation .
Monomeric , very low concentration in serum.
❌ Not pentameric.
3. IgG
The most abundant antibody in serum .
Can cross the placenta , activates complement, opsonizes pathogens.
Monomeric structure.
❌ Not pentameric.
4. IgA
Which antibody needs structural protection from digestive enzymes while defending surfaces exposed to the external environment? Consider what kind of structural arrangement would help it function in places like saliva or intestinal mucus.
51 / 109
Category:
Blood – Histology
Which antibody is dimeric with a J chain?
✳️ Immunoglobulin A (IgA)
IgA plays a crucial role in mucosal immunity . It exists in two forms , depending on where it is found in the body:
Serum IgA – Monomeric (like IgG).
Secretory IgA (sIgA) – Dimeric , held together by a J (joining) chain and protected by a secretory component .
🔗 What Is the J Chain ?
The J chain is a polypeptide that links two monomeric IgA units into a dimer .
It also facilitates the transport of IgA across epithelial cells via the poly-Ig receptor , leading to secretion into mucosal fluids like:
Saliva
Tears
Mucus
Colostrum
This dimeric structure, along with the secretory component , protects IgA from enzymatic digestion , making it ideal for function in hostile environments like the gut or respiratory tract.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
1. IgD
2. IgM
🟡 Trick option — IgM does have a J chain , but it forms a pentamer , not a dimer.
The J chain helps assemble its five monomer units.
So, while IgM has a J chain, it is not dimeric — it is pentameric .
❌ Not the correct answer based on the dimeric + J chain description.
3. IgE
Involved in allergies and parasitic responses.
Monomeric , no J chain.
Binds to Fc receptors on mast cells and basophils.
🛑 No role in mucosal secretions or dimer formation.
4. IgG
Main antibody in blood and extracellular fluid.
Monomeric , crosses the placenta.
❌ No J chain, no dimerization.
This falls under Histology , as it involves the cellular and molecular interactions in tissues — especially the placenta — and the movement of antibodies across membranes.
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Category:
Blood – Histology
Which antibody crosses the placenta during erythroblastosis fetalis?
🩸 What is Erythroblastosis Fetalis ?
Also known as Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn (HDN) , this condition arises when:
An Rh-negative mother is exposed to Rh-positive fetal red blood cells , usually during delivery of her first Rh-positive baby.
Her immune system then creates anti-Rh antibodies (specifically IgG antibodies) against the Rh antigen.
In subsequent pregnancies, if the fetus is again Rh-positive , the maternal IgG antibodies can cross the placenta and attack fetal red blood cells , leading to hemolysis and increased erythroblasts in fetal circulation — hence the name “erythroblastosis fetalis.”
🌉 Why IgG Is the Correct Answer:
IgG is the ONLY class of antibody that can cross the placenta .
This is due to the neonatal Fc receptor (FcRn) expressed on placental cells, which specifically transports IgG from maternal to fetal circulation.
This transfer is protective in most cases , giving passive immunity to the fetus.
However, in conditions like HDN, it can lead to pathology due to the mother’s immune response against fetal antigens.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
1. IgM
Largest antibody (pentamer) → too large to cross the placenta.
First antibody produced in an immune response.
Important in blood group reactions , but does not participate in HDN because it cannot cross the placental barrier .
2. IgE
Involved in allergic reactions and defense against parasites .
Binds to mast cells and basophils , does not cross the placenta .
3. IgA
Found mainly in secretions (tears, saliva, mucosa, breast milk).
Exists in dimeric form with a secretory component .
Does not cross the placenta.
4. IgD
Functions mainly as a B-cell receptor .
Very low levels in serum.
No significant role in fetal immunity.
Does not cross the placenta .
🧠 Hint to Think Critically:
Consider which immunoglobulin is selectively transported to the fetus, providing both protection and, in rare cases, pathology. What feature allows only one class of antibody to reach fetal circulation while others cannot?
Consider which antibody must endure exposure to enzymes and variable pH environments, yet persist to protect surfaces constantly exposed to external microbes. What structural adaptation allows it to remain functional in such secretions?
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Category:
Blood – Histology
Which antibody is found in the respiratory and digestive lining, as well as the saliva, tears, and breast milk?
✳️ Immunoglobulin A (IgA):
IgA is the principal antibody found in mucosal secretions — making it essential for mucosal immunity .
It’s most abundant in areas where the body interfaces with the external environment:
🧬 Key Features of IgA:
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
1. IgM
First antibody produced in a primary immune response.
Predominantly found in the blood and lymph .
It’s pentameric , effective in complement activation and agglutination.
🛑 Not typically found in mucosal surfaces or secretions.
2. IgD
Found in very low concentrations in serum .
Mainly acts as a receptor on naïve B cells .
🛑 Has no major role in mucosal immunity or secretions.
3. IgE
Involved in allergic reactions and defense against parasites .
Binds to mast cells and basophils , triggering histamine release.
Found in tissues but not in secretions like tears or saliva.
🛑 Not related to mucosal or secretory defense.
4. IgG
Most abundant antibody in blood and extracellular fluid .
Can cross the placenta , providing passive immunity to the fetus.
Important in long-term immunity and opsonization .
🛑 Not typically found in external secretions like tears or milk.
When comparing this tissue to others of its category, ask yourself: what makes it different in consistency and structure, despite sharing embryological origin? Consider what allows it to flow and perform transport functions, unlike solid connective tissues.
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Category:
Blood – Histology
Blood is a special type of connective tissue. Which of the following is correct regarding it?
Blood as a Connective Tissue:
Blood is indeed a specialized connective tissue , even though it differs from most other connective tissues in some key ways. Let’s understand how it fits the criteria of connective tissue:
Origin : Blood is mesodermal in origin, like all connective tissues.
Components : All connective tissues consist of:
Cells
Fibers
Ground substance
These components together form the extracellular matrix (ECM) . Now, let’s analyze each of these components specifically in blood.
🔬 1. Ground Substance in Blood:
In typical connective tissue, the ground substance is a gel-like material (like in cartilage or bone).
In blood, the ground substance is plasma – which is fluid in nature.
Plasma is rich in water, electrolytes, proteins (like albumin, globulins, fibrinogen), and other solutes.
This is what makes blood’s ECM fluid , distinguishing it from other connective tissues.
✅ Hence, the statement “Its ground substance is of a fluid nature” is correct .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
1. “It contains fibers only”
🔻 Incorrect because:
Blood doesn’t contain visible fibers under normal conditions.
Fibrin fibers (from fibrinogen) appear only during clotting , not normally.
Also, this option ignores cells (e.g., RBCs, WBCs, platelets), which are abundantly present.
2. “It contains both cells and fibers”
🔻 Also incorrect, though it sounds appealing:
Blood contains cells , yes (erythrocytes, leukocytes, thrombocytes).
However, fibers are not normally present unless the blood clots.
So, under normal (non-clotted) conditions, no actual fibers are present—only soluble proteins like fibrinogen.
3. “It has a greater proportion of cells as compared to fibers”
🔻 Misleading:
Again, fibers aren’t present in normal blood.
So, while the idea of “more cells than fibers” might seem true, it’s conceptually wrong because we don’t compare cells to fibers that aren’t normally there.
4. “None of these”
🔻 Incorrect because one of the options is indeed correct — the one about the fluid ground substance.
Sometimes the problem isn’t in making a substance or modifying it — it’s in getting it where it needs to go. Consider which condition involves a failure not in creation or modification, but in the final step of cellular disposal.
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Category:
Blood – Pathology
Congenital deficiency of a specific protein leads to the inability to transport conjugated bilirubin out of the liver and into the bile. This statement is most relevant for which of the following diseases?
Dubin-Johnson syndrome is an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by a defect in the transport of conjugated bilirubin from hepatocytes into the bile canaliculi. This defect is due to mutations in the MRP2 (multidrug resistance protein 2) gene, which encodes a canalicular membrane transporter. As a result, conjugated bilirubin accumulates in the liver and spills into the blood , leading to conjugated hyperbilirubinemia .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Crigler-Najjar syndrome: This condition involves a complete (Type I) or partial (Type II) deficiency of UGT1A1 , the enzyme required for conjugating bilirubin . The problem here is before conjugation , not with transport.
Gilbert syndrome: A milder reduction in UGT1A1 activity , leading to mild unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia , especially during fasting or stress. Again, the issue lies in bilirubin conjugation , not excretion.
Physiologic jaundice of the newborn: This is due to immature hepatic conjugation mechanisms in neonates, causing unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia . It is a developmental delay , not a defect in transport.
Obstructive jaundice: Caused by a mechanical obstruction (like gallstones or tumors) that blocks bile flow after it has been secreted, which is different from a congenital transporter deficiency .
Consider how red blood cells adapt to hypoxic conditions to enhance oxygen delivery to tissues.
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Category:
Blood – Physiology
Which of the following is correct regarding the factors affecting the affinity of hemoglobin for O2?
2,3-Bisphosphoglycerate (2,3-BPG) is a metabolite produced by red blood cells during glycolysis. It binds to deoxygenated hemoglobin, stabilizing it and thereby reducing its affinity for oxygen .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Increases with decrease in pH: A decrease in pH (acidosis) lowers hemoglobin’s affinity for oxygen, not increases it. This is part of the Bohr effect , which shifts the curve right, promoting oxygen release.
Increases with increase in CO₂: Higher CO₂ levels lead to lower pH , both of which decrease O₂ affinity (again via the Bohr effect), not increase it.
Increases with increase in temperature: Higher temperature (e.g., during fever or exercise) decreases hemoglobin’s affinity for oxygen, promoting release to tissues. So affinity decreases , not increases.
Decreases with increase in pH: Higher pH (alkalosis) increases hemoglobin’s affinity for oxygen, causing a leftward shift in the curve.
Think about how active tissues signal their increased metabolic demand and how the environment they create affects oxygen delivery by hemoglobin.
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Category:
Blood – Physiology
In the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve, a decrease in pH will lead to which of the following?
A decrease in pH (i.e., an increase in H⁺ concentration or acidosis) causes a rightward shift of the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve. This physiological phenomenon is known as the Bohr effect .
In a more acidic environment, hemoglobin’s affinity for oxygen decreases , promoting oxygen release to the tissues. This is beneficial during situations like exercise or hypoxia , where active tissues produce more CO₂ and lactic acid, lowering the pH and signaling the need for increased oxygen delivery.
A rightward shift means that at any given partial pressure of oxygen (pO₂), hemoglobin is less saturated —in other words, it releases oxygen more readily .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Increased affinity of hemoglobin to CO₂: This is not directly tied to pH. While CO₂ can bind to hemoglobin (forming carbaminohemoglobin), the question specifically asks about the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve, which reflects O₂ binding—not CO₂.
No change: A decrease in pH clearly causes a shift, not neutrality. The Bohr effect is a central concept in oxygen delivery.
Decreased affinity of hemoglobin to CO₂: Again, the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve is about oxygen affinity, not CO₂. CO₂ transport and hemoglobin’s CO₂ affinity follow separate dynamics.
Curve shift to the left: A leftward shift occurs with increased pH , low CO₂ , low temperature , or presence of fetal hemoglobin (HbF) —conditions that increase hemoglobin’s affinity for O₂ . So this is the opposite of what happens with a pH decrease.
Consider what happens to red blood cells that lose membrane flexibility but retain normal internal content—What kind of stress would reveal that abnormality?
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Category:
Blood – Physiology
Which of the following is correct regarding hereditary spherocytosis?
Hereditary spherocytosis is a genetic disorder resulting from defects in red blood cell membrane proteins like spectrin or ankyrin . These defects cause red blood cells to lose their normal biconcave shape and become spherocytes —round, less deformable cells.
These spherical cells have a reduced surface area-to-volume ratio and cannot tolerate osmotic stress well . When placed in hypotonic solutions, they are more prone to rupture, leading to the key diagnostic feature of increased osmotic fragility .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Spherocytes with increased central pallor: Spherocytes characteristically lack central pallor because of their spherical shape.
Low MCHC: Hereditary spherocytosis typically shows elevated MCHC , not decreased.
High MCV: .MCV is usually normal or low due to the smaller volume of spherocytes.
None of these: Increased osmotic fragility is a well-established diagnostic feature of hereditary spherocytosis.
To understand shifts in fluid between compartments, think about the primary solute responsible for holding water within the vascular system and what happens when its levels drop.
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Category:
Blood – Physiology
Which of the following leads to a decrease in plasma oncotic pressure?
Plasma oncotic pressure (also called colloid osmotic pressure) is primarily maintained by plasma proteins , especially albumin , which cannot easily pass through capillary walls. This pressure is critical in drawing water into the capillaries from the interstitial space and thus maintaining proper fluid balance between compartments.
A decrease in plasma albumin—as seen in liver disease, nephrotic syndrome, or severe malnutrition—reduces the oncotic pressure.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Inflammation: Inflammation increases capillary permeability , allowing proteins to escape into the interstitial space, which can cause edema but not primarily by reducing plasma oncotic pressure.
Lymphatic obstruction: This causes impaired drainage of interstitial fluid, leading to lymphedema , but it doesn’t significantly alter plasma oncotic pressure.
Hyperproteinemia: This would actually increase oncotic pressure , as more plasma proteins attract water into the vasculature.
None of these: Incorrect because plasma albumin decrement clearly leads to reduced oncotic pressure.
Consider the cascade of clotting factors and think about which one is central to the intrinsic pathway and was historically identified as “Christmas factor.”
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Category:
Blood – Pathology
Which of the following factors is deficient in hemophilia B?
Hemophilia B is a genetic bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency of Factor IX , which plays a crucial role in the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Without sufficient Factor IX, the activation of Factor X is impaired, which in turn reduces thrombin generation and fibrin clot formation. This leads to prolonged bleeding after injuries, spontaneous joint bleeds, and easy bruising.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Factor X: This is a common pathway factor activated by both the intrinsic and extrinsic systems. Its deficiency causes bleeding, but it is not specifically associated with hemophilia B.
Factor VIII: Deficiency of Factor VIII causes Hemophilia A , not B. It is also part of the intrinsic pathway but is a different clinical entity.
Factor VII: A deficiency here affects the extrinsic pathway and is not related to hemophilia B. It’s often evaluated via prolonged prothrombin time (PT).
Tissue factor (Factor III): This initiates the extrinsic pathway by forming a complex with Factor VII. It is not part of the intrinsic pathway and is not deficient in hemophilia B.
Consider which lymphoid structure is situated in a region where it interfaces directly with the outside environment—requiring a robust lining to withstand friction, pathogens, and mechanical wear.
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Category:
Blood – Histology
Which of the following lymphoid organs has stratified squamous epithelial lining?
The palatine tonsil is part of the mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) and is located in the oropharynx. Because it is exposed to the oral cavity, it is lined by non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium, which provides protection against mechanical stress and potential microbial invasion . This makes it distinct among lymphoid organs in terms of its epithelial covering.
This epithelial layer also dips down into the tonsil to form crypts , which trap antigens and help initiate immune responses.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Thymus: Though it contains epithelial reticular cells , it is not lined by stratified squamous epithelium. It is enclosed by a thin connective tissue capsule , not a surface epithelium.
Lymph nodes: These are entirely enclosed in connective tissue capsules and do not have an epithelial lining at all, since they are deep structures not exposed to external surfaces.
Spleen: Like lymph nodes, the spleen has a fibrous capsule , not an epithelial lining. It functions in filtering blood and mounting immune responses but is not exposed to external environments.
None of these: Incorrect because the palatine tonsil clearly fits the description.
When considering the sudden appearance of many disease cases, ask yourself: is the spread unusually high compared to the normal baseline within a defined area, and are there multiple clusters within that broader region—yet still not on a global scale?
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Category:
Blood – Pathology
What is the sudden occurrence of cases in a relatively larger geographical area with more than one focal point known as?
An epidemic refers to the sudden increase in the number of cases of a disease above what is normally expected in a specific population or larger geographical area, often involving more than one focal point . It implies a significant deviation from the norm, with disease clusters spreading simultaneously in various parts of the region .
A classic example is an outbreak of cholera in multiple districts of a country, where each district may have its own origin of spread, but all collectively represent a regional health emergency —an epidemic.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Sporadic: Describes disease cases that occur irregularly and infrequently without a predictable pattern or clustering. It does not involve sudden or widespread occurrence.
Outbreak: Typically refers to a localized epidemic —a smaller-scale event, such as in a single community, school, or institution. An outbreak may become an epidemic if it spreads significantly.
Endemic: Refers to the constant, usual presence of a disease within a geographic area or population. The number of cases remains relatively stable and predictable over time (e.g., malaria in some African regions).
Pandemic: Denotes an epidemic that has spread across multiple countries or continents , usually affecting a large number of people globally. It surpasses the geographic boundaries of an epidemic.
Consider the direction of blood flow from the veins and which organ is the first major filter it reaches. What structure receives systemic venous return before distributing it to the rest of the body?
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Category:
Blood – Pathology
A venous embolism is likely to cause an infarct in which of the following organs?
A venous embolism typically originates in the systemic venous system—commonly from deep veins in the legs (deep vein thrombosis, or DVT). These emboli travel through the inferior vena cava into the right atrium , pass through the right ventricle , and are then pumped into the pulmonary arteries .
As a result, the lungs are the first capillary bed that these emboli encounter. Thus, they are the most common site for embolic infarction in cases of venous thromboembolism. This is known as a pulmonary embolism (PE) and can lead to areas of pulmonary infarction , especially if there is a dual compromise of the pulmonary and bronchial circulations.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Kidney: Emboli that reach the kidneys typically originate from the arterial system , such as from cardiac mural thrombi or atherosclerotic plaques. Venous emboli do not reach the kidneys unless there is a right-to-left shunt , which is rare.
Testis: Like the kidney, the testis receives arterial blood from the testicular artery. Venous emboli do not travel there under normal circulatory dynamics.
Heart: Emboli do not lodge in the heart under typical venous embolism pathways. Emboli originating in veins pass through the right side of the heart en route to the lungs but do not cause infarcts in the heart itself.
All of these: Incorrect because only the lungs are routinely affected by venous emboli. The other organs listed are not primary targets for emboli arising in the venous system.
When considering how common anti-inflammatory drugs work, focus on where in the eicosanoid synthesis pathway they act—do they target the release of the fatty acid precursor, or do they act downstream to block conversion into mediators like prostaglandins?
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Category:
Blood – Pharmacology
A first-year medical student has a fever and sore throat. The physician prescribes Ibuprofen. Which process is involved in relieving the pain and fever?
Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that works by reversibly inhibiting the cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes , specifically COX-1 and COX-2 . These enzymes are responsible for converting arachidonic acid into prostaglandins , which are mediators of pain, fever, and inflammation.
By inhibiting COX, prostaglandin synthesis is reduced , leading to analgesic (pain-relieving) and antipyretic (fever-reducing) effects. The inhibition is reversible , which distinguishes it from drugs like aspirin.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
It irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase, reducing prostaglandin production: This describes the mechanism of aspirin , not ibuprofen. Aspirin irreversibly acetylates the COX enzyme, permanently inactivating it in that platelet or cell.
It reversibly inhibits phospholipase A2, reducing arachidonic acid production: Phospholipase A2 releases arachidonic acid from membrane phospholipids. This step is inhibited by corticosteroids , not NSAIDs like ibuprofen.
It irreversibly inhibits phospholipase A2, reducing arachidonic acid production: Again, NSAIDs do not act on phospholipase A2. Moreover, irreversible inhibition of this enzyme is not a characteristic of common drugs used for fever and pain.
None of these: This is incorrect, because one of the given options accurately describes ibuprofen’s mechanism of action.
Consider how a key enzyme in coagulation might be transformed into an anticoagulant player when bound to a specific receptor. Which binding partner reprograms its role from promoting clotting to regulating it?
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Category:
Blood – Physiology
To slow down the coagulation process, thrombin binds to which of the following proteins?
Thrombin, a central enzyme in the coagulation cascade, primarily functions to convert fibrinogen to fibrin , facilitating clot formation. However, it also plays a regulatory anticoagulant role under certain conditions.
When thrombin binds to thrombomodulin , a transmembrane receptor expressed on endothelial cells, this alters thrombin’s enzymatic specificity . Rather than promoting coagulation, the thrombin-thrombomodulin complex activates Protein C , which in turn (with the help of Protein S) inactivates Factors Va and VIIIa , slowing down the clotting process.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Protein C: While thrombin (bound to thrombomodulin) activates Protein C, it does not bind directly to it to initiate its regulatory role. The interaction requires thrombomodulin as a mediator.
Protein S: This is a cofactor for activated Protein C. It helps degrade Factors Va and VIIIa, but thrombin does not bind to Protein S .
Factor V: This is a procoagulant cofactor in the clotting cascade. Thrombin activates it under normal clotting conditions—but it is not involved in slowing coagulation by binding with thrombin.
Factor VIII: Like Factor V, it is a cofactor in the intrinsic pathway . Thrombin activates it, but does not bind to it to slow coagulation .
In metabolic disorders, consider whether symptoms involve the nervous system, the skin, or both. Which clinical patterns tend to arise when an intermediate in the heme synthesis pathway accumulates in tissues exposed to light?
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Category:
Blood – Biochemistry
Which of the following results from the deficiency of uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase?
Porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT) is the most common type of porphyria and results from a deficiency of the enzyme uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase, which is involved in the heme biosynthetic pathway . This enzyme is responsible for converting uroporphyrinogen III to coproporphyrinogen III by removing carboxyl groups.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Acute intermittent porphyria: Caused by a deficiency of porphobilinogen deaminase (also called hydroxymethylbilane synthase) . It presents with neurovisceral symptoms (abdominal pain, psychiatric symptoms), but not with skin lesions.
Hereditary coproporphyria: Due to a deficiency of coproporphyrinogen oxidase , leading to both neurovisceral symptoms and sometimes cutaneous symptoms, but not related to uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase .
Sideroblastic anemia: This is not a porphyria. It involves defective heme synthesis in erythroid precursors , often due to ALA synthase dysfunction or mitochondrial defects, leading to iron-loaded mitochondria in red blood cell precursors.
Variegate porphyria: Caused by a deficiency in protoporphyrinogen oxidase . It can present with both neurological and cutaneous symptoms, but again, the deficient enzyme is not uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase .
Think about how structure reflects function in specialized regions of complex organs. Which regions are designed for rapid filtration versus those geared toward strategic response?
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Category:
Blood – Histology
Which of the following is incorrect regarding the histology of the spleen?
The periarteriolar lymphoid sheaths (PALS) are a key component of the white pulp of the spleen. They surround central arterioles and are primarily composed of T lymphocytes , not neutrophils. This region plays a central role in adaptive immunity , especially cell-mediated immune responses .
Thus, the statement that “neutrophils are the predominant cells of PALS” is incorrect.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
White pulp contains leukocytes: ✅ Correct. It includes lymphocytes , especially T cells (in PALS) and B cells (in follicles), as well as antigen-presenting cells.
Littoral cells are found in splenic sinusoids: ✅ Correct. These specialized endothelial cells line the splenic sinusoids and help filter aged or damaged red blood cells.
Red pulp contains sinusoids: ✅ Correct. The red pulp is composed of vascular sinusoids and cords of Billroth , and it is the main site for filtering blood and removing old erythrocytes.
The spleen contains cords of Billroth: ✅ Correct. These are reticular connective tissue structures in the red pulp that house macrophages, plasma cells, and blood cells.
When thinking about whether a condition warrants investigation before birth, consider whether the risk of structural or genetic abnormalities is heightened due to past outcomes.
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Category:
Blood – Community Medicine / Behavioral Sciences
Which of the following is an indication for prenatal diagnostic tests?
Prenatal diagnostic tests (like amniocentesis, chorionic villus sampling, or fetal anomaly scans) are not routine for every pregnancy. They are specifically indicated in cases where there is an increased risk of fetal abnormalities .
A past history of neural tube defects (e.g., spina bifida, anencephaly) in a previous child significantly raises the risk of recurrence. Therefore, this is a clear indication for prenatal diagnostic testing, especially to screen for similar defects in the current fetus.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Mother taking no medication: This is generally a sign of a low-risk pregnancy and not an indication for prenatal testing.
Family history of cigarette smoking: While smoking increases the risk of low birth weight and placental issues , it is not an indication for genetic or structural anomaly screening.
Maternal age < 15 years: While teen pregnancies carry certain social and obstetric risks , they are not directly associated with chromosomal abnormalities requiring prenatal diagnostics unless other risk factors are present.
Maternal age < 30 years: This is typically considered low risk from a genetic perspective. Increased maternal age over 35 is the factor associated with increased risk of chromosomal anomalies like Down syndrome.
In considering inherited clotting disorders, think about which factor is involved in the intrinsic pathway and is genetically linked to the X chromosome.
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Category:
Blood – Pathology
Hemophilia A is characterized by the deficiency of which factors?
Hemophilia A is a classic X-linked recessive bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency of Factor VIII , a critical component of the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Factor VIII acts as a cofactor for Factor IXa in the activation of Factor X, ultimately leading to thrombin formation and clot stabilization.
Patients with Hemophilia A present with prolonged bleeding , easy bruising , hemarthroses (bleeding into joints) , and prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) , while PT (prothrombin time) remains normal.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Factor IX: Deficiency of this factor causes Hemophilia B (Christmas disease) , not Hemophilia A.
Tissue factor (Factor III): Not a clotting factor in the classical numbering system. It initiates the extrinsic pathway by activating Factor VII.
Factor VII: Part of the extrinsic pathway . Its deficiency causes a different bleeding disorder unrelated to hemophilia A.
Factor X: Lies at the start of the common pathway , and although important, its deficiency is not related to hemophilia A.
Consider at which point two different processes merge to produce a shared effect. What molecule acts as the convergence point of two otherwise distinct cascades?
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Category:
Blood – Physiology
Which of the following is the first clotting factor that is common in both extrinsic and intrinsic pathway?
The coagulation cascade consists of three interconnected pathways: the intrinsic , extrinsic , and common pathways. Both the intrinsic (activated by trauma inside the vascular system) and extrinsic (activated by external trauma causing blood to escape the vessel) pathways eventually lead to a common pathway —this begins with the activation of Factor X (Stuart-Prower factor).
Once Factor X is activated (to Xa) , it plays a central role in converting prothrombin (Factor II) to thrombin, which then facilitates the transformation of fibrinogen into fibrin, forming the structural basis of a blood clot.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Factor II (Prothrombin): This is downstream in the common pathway , activated after Factor X by Factor Xa and Factor V. It is not the first shared factor.
Factor VII: Exclusively part of the extrinsic pathway , activated by tissue factor. It is not involved in the intrinsic pathway.
Factor V: Acts as a cofactor for Factor Xa in the common pathway but is activated after Factor X. It is not the first common factor.
Factor IX: Belongs to the intrinsic pathway . It is not part of the extrinsic pathway , so it cannot be the point of convergence.
Consider what property of red blood cells might change if their shape is more spherical than normal. What kind of stress would reveal that abnormality?
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Category:
Blood – Physiology
Which of the following is used to detect hereditary spherocytosis?
The osmotic fragility test is the classical diagnostic tool for hereditary spherocytosis, a condition where red blood cells (RBCs) become more spherical due to defects in structural proteins like spectrin and ankyrin. These spherical cells have reduced surface area-to-volume ratio , making them less deformable and more prone to lysis in hypotonic solutions .
In the osmotic fragility test, RBCs are placed in solutions of decreasing tonicity. Spherocytes lyse more readily than normal biconcave RBCs because they cannot accommodate the influx of water. Increased fragility in this test supports the diagnosis of hereditary spherocytosis.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Serum B12 levels: These are used to diagnose megaloblastic anemia , not hereditary spherocytosis.
MCHC (Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration): This is often elevated in hereditary spherocytosis, but it is not diagnostic on its own —it is a supportive finding, not a specific test.
MCV (Mean Corpuscular Volume): Often normal or low in hereditary spherocytosis, but again, it is not specific and cannot be used to confirm the diagnosis.
RBC count: May be reduced due to hemolysis , but this is a nonspecific finding seen in many types of anemia.
Consider both the cell type from which the tumor originates and the criteria that define whether a tumor is benign or malignant. Think about tissue layers and patterns of invasion.
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Category:
Blood – Pathology
Which type of cancer is the squamous cell carcinoma of the lungs?
Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung is classified as a malignant tumor arising from epithelial tissue , specifically from squamous epithelial cells that line the bronchial tree.
Epithelial cells cover surfaces and line cavities, and when these cells become neoplastic and show features like invasiveness, cellular atypia, high mitotic activity, and metastatic potential, the tumor is termed a carcinoma. The term “squamous” refers to the flat, scale-like appearance of the cells, and “carcinoma” indicates its epithelial and malignant nature.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Benign tumor of epithelium: A benign epithelial tumor is usually termed an adenoma or papilloma , and it does not invade surrounding tissues or metastasize. Squamous cell carcinoma is malignant .
Malignant tumor of mesenchyme: Malignant mesenchymal tumors are known as sarcomas , such as osteosarcoma or liposarcoma . Squamous cell carcinoma arises from epithelium, not mesenchyme .
None of these: Incorrect because one of the options (malignant tumor of epithelium ) is clearly correct.
Benign tumor of mesenchyme: These are typically called lipomas , fibromas , etc., and are not cancerous . Again, squamous cell carcinoma is malignant and epithelial , not mesenchymal.
Think about which immunoglobulin is less abundant in serum yet plays a crucial role at the earliest stages of B cell development, often co-expressed with another early immunoglobulin.
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Category:
Blood – Physiology
Which antibody acts as a B cell antigen receptor and plays a role in B cell maturation, maintenance, silencing, and activation?
IgM is the first antibody expressed on the surface of immature B cells as a membrane-bound B cell receptor (BCR). It plays a critical role in B cell maturation, maintenance, activation, and can even contribute to silencing (anergy) when immature B cells encounter self-antigens.
IgM is also the first antibody produced during a primary immune response, providing early defense against pathogens by efficient complement activation and agglutination of microbes
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
IgG: This is the most abundant antibody in circulation and plays a role in long-term immunity , neutralization , and opsonization , but it is not involved in early B cell development as a BCR.
IgE: Involved in allergic responses and defense against parasites , IgE binds to mast cells and basophils, and is not expressed on B cell surfaces.
IgA: Primarily found in mucosal secretions , IgA protects mucosal surfaces but is not involved in B cell maturation or as a receptor.
IgD: While IgD is also expressed on mature naive B cells , often alongside IgM, its exact role is less defined. It is not the first antibody expressed, and IgM plays the dominant role in early B cell activation and development.
Consider which substrates are derived from both the TCA cycle and amino acid metabolism, and how they might contribute to the formation of a porphyrin ring structure.
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Category:
Blood – Biochemistry
Which of the following components are involved in the first step of heme synthesis?
The first step of heme synthesis occurs in the mitochondria and involves the condensation of Succinyl CoA (a TCA cycle intermediate) and Glycine (an amino acid) to form δ-aminolevulinic acid (ALA) . This reaction is catalyzed by the enzyme ALA synthase , which is the rate-limiting enzyme in heme biosynthesis.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Succinyl CoA and serine: Serine is not involved in heme synthesis; the required amino acid is glycine .
Malonyl CoA and glycine: Malonyl CoA is involved in fatty acid synthesis , not heme synthesis.
Malonyl CoA and serine: Neither component plays a role in the heme synthesis pathway.
None of these: Incorrect, because Succinyl CoA and glycine are clearly involved in the first step of heme synthesis.
When thinking about the spread of disease, reflect on how the characteristics of a person, the presence of a harmful influence, and the surrounding conditions all interact in a dynamic system.
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Category:
Blood – Community Medicine / Behavioral Sciences
Which model of disease causation is used when agent, host, and environment are considered?
The epidemiological triad is a classical model of disease causation used especially in infectious disease epidemiology. It considers three essential components :
Agent – the cause of the disease (e.g., bacteria, virus, toxin)
Host – the individual at risk (with factors like age, immunity, genetics)
Environment – external conditions that affect exposure and susceptibility (e.g., climate, sanitation, living conditions)
This model emphasizes that no single factor alone is sufficient to cause disease. Instead, disease occurs when a susceptible host comes into contact with a sufficient agent in a conducive environment.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Population pyramid: A demographic tool , not a disease model. It shows age and sex distribution within a population, often used in public health planning, but not in disease causation.
Wheel model: Focuses more on the genetic core of the host and how it’s surrounded by environmental influences (biological, social, physical). It is an alternative model , often used for chronic diseases , but it does not explicitly emphasize the triad of agent, host, and environment.
Web of causation: This is a more complex and multifactorial model, used especially for non-communicable diseases. It visualizes interconnected risk factors rather than a neat triad, and does not necessarily isolate the agent-host-environment structure.
None of these: Incorrect because “epidemiological triad” is, in fact, the standard model that includes agent, host, and environment.
In considering the path of lymph flow, think about which lymphatic organ is organized to filter lymph from afferent vessels before it interacts with immune cells in a cortex-medulla arrangement.
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Category:
Blood – Histology
Which of the following lymphatic tissues is characterized by the presence of subcapsular sinus?
The lymph node is the only lymphatic organ that has a subcapsular sinus—a space located just beneath the capsule of the node. This sinus receives lymph from afferent lymphatic vessels, allowing it to percolate through the node where it encounters immune cells such as macrophages, dendritic cells, and lymphocytes.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Spleen: Filters blood, not lymph . It has red and white pulp, but no subcapsular sinus. The spleen removes old red blood cells and responds to blood-borne antigens.
Tonsil: These are part of mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) and are involved in sampling antigens from the oral and nasal cavities. They do not have afferent lymphatics or a subcapsular sinus.
Thymus: Involved in T-cell maturation, the thymus lacks lymphatic nodules and does not filter lymph, so it does not have a subcapsular sinus.
Peyer’s patch: Found in the ileum, Peyer’s patches are part of gut-associated lymphoid tissue (GALT) . They contain lymphoid follicles but are not encapsulated like lymph nodes and have no subcapsular sinus.
Ask yourself whether the condition results from the immune system mistakenly targeting or reacting to components of the body, or from an inherited deficiency unrelated to immune activity.
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Category:
Blood – Pathology
Which of the following is not an antibody-mediated disease?
Hemophilia is not an antibody-mediated disease. It is a genetic bleeding disorder caused by deficiency or dysfunction of clotting factors, most commonly Factor VIII (Hemophilia A) or Factor IX (Hemophilia B). The pathogenesis is due to inherited mutations , not due to the production of autoantibodies or hypersensitivity reactions.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP): Caused by autoantibodies directed against platelets, leading to their destruction and resulting in low platelet counts. Classic example of an antibody-mediated autoimmune disease.
Hemolytic anemia: In conditions like autoimmune hemolytic anemia, antibodies target red blood cells, leading to their destruction. Also seen in Rh incompatibility —another antibody-mediated process.
Urticaria: Though sometimes due to non-immunologic causes, it is often the result of a Type I hypersensitivity reaction involving IgE antibodies , mast cell degranulation, and histamine release.
Asthma: Especially allergic asthma, is frequently driven by IgE-mediated hypersensitivity , which is an antibody-mediated immune response to allergens.
Consider which immune cell undergoes differentiation to specialize in producing large amounts of a single type of protein in response to antigenic stimulation.
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Category:
Blood – Physiology
What are plasma cells derived from?
When a naive B cell encounters its specific antigen (often with help from helper T cells), it proliferates and some of its progeny differentiate into plasma cells. These plasma cells then become antibody factories, secreting large quantities of immunoglobulins tailored to the antigen that stimulated the original B cell.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Megakaryocytes: These are large bone marrow cells that give rise to platelets , which are involved in hemostasis—not in antibody production or immune memory.
Monocytes: These are precursors to macrophages and dendritic cells , part of the innate immune system . They do not produce antibodies.
Astrocytes: Glial cells of the central nervous system involved in structural and metabolic support of neurons—entirely unrelated to the immune function of plasma cells.
Macrophages: While they are phagocytes and antigen-presenting cells, macrophages are not lymphocyte-derived and do not secrete antibodies.
When a membrane-bound “tissue factor” suddenly appears at an injury site, think of the plasma protein that partners with it first—triggering the fastest route to thrombin.
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Category:
Blood – Pathology
A 13-year-old girl falls and hits her head on the wall, leading to trauma of the blood vessels. Tissue thromboplastin will be released by the endothelial cells. Which of the following factors will be involved in initiating coagulation?
Blunt injury to a vessel wall exposes tissue thromboplastin (tissue factor, Factor III) . In plasma, the first coagulation protein to bind and become activated on this surface is Factor VII , forming the tissue-factor–VIIa complex . This complex rapidly activates Factor X , launching the extrinsic pathway and driving the cascade toward thrombin generation and clot formation.
Factor VII’s unique role is why its deficiency prolongs the prothrombin time (PT)—a test of the extrinsic system.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
High-molecular-weight kininogen (HMWK): Acts as a cofactor in the intrinsic (contact) pathway along with prekallikrein and Factor XII; it does not initiate the tissue-factor route.
Factor XII (Hageman factor): Begins the intrinsic pathway after surface contact (e.g., glass, collagen) rather than tissue thromboplastin exposure.
Factor IX: Activated downstream in the intrinsic pathway (by XIa or the tissue-factor–VIIa complex) but is not the first responder to tissue factor.
Factor V: A cofactor that combines with activated Factor X (Xa) to form the prothrombinase complex; it is activated later in the cascade, not at initiation.
When determining what is present in someone’s blood, it’s useful to distinguish between what is displayed on the surface of cells and what circulates freely in the plasma. The immune system typically avoids targeting self but stays ready to respond to what it identifies as non-self.
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Category:
Blood – Physiology
Which of the following is correct regarding individuals with blood group A?
Individuals with blood group A have A antigens on the surface of their red blood cells and anti-B antibodies circulating in their plasma. These anti-B antibodies will target and destroy any red blood cells bearing B antigens if transfused, making compatibility crucial in transfusions.
This is why they cannot receive blood from group B or AB, and can only receive from group A or O. The presence of anti-B antibodies is a defining feature of blood group A, consistent with Landsteiner’s Law .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
They may give blood for transfusion to person of blood group O: Incorrect. Group O individuals have anti-A and anti-B antibodies, so they cannot safely receive blood from group A due to the presence of A antigens on the donor cells.
They may have phenotype AB: Incorrect. A person with phenotype A has the genotype AA or AO. Phenotype AB results from inheriting both A and B alleles—completely different.
They may have children with blood group A and O only: Incorrect. While this could be possible with certain genotypes, the statement is overly restrictive. For example, if one parent is AA and the other is BO, their children could be A, B, AB, or O depending on inheritance—so “only A and O” is not universally true.
They have B antigens: Incorrect. People with blood group A do not express B antigens. These are characteristic of group B and group AB individuals.
Ask which reaction is driven primarily by living donor immune cells that recognize the recipient as foreign, rather than by antibodies circulating in serum.
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Category:
Blood – Pathology
Which of the following is not an example of an antibody-mediated response?
Graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) occurs when immunocompetent T-lymphocytes from a donated marrow or solid organ attack the recipient’s tissues. The effector mechanism is cell-mediated immunity —chiefly donor CD4⁺ and CD8⁺ T cells—not antibodies.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Blood transfusion reaction: In an acute hemolytic transfusion mismatch, pre-formed recipient IgM (or IgG) antibodies bind donor red-cell antigens, activate complement, and cause hemolysis—classic antibody-mediated (type II hypersensitivity).
Drug-induced hemolytic anemia: Certain drugs (e.g., penicillin, quinidine) create neo-antigens on red cells; IgG antibodies bind the drug-coated cells, leading to complement-mediated or Fc-mediated hemolysis—also antibody-mediated.
Rh incompatibility at birth: Maternal anti-Rh(D) IgG antibodies cross the placenta and destroy fetal Rh-positive red cells, producing hemolytic disease of the newborn—another antibody-mediated mechanism.
Autoimmune disease: Many autoimmune disorders (e.g., myasthenia gravis, Graves disease, autoimmune hemolytic anemia) involve pathogenic autoantibodies directed at self-antigens, fitting the category of antibody-mediated responses.
Focus on the white-blood-cell populations whose primary job is to engulf and destroy invaders rather than to orchestrate or remember immune responses. Which pair fits that bill and also expresses receptors for the Fc portion of IgG?
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Category:
Blood – Physiology
The receptor for IgG is present on phagocytes. Which of the following are phagocytes?
Phagocytes are cells that can ingest and digest microbes, debris, and particles. Two frontline professional phagocytes in blood and tissues are the neutrophil (a polymorphonuclear leukocyte) and the macrophage (the tissue-resident, differentiated form of the monocyte).
Both cell types express Fc-gamma receptors (FcγR) , which specifically bind the Fc (constant) region of IgG antibodies coating a pathogen.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Neutrophils (alone): Although neutrophils are phagocytes with Fcγ receptors, the option ignores macrophages, so it is incomplete.
Macrophages and lymphocytes: Lymphocytes (B cells, T cells, NK cells) are generally not professional phagocytes and, with few exceptions, do not use Fcγ-mediated phagocytosis.
Monocytes: Circulating monocytes do possess phagocytic ability and Fcγ receptors, but the more active tissue form is the macrophage ; choosing monocytes alone omits neutrophils.
None of these: Incorrect because both macrophages and neutrophils clearly fulfill the definition of phagocytes bearing Fcγ receptors.
Consider the consequence of introducing red cells bearing unfamiliar surface sugars into a circulation that already contains high-titer, pre-existing immunoglobulins directed against those sugars. Which partner—the recipient or the donor—supplies the antibodies that trigger complement‐mediated lysis?
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Category:
Blood – Pathology
A patient was given a few milliliters of blood after which he developed an immediate reaction consisting of fever, hypotension, tachypnea, and tachycardia. Which of the following is true about this kind of reaction?
An immediate febrile, hypotensive, and tachycardic reaction occurring within minutes of starting a transfusion is classic for an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction (AHTR) caused by ABO incompatibility .
Pre-formed recipient (host) IgM antibodies —mostly anti-A or anti-B—bind to the corresponding antigens on donor red blood cells.
This antigen–antibody binding activates the recipient’s complement cascade, leading to:
Clinically this produces fever, chills, hypotension, tachycardia, tachypnea, flank pain, and hemoglobinuria—often within the first 15–30 minutes of transfusion.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Host cells and donor complement proteins react: Complement proteins in transfused blood are present in minimal amounts and are rapidly inactivated in the host. Moreover, donor complement does not play a significant role in transfusion reactions.
Donor cells and host complement proteins react: While it’s true that host complement contributes to the destruction of donor red cells, it’s not sufficient on its own. The key initiating factor is the host’s antibodies , which bind to donor antigens and then recruit complement. Without the antibodies, the complement would not be activated.
Donor antibodies attack host cells: This describes a minor crossmatch incompatibility , which is rare and typically involves small amounts of donor plasma. It doesn’t account for the severity and rapid onset of symptoms seen in major ABO mismatches. The timeline and clinical presentation point clearly to a host-driven response .
The reaction is due to preformed IgE granules: IgE is associated with allergic and anaphylactic reactions , not hemolytic ones. IgE-mediated reactions typically present with urticaria, itching, wheezing, or bronchospasm , not hemolysis, hypotension, and fever as seen here.
Among the options listed, one is the result of a multi-step enzymatic cascade involving proteins that are always present in an inactive form and become active only during certain immune responses. Can you identify which is assembled, not synthesized by a single cell?
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Category:
Blood – Pathology
Which of the following is formed by complement activation?
The complement system is a vital part of the innate immune system composed of plasma proteins that, when activated in a cascade, lead to pathogen destruction. One of the most important products of complement activation is the Membrane Attack Complex (MAC).
MAC is a direct product of complement activation — assembled from activated complement proteins.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Antibodies ➤ Antibodies are produced by plasma cells as part of the adaptive immune response . While IgG and IgM can initiate complement activation, they are not products of the complement system.
IgM ➤ A type of antibody, not formed by complement activation, but rather by B lymphocytes . IgM is a strong activator of the classical complement pathway.
Antigens ➤ These are foreign molecules that trigger immune responses. They are recognized by antibodies or immune cells but are not formed by the body or the complement system.
IgG ➤ Another antibody type produced by B cells , not a product of complement activation. It also helps initiate the classical pathway, similar to IgM.
When evaluating the origin of cells involved in immune function, consider which of them derive from progenitors that also give rise to blood, bone, and connective tissues. Trace the lineage back to the germ layer responsible for these.
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Category:
Blood – Embryology
If there is a defect of the mesoderm, which cells are primarily affected?
Thymocytes originate from hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs) in the bone marrow, which are mesodermal in origin. Therefore, a defect in the mesoderm would impair the production and availability of thymocytes. Even though thymocytes mature in the thymus, which is derived from both endodermal (thymic epithelium) and neural crest (capsule and connective tissue) components, the cells themselves (i.e., the lymphoid progenitors) originate from the mesoderm.
Thus, if there is a defect in the mesoderm, the hematopoietic stem cells and therefore thymocytes would be directly affected.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Nurse cells (Sertoli cells) ➤ These are derived from the intermediate mesoderm (urogenital ridge), but they are not immune cells, and the question focuses on cells primarily affected by a mesoderm defect — thymocytes, as part of hematopoiesis, are more central to this.
Thymic epithelial cells ➤ Derived from the endoderm (third pharyngeal pouch), they form the structural and functional framework of the thymus but are not mesodermal.
Neural crest cells ➤ These come from the ectoderm and give rise to diverse structures like peripheral nerves, melanocytes, and facial cartilage — not primarily affected by mesodermal defects.
None of these ➤ Incorrect because thymocytes are clearly mesoderm-derived and would be affected by a defect in that germ layer.
In the early moments of vascular injury, which molecule acts as a bridge between the exposed collagen and the circulating platelets, enabling them to adhere effectively to the damaged site?
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Category:
Blood – Physiology
In case of an injury, a deficiency of which of the following would impair the adhesion of platelets to the subendothelial collagen?
Von Willebrand factor (vWF) is a crucial glycoprotein in the hemostatic process, particularly in primary hemostasis. Its primary function in the event of vascular injury is to mediate the adhesion of platelets to the exposed subendothelial collagen. Without adequate vWF, as seen in von Willebrand disease , there is impaired platelet adhesion , leading to prolonged bleeding , especially from mucosal surfaces.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Plasmin ➤ A fibrinolytic enzyme that breaks down fibrin clots. It’s involved in clot resolution , not in platelet adhesion.
Heparin ➤ An anticoagulant that enhances the activity of antithrombin III , inhibiting thrombin and factor Xa. It doesn’t play a direct role in platelet adhesion .
Antithrombin III ➤ A serine protease inhibitor that inactivates several clotting enzymes. While essential for regulating coagulation , it does not affect platelet adhesion .
Fibrinogen stabilizing factor (Factor XIII) ➤ This factor cross-links fibrin to stabilize the clot during the final stages of coagulation. It has no role in the initial platelet adhesion process.
When you see a combination of bleeding (from a cannulation site), signs of systemic infection (fever, burning micturition), and abnormalities in coagulation, think about a condition where there is excessive clotting and simultaneous bleeding due to consumption of clotting factors.
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Category:
Blood – Pathology
A 60-year-old male presents to the outpatient department with complaints of burning micturition and fever. On examination, blood pressure is 90/60 mm of Hg, and heart rate is 110 beats/min. The physician also notices blood oozing from a cannulation site. A complete blood count shows low hemoglobin, high WBC count, and low platelet count. Further investigation reveals prolonged PT and aPTT. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a life-threatening condition characterized by widespread activation of the coagulation cascade, leading to the formation of microthrombi in small vessels. This consumes platelets and clotting factors, resulting in coagulopathy and bleeding .
The classic features of DIC include:
Sepsis or infection , often as the triggering factor (as seen in this patient with fever and burning micturition, suggestive of urinary tract infection or sepsis).
Low platelet count (thrombocytopenia) due to consumption in the formation of clots.
Elevated WBC count (indicative of infection).
Prolonged PT and aPTT , reflecting consumption of clotting factors.
Bleeding manifestations , such as blood oozing from a cannulation site.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Hemophilia A ➤ A congenital deficiency of factor VIII, leading to prolonged bleeding but not typically associated with thrombocytopenia or elevated WBC counts . Also, hemophilia A doesn’t usually cause fever or systemic infection .
Idiopathic autoimmune thrombocytopenia (ITP) ➤ Characterized by isolated thrombocytopenia due to autoantibodies against platelets. It does not explain elevated WBC count , prolonged PT/aPTT , or coagulation factor consumption as seen in DIC.
von Willebrand disease ➤ A bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency of von Willebrand factor, typically resulting in prolonged bleeding times and mucocutaneous bleeding, but not associated with thrombocytopenia or the severe coagulation abnormalities seen in DIC.
Hemophilia B ➤ A factor IX deficiency that leads to bleeding, but not associated with thrombocytopenia or elevated WBC counts or the infection-triggered systemic response characteristic of DIC.
When identifying unusual tumor contents, ask yourself which types of tumors arise from cells with the potential to differentiate into multiple germ layers, giving rise to diverse tissues within a single mass.
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Category:
Blood – Pathology
A 34-year-old woman is evaluated at the hospital and found to have a large ovarian cyst. During surgery of the cysts, it is found to contain cheesy material, teeth, and hair. What is this type of cyst called?
A mature cystic teratoma, also known as a dermoid cyst, is the most common benign ovarian tumor in women of reproductive age. It arises from totipotent germ cells, which have the capacity to differentiate into ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm. This explains the presence of hair, teeth, sebaceous (cheesy) material, and sometimes even skin, bone, or thyroid tissue within the cyst.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Mucinous cyst ➤ Contains gelatinous, mucin-rich fluid, not solid materials like teeth or hair. Typically seen as a mucinous cystadenoma or cystadenocarcinoma.
Cystadenoma ➤ A benign epithelial tumor, usually serous or mucinous. Lacks the complex tissue types (hair, teeth) seen in teratomas.
Chocolate cyst ➤ Refers to an endometrioma, an ovarian cyst filled with old blood, giving it a dark brown appearance. It is associated with endometriosis, not ectodermal derivatives.
Cystadenocarcinoma ➤ A malignant epithelial tumor of the ovary. While it can be solid and cystic, it does not contain differentiated tissues like hair or teeth.
Consider the time it takes for both physical obstruction and a systemic inflammatory response to develop after internal exposure to substances not normally present in circulation.
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Category:
Blood – Pathology
After a long bone fracture, when is a fat embolism likely to occur?
While fat globules may enter the bloodstream immediately following trauma, clinical symptoms of fat embolism syndrome typically emerge within 1–3 days after the injury. This delay corresponds to the time needed for:
Mechanical obstruction by fat droplets in capillaries
Biochemical injury from the breakdown of fat into free fatty acids, which are toxic to endothelium
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
After 1 hour ➤ Too early. Although fat may enter the bloodstream rapidly, clinical features of fat embolism syndrome take time to develop .
After 24 hours ➤ Possible but less typical than the 1–3 day window, where full symptoms generally emerge.
After 1 month ➤ Far too late. By this time, complications would more likely involve chronic issues like non-union or infection.
After 1 week ➤ Also too delayed for fat embolism. Most cases occur within the first 72 hours after trauma.
When distinguishing between lymphoid structures, consider which ones are embedded within mucosal surfaces and lack the surrounding connective tissue boundary typically seen in larger, more organized immune organs.
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Category:
Blood – Histology
Which of the following does not have a capsule?
Unlike primary lymphoid organs (like the thymus) or secondary ones (like lymph nodes and spleen), Peyer’s patches are not surrounded by a connective tissue capsule. This makes sense functionally, as they need to interact freely with antigens passing through the intestinal lumen, particularly via specialized M cells that sample antigens.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Palatine tonsils ➤ These are part of the Waldeyer’s ring and do have a partial capsule on their deep surface (derived from connective tissue), helping separate them from surrounding tissue.
Spleen ➤ Surrounded by a thick connective tissue capsule with trabeculae extending inward. It’s a well-encapsulated lymphoid organ.
Thymus ➤ A primary lymphoid organ with a distinct capsule that sends septa inward to divide it into lobules.
Lymph node ➤ Has a complete capsule made of dense connective tissue, with internal trabeculae supporting its structure.
Think about which organ is most directly responsible for detecting changes in blood oxygen levels and responding with a hormone that stimulates red blood cell production.
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Category:
Blood – Physiology
Erythropoietin is primarily formed in which organ?
Over 90% of erythropoietin is produced by the peritubular interstitial cells of the kidneys, particularly in the renal cortex. A small amount (about 10%) is produced by the liver, especially during fetal development.
The kidneys are ideally suited for this role because they constantly monitor blood oxygen levels due to their high perfusion rate. When oxygen levels drop (e.g., in anemia, high altitude, or chronic lung disease), EPO production increases, leading to enhanced erythropoiesis in the bone marrow.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Spleen ➤ Involved in filtering old red blood cells and immune responses, but not EPO production.
Brain ➤ Though certain brain tissues can produce small amounts of EPO (for neuroprotective roles), this is not the primary source.
Liver ➤ Contributes significantly during fetal life, but not in adults.
Bone marrow ➤ Responds to EPO, but does not produce it.
In conditions where a regulated storage protein becomes saturated, consider what secondary, less accessible form the body might use to sequester excess material—especially one that is harder to mobilize and tends to accumulate pathologically.
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Category:
Blood – Physiology
When the total storage iron is much greater than the apoferritin storage pool, the extra iron is stored in an insoluble form. This form is known as which of the following?
Iron in the body is stored primarily in two forms: ferritin and hemosiderin. Under normal physiological conditions, iron is stored in ferritin, which safely binds iron and releases it as needed. However, when iron stores exceed the binding capacity of ferritin, such as in iron overload conditions (e.g., hemochromatosis, repeated transfusions), the excess iron aggregates into hemosiderin.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Transferrin ➤ A plasma protein that transports iron through the bloodstream to various tissues. ➤ It’s not a storage form of iron.
Ferritin ➤ The primary iron storage protein , but only up to a certain capacity. ➤ Once ferritin is saturated, excess iron is stored as hemosiderin , not more ferritin.
Haptoglobin ➤ Binds free hemoglobin in the blood to prevent oxidative damage. ➤ Has no role in iron storage.
Albumin ➤ A general carrier protein in plasma; transports hormones, bilirubin, and drugs , among others. ➤ It does not bind or store iron.
When considering the development of foregut-derived organs, reflect on which mesentery contributes to structures on the left side of the body and gives rise to both connective and lymphoid tissue components.
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Category:
Blood – Embryology
During the development of the spleen, mesenchymal cells are present between which layers?
The spleen develops from a mass of mesenchymal cells that originate in the dorsal mesogastrium during the 5th week of intrauterine life . The dorsal mesogastrium is a double layer of peritoneum that suspends the developing stomach from the posterior abdominal wall.
The splenic primordium lies between the two layers of the dorsal mesogastrium , making this the correct answer.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
The two layers of ventral mesogastrium ➤ This mesogastrium is associated with the liver and lesser omentum , not the spleen.
Ventral and dorsal mesogastrium ➤ These are separate structures; the spleen forms within the dorsal mesogastrium, not between it and the ventral one.
Ventral mesogastrium and septum transversarium ➤ This region is involved in liver and diaphragm development, not the spleen.
Dorsal mesogastrium and septum transversarium ➤ Again, these are anatomically distinct. The spleen arises within the dorsal mesogastrium, not between it and another structure.
In tumors derived from secretory epithelial tissues, consider which surface molecule, normally involved in protection and lubrication, becomes abnormally expressed and serves as a shared biomarker.
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Category:
Blood – Pathology
Which of the following mucin antigens is present in both ovarian and breast cancers?
MUC-1 is a transmembrane mucin glycoprotein expressed on the apical surface of epithelial cells in tissues such as the breast, ovary, lung, and pancreas.
In malignant transformation, especially in breast and ovarian cancers, MUC-1 becomes overexpressed, hypoglycosylated and mislocalized across the entire cell surface.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
CA19-9 ➤ Marker for pancreatic adenocarcinoma , sometimes elevated in gastrointestinal cancers . ➤ Not a mucin antigen typically shared by breast and ovarian cancers.
CA-125 ➤ Marker primarily for ovarian cancer . ➤ Not expressed in breast cancer, so it’s not common to both.
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) ➤ More commonly associated with colorectal and gastric cancers . ➤ Can be elevated in breast cancer, but not significantly in ovarian cancer, and it is not a mucin antigen.
None of these ➤ Incorrect, because MUC-1 is indeed present in both.
Among the signaling molecules that influence immune cell differentiation, consider which one plays a foundational role by acting broadly across multiple lineages rather than specializing in just one.
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Category:
Blood – Pathology
Which interleukin is required for the growth and proliferation of all the stem cells?
Interleukin-3 (IL-3) is a multi-lineage growth factor produced primarily by activated T cells. Its major role is to support the growth, proliferation, and differentiation of pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells in the bone marrow.
IL-3 acts on early progenitor cells and promotes the formation of a wide array of blood cell types, including: myeloid lineages (e.g., granulocytes, monocytes, erythrocytes), lymphoid lineages (e.g., B and T lymphocytes) and megakaryocytes (platelet precursors)
This broad effect is what makes IL-3 essential for the overall expansion of the hematopoietic system, particularly following immune activation or bone marrow suppression.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Interleukin-1 (IL-1) ➤ Primarily a pro-inflammatory cytokine . ➤ Involved in fever, leukocyte recruitment, and the acute-phase response, not stem cell proliferation.
Interleukin-2 (IL-2) ➤ Stimulates growth and differentiation of T cells , especially cytotoxic and regulatory T cells. ➤ It’s lineage-specific, not a general stem cell growth factor.
Interleukin-4 (IL-4) ➤ Involved in B-cell class switching to IgE and IgG and Th2 cell differentiation . ➤ Not required for general stem cell growth.
Interleukin-5 (IL-5) ➤ Stimulates eosinophil growth and activation , and aids in B-cell differentiation . ➤ Also lineage-specific, particularly in parasitic infections and allergic responses.
When a breach occurs in any pressurized system, what would be the body’s immediate mechanical strategy to reduce further loss before any cellular or chemical players can mobilize?
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Category:
Blood – Physiology
Hemostasis is a means of preventing blood loss. Whenever an injury occurs, which one of the following is the first step towards clotting?
Hemostasis is the body’s process of stopping bleeding after vascular injury. It occurs in three well-coordinated phases:
Vasoconstriction
Primary hemostasis (platelet plug formation)
Secondary hemostasis (coagulation cascade and fibrin clot formation)
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Activation of coagulation cascade ➤ Occurs after platelet plug formation. ➤ It stabilizes the plug by forming a fibrin mesh (secondary hemostasis), not the first event.
Formation of platelet plug ➤ Part of primary hemostasis and involves platelet adhesion, activation, and aggregation. ➤ This follows vasoconstriction.
Formation of fibrin plug ➤ End result of the coagulation cascade , forming a stable clot. ➤ This is late in the process, not the first step.
Retraction of the platelet plug ➤ Occurs after fibrin stabilization. ➤ This step compacts the clot and brings wound edges together. It’s part of clot remodeling, not initiation.
Think about where the body uses molecular carriers to manage essential gases—not for transport through blood vessels, but for localized exchange in active tissues.
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Category:
Blood – Physiology
Myoglobin is a pigment. Which system of the body does it have a role in?
Myoglobin is a heme-containing, oxygen-binding pigment found primarily in skeletal and cardiac muscle. Its primary role is to store oxygen and facilitate oxygen transport within muscle cells, particularly during periods of intense muscular activity when oxygen demand exceeds supply.
Even though it’s located in muscle tissue rather than the lungs, its function is tightly linked to the respiratory system because it deals with oxygen storage and utilization.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Central nervous system ➤ While the CNS uses a lot of oxygen, myoglobin is not present in neurons or glial cells. ➤ Oxygen delivery in the CNS relies on blood flow, not local storage by myoglobin.
Hepatic system ➤ The liver does not use myoglobin for oxygen handling. ➤ Its metabolism is largely anaerobic and uses other mechanisms for oxygen delivery.
Electron transport chain ➤ Myoglobin does not participate directly in the ETC. ➤ It facilitates oxygen delivery to mitochondria , where the ETC occurs, but is not a component of the chain itself.
Urinary system ➤ Myoglobin may appear in urine in cases of rhabdomyolysis, but this is pathological. ➤ It is not part of the normal function of the urinary system.
Think about which specific nutrients are absorbed in the last segment of the small intestine and how their absence would impact cell division and maturation in the bone marrow.
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Category:
Blood – Physiology
A person undergoes ileal resection. After some days he develops weakness, shortness of breath, and anemia. Which anemia can it possibly be?
The terminal ileum is essential for the absorption of vitamin B12 (cobalamin) and bile salts . Vitamin B12 binds to intrinsic factor (produced in the stomach), and this complex is absorbed specifically in the terminal ileum. Without the ileum, even if intrinsic factor is present, vitamin B12 cannot be absorbed, leading to deficiency.
This results in megaloblastic anemia , with large, immature, dysfunctional red blood cells.
⚠️ Clinical Features in the Question:
Ileal resection → B12 malabsorption
Weakness, shortness of breath, anemia → classic signs of anemia
Points specifically toward macrocytic anemia due to B12 deficiency → Megaloblastic anemia
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
1. Pernicious anemia
Also a cause of B12 deficiency, but it’s due to autoimmune destruction of intrinsic factor .
In this case, the problem is not with intrinsic factor, but with the site of absorption (ileum).
While the resulting anemia is still megaloblastic, the cause is different.
2. Aplastic anemia
Caused by bone marrow failure , leading to pancytopenia .
Unrelated to ileal resection or B12 deficiency.
3. Iron deficiency anemia
Results from chronic blood loss or poor iron intake/absorption.
Iron is absorbed in the duodenum , not the ileum.
This would cause microcytic , not megaloblastic anemia.
4. Chronic blood loss anemia
Typically iron-deficiency anemia from prolonged bleeding (e.g., ulcers, menstruation).
No evidence of bleeding is mentioned; also, the anemia here is not due to loss but malabsorption .
To answer this, consider which globin chains are still present during a time when the lungs are not yet used and oxygen must be captured efficiently from maternal blood. Think about how structure influences function in different life stages.
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Category:
Blood – Physiology
What is the composition of hemoglobin F (HbF)?
🔹Structure of Hemoglobin F:
Hemoglobin molecules are tetramers composed of two α (alpha) chains and two non-alpha chains.
In HbF, the two non-alpha chains are γ (gamma) chains.
Therefore, HbF = α₂γ₂ .
This configuration gives HbF a higher affinity for oxygen than adult hemoglobin (HbA), allowing oxygen transfer across the placenta.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
1. α₂β₂
This is the structure of Hemoglobin A (HbA) , the most common form in adults.
It begins to replace HbF after birth.
2. γ₂ε₂
3. β₂γ₂
4. α₂δ₂
This is the structure of Hemoglobin A2 (HbA₂) , a minor adult hemoglobin (~2-3% of total adult Hb).
It appears after birth and has no role in fetal life.
This adult hemoglobin type consists of two identical pairs of globin chains—each pair being different in structure but essential for oxygen transport—and its composition helps distinguish it from fetal or minor hemoglobin variants.
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Category:
Blood – Physiology
What is the composition of hemoglobin A (HbA)?
Hemoglobin A (HbA) consists of two α (alpha) globin chains and two β (beta) globin chains. The α chains are coded by one gene located on chromosome 16, and the β chains are coded by a gene located on chromosome 11. The hemoglobin A molecule is responsible for transporting oxygen from the lungs to tissues and returning carbon dioxide to the lungs for exhalation.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
α2, γ2: This represents hemoglobin F (fetal hemoglobin), found in fetuses and newborns. It has γ (gamma) chains instead of β chains.
α2, δ2: This is a component of hemoglobin A2, a minor form of hemoglobin found in adults, composed of α and δ chains.
β2, γ2: This would correspond to an abnormal form of hemoglobin and does not exist in normal adult hemoglobin.
γ2, ε2: These are components of embryonic hemoglobins, which are important in early development but not present in adult circulation.
This protein is involved in the storage of iron within cells and is released into the bloodstream when the body needs to regulate iron levels.
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Category:
Blood – Biochemistry
Most of the iron in the storage pool is in the form of which of the following?
Ferritin is the main protein responsible for the storage of iron within cells. It is a soluble protein complex that can store up to 4,500 iron atoms in a non-toxic, bioavailable form. It helps in maintaining iron homeostasis by preventing the toxic effects of free iron in the body.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Apotransferrin: This is the iron-free form of transferrin, the protein that transports iron in the bloodstream, not involved in storage.
Transferrin: This is the protein that binds to iron and transports it in the bloodstream, not for storing iron.
Hemosiderin: A less soluble and more insoluble iron-storage complex, usually formed when there is excess iron, often seen in iron overload conditions.
Free iron: Free, unbound iron is highly toxic to cells and is not stored in this form.
Think about the factor that plays a key role in the very beginning of a cascade, especially one activated by contact with exposed surfaces. It sets the stage for a series of activations that leads to clot formation.
102 / 109
Category:
Blood – Pathology
Activation of which of the following factors results in the initiation of the coagulation cascade through the intrinsic pathway?
The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated when Factor XII (also known as Hageman factor ) is activated. This activation occurs upon contact with negatively charged surfaces (such as exposed collagen in the blood vessel walls).
❌ Why Not the Other Options:
Factor IX : This is part of the cascade, but it is activated by Factor XIa , not at the very start of the pathway.
Factor X : Factor X is activated in both the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways, but it is the final common step, not the initial factor.
Factor V : Factor V is a cofactor for Factor X activation and is part of the common pathway, but it does not initiate the intrinsic pathway.
Factor VIII : Factor VIII is part of the intrinsic pathway, but it functions as a cofactor to Factor IX . It doesn’t initiate the pathway but enhances the activation of Factor X by Factor IX.
Consider an autoimmune condition where skin thickening and vascular issues like Raynaud’s phenomenon are prominent. This disorder also involves fibrosis in multiple organ systems.
103 / 109
Category:
Blood – Pathology
Raynaud’s phenomenon and fibrosis of GI tract, skin, and tissues are symptoms of which of the following?
Systemic Sclerosis (also called Scleroderma ) is an autoimmune connective tissue disease characterized by fibrosis (scarring) of the skin and internal organs, including the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, lungs, kidneys, and heart. The hallmark of the disease includes:
Raynaud’s phenomenon : A vascular response where the fingers or toes turn white or blue in response to cold or stress due to vasoconstriction.
Fibrosis of the skin, GI tract, and internal organs.
Autoantibodies are typically present in the blood (e.g., anti-Scl-70, anticentromere antibodies).
Skin thickening and tightening, which can result in difficulty with joint movement and swallowing.
❌ Why Not the Other Options:
Polymyositis : This is an inflammatory myopathy characterized by muscle weakness and inflammation, not fibrosis or vascular issues.
Marfan’s Syndrome : A genetic disorder affecting the connective tissue, leading to features like tall stature, long limbs, and cardiovascular issues (e.g., aortic aneurysms), but not Raynaud’s or widespread fibrosis.
Multiple Sclerosis : A neurodegenerative autoimmune disease that affects the central nervous system , causing symptoms like weakness, visual disturbances, and coordination problems, but it doesn’t involve Raynaud’s or fibrosis.
DiGeorge Syndrome : A congenital disorder characterized by thymic hypoplasia (leading to immune deficiencies) and cardiac defects , but it doesn’t typically cause Raynaud’s or fibrosis of tissues.
Focus on a disorder characterized by prolonged bleeding time with normal PT and aPTT . This suggests a platelet problem , rather than a coagulation factor issue.
104 / 109
Category:
Blood – Pathology
A girl comes to the outpatient department with complaints of epistaxis and small bruising on her skin. While giving her history she informs the physician that her sister has the same problem. Laboratory analysis shows that her partial thromboplastin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) are normal but prolonged bleeding time. What is the likely diagnosis?
Bernard-Soulier syndrome (BSS) is a rare inherited platelet disorder characterized by defective platelet adhesion due to a deficiency of the GPIb/IX/V receptor complex , which is necessary for platelets to adhere to the exposed subendothelium during vascular injury.
Key Points:
Prolonged bleeding time (due to defective platelet function)
Normal PT and aPTT (as the coagulation cascade is unaffected)
Platelet abnormalities (low platelet count, giant platelets on peripheral smear)
Family history of similar bleeding problems (suggesting an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern).
❌ Why Not the Other Options:
Hemophilia A, B, C : These are coagulation factor deficiencies (VIII, IX, and XI, respectively), which result in prolonged PT or aPTT , not isolated prolonged bleeding time.
Immune Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP) : ITP is characterized by low platelet count , but the bleeding time is prolonged due to the low number of platelets, and the coagulation studies (PT/aPTT) are usually normal . However, there would typically be low platelet count in ITP, which wasn’t mentioned here.
Think physical and immediate barriers that the body uses to block pathogens before the immune system even has to “think” about it. This is not about memory or antibodies.
105 / 109
Category:
Blood – Physiology
Innate immunity is considered to be the first line of defense against many microorganisms. Its major component includes which of the following?
.The skin is a major physical barrier that prevents the entry of pathogens.
Other innate components include:
Mucous membranes
Phagocytic cells (neutrophils, macrophages)
Natural killer (NK) cells
Complement system
Inflammatory mediators
❌ Why Not the Others:
T-cells and B-cells : Components of adaptive immunity , which is antigen-specific and has memory.
Plasma cells : Differentiated B-cells that produce antibodies—again, part of adaptive immunity .
Antibodies : Produced in response to antigens and part of the adaptive system , not innate.
Think about X-linked recessive bleeding disorders that often present in young boys with joint bleeds (hemarthrosis) and isolated prolonged APTT, while other labs (like platelet count and PT) are usually normal.
106 / 109
Category:
Blood – Pathology
A 5-year-old boy comes to the outpatient department complaining of a painful and swollen knee. On examination, bleeding is seen within the knee joint but with no signs of physical trauma. His mother gives a family history of a maternal uncle who recently died of a bleeding disorder. Investigations show isolated increased APTT. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Hemophilia A is a classic X-linked recessive coagulation disorder caused by a deficiency of Factor VIII . It primarily affects males, and symptoms typically include:
Spontaneous hemarthroses (bleeding into joints)
Prolonged bleeding after injuries or procedures
Increased activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
Normal PT and platelet count
Key Clinical Clues in This Case:
Male child with joint bleeding
No trauma, suggesting spontaneous bleed
Positive maternal family history (maternal uncle)
Isolated increased aPTT
❌ Why Not the Other Options:
Hemophilia C: Deficiency of Factor XI, autosomal recessive, rarer and milder, not typically presenting in childhood with joint bleeds.
Von Willebrand Disease: Also shows increased bleeding time and may elevate aPTT, but joint bleeds are uncommon and it affects both sexes equally.
Thrombocytopenia: Would show petechiae, mucosal bleeding, not isolated aPTT elevation.
Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS): Presents with thrombocytopenia, hemolytic anemia, and acute kidney injury—not isolated aPTT rise or joint bleeding.
Reflect on which lymphoid organ is involved in a process that requires interaction with an epithelium not just for structural support, but for active communication and antigen presentation during development.
107 / 109
Category:
Blood – Histology
The specialized epithelium is present in which of the following lymphoid organ?
The thymus is unique among lymphoid organs because it contains a specialized epithelium called the thymic epithelioreticular cells. These cells play essential roles in the maturation of T lymphocytes through both positive and negative selection.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Tonsils: Lined by stratified squamous or pseudostratified epithelium, but not specialized in the same sense as the thymus epithelium involved in T-cell maturation.
Spleen: Does not have a specialized epithelium; consists mainly of red and white pulp with reticular connective tissue.
Lymph nodes: Structured with a capsule, cortex, and medulla with lymphoid follicles, but no specialized epithelial cells like in the thymus.
Lymphoid tissue: General term that may include mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT), which lacks a specialized epithelium like the thymus.
Consider which clotting factors are cofactors in the amplification of thrombin generation. Now think about what the body might want to inhibit to prevent overclotting once the clotting cascade is underway.
108 / 109
Category:
Blood – Physiology
Coagulation factors are proteins that flow in the blood in their inactivated form. During a vessel injury, they become activated. Thrombin and thrombomodulin complex inactivates which of the following factors?
Once thrombin has been generated, it binds to thrombomodulin, a protein expressed on endothelial cells. This complex does not further promote clotting—instead, it activates protein C, which is a natural anticoagulant.
➤ Activated Protein C (aPC), together with its cofactor Protein S, inactivates:
These two factors are essential amplifiers in the coagulation cascade.
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
II and III → Factor II is thrombin itself, and III is tissue factor . These are not inactivated by protein C; thrombin activates protein C via thrombomodulin.
IX and X → These are enzyme components of the intrinsic and common pathways, and they are not directly inactivated by the thrombin-thrombomodulin complex.
IX and VII → Factor IX is part of the intrinsic pathway and VII of the extrinsic pathway, but neither is targeted by activated protein C.
Plasminogen → This is involved in fibrinolysis , not coagulation directly, and is converted to plasmin , which breaks down fibrin clots—not regulated by thrombomodulin.
Think about the type of immune response tuberculosis triggers and the characteristic cheesy appearance seen in the affected tissue on gross examination—what kind of necrosis results from this kind of chronic inflammation?
109 / 109
Category:
Blood – Pathology
Which of the following types of necrosis is seen in a granulomatous infection by Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
Caseous granulomatous necrosis is the classic type of necrosis associated with infections caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis . This form of necrosis is distinguished by the formation of granulomas—collections of activated macrophages, often surrounded by lymphocytes—along with central necrosis that has a soft, white, cheese-like appearance (hence “caseous”).
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
Gangrenous necrosis → Often occurs in limbs due to ischemia; not typical of TB. It may be dry (coagulative) or wet (liquefactive plus infection).
Fibrinoid necrosis → Seen in immune-mediated vascular damage (e.g., in vasculitis or severe hypertension), not in TB.
Liquefactive necrosis → Typically found in brain infarcts and abscesses , where enzymatic digestion dominates.
Non-caseating granuloma → Granulomas without central necrosis; seen in sarcoidosis , Crohn’s disease , or foreign body reactions , not classic TB.
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