BLOOD – 2017

Blood

Blood – 2017

Questions from The 2017 Module + Annual Exam of Blood

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Which diagnostic method involves directly examining a sample of blood under the microscope to identify parasites, and is considered the most accurate and widely used test for malaria?

1 / 120

Category: Blood – Pharmacology

Which of the following is the best test for the diagnosis of malaria?

Microbiological culture

Enzyme-linked immunoassay (ELISA) test

Thick and thin film

Pap smear

Serologic test

Which molecule is directly involved in promoting clot formation, platelet aggregation, and vasoconstriction during an injury or inflammatory process?

2 / 120

Category: Blood – Physiology

Which of the following is not related to inflammation?

Thromboxane

Prostacyclin

COX-2

COX-1

Lipoxin

Which food group is known for its high chlorophyll content and provides a rich source of fat-soluble vitamins like vitamin K?

3 / 120

Category: Blood – Physiology

Which of the following is a major source of vitamin K?

Date

Mother's milk

Meat

Green leafy vegetables

Fish

What percentage of blood volume is made up of cells and cell fragments, which are responsible for oxygen transport and immune function?

4 / 120

Category: Blood – Physiology

What is the volume of the formed elements in blood?

35%

55%

28%

45%

33%

Consider how a drug used to treat stomach acid could unintentionally raise blood levels of another drug by interfering with liver enzymes that break it down.

5 / 120

Category: Blood – Pathology

How does cimetidine inhibit warfarin?

By decreasing antithrombin III formation

By enhancing erythropoiesis

By increasing anticoagulants

Increasing warfarin metabolism/breakdown

By decreasing warfarin metabolism

Which vitamin is essential for enabling clotting factors to bind calcium and function, and is also antagonized by warfarin?

6 / 120

Category: Blood – Biochemistry

Which of the following vitamins do the clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X depend on for their synthesis?

Vitamin K

Vitamin E

Vitamin D

Vitamin A

Vitamin B

If your plasma attacks both A and B antigens, your red cells must have… what? Think about what triggers antibodies in the ABO system.

7 / 120

Category: Blood – Physiology

A person contains both type A and B antibodies. What would his blood group be?

O-

B+

AB+

A-

D

Blood Group	RBC Surface Antigens	Plasma Antibodies
A	A	Anti-B
B	B	Anti-A
AB	A and B	None
O	None	Anti-A and Anti-B

Which pharyngeal pouch gives rise to both a lymphoid organ important for T-cell development and the parathyroid glands that ultimately settle in the inferior position?

8 / 120

Category: Blood – Embryology

The thymus is derived from which of the following?

4th pharyngeal pouch

2nd pharyngeal arch

1st pharyngeal pouch

5th pharengeal arch

3rd pharyngeal pouch

Which primary lymphoid organ is essential for T-cell maturation and is the only one to contain characteristic eosinophilic swirls within its lighter-staining central region?

9 / 120

Category: Blood – Histology

Lymphoid organ with outer darkly staining and inner lightly staining with patches of acidophilic type?

Spleen

Liver

Thymus

Bone marrow

Lymph node

Which immune cells act as “big eaters” and need a cytokine boost to become highly effective killers of intracellular pathogens?

10 / 120

Category: Blood – Pathology

Interferon gamma activates which of the following?

Basophils

T cells

Macrophages

B cells

Mast cells

This value represents the time it takes for a tiny fingertip wound to stop oozing blood under normal platelet function — not too quick, not too long. Think about the body’s first defense mechanism in hemostasis.

11 / 120

Category: Blood – Pathology

What is the normal bleeding time in the Duke method?

15-30 seconds

2-8 minute

1-6 minutes

10-15 minutes

5-10 minutes

Which arm of the adaptive immune system depends on the thymus for maturation — and would therefore be primarily affected if the thymus failed to develop properly?

12 / 120

Category: Blood – Embryology

Regarding DiGeorge syndrome, select the inappropriate one:

B cell immunodeficiency syndrome

Heart and blood vessel enlargement

T cell immunodeficiency syndrome

Defect in 3rd & 4th pharyngeal pouch

Tetany

Which malaria parasite has the ability to infect all ages of red blood cells and is notorious for causing cerebral complications and high mortality if left untreated?

13 / 120

Category: Blood – Pathology

Which malarial parasite causes severe malaria?

Plasmodium vivax

Plasmodium falciparum

Plasmodium ovale

Plasmodium knowlesi

Plasmodium malariae

Which antibiotic disrupts protein synthesis and is often reserved due to its risk of aplastic anemia — but can shift from merely inhibiting to actively killing bacteria at high enough levels?

14 / 120

Category: Blood – Pharmacology

Which drug is bacteriostatic but becomes bactericidal if given in high doses?

Rifampicin

Pyrazinamide

Capreomycin

Isoniazid

Chloramphenicol

Which statistical measure involves squaring the distance of each value from the mean and then averaging it out across all data points?

15 / 120

Category: Blood – Community Medicine / Behavioral Sciences

What is the average sum of squares of the deviation about mean, divided by N is called?

None of these

Absolute deviation

Mean deviation

Standard deviation

Variance

Which cell type has the potential to both self-replicate and give rise to every kind of blood cell, before any lineage commitment begins?

16 / 120

Category: Blood – Histology

All the cells of blood originate from which of the following?

Pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells

Growth and differentiation inducer cells

Megakaryocytes

Committed stem cells

Colony forming unit

Imagine you’re solving a puzzle about oxygen transport, but you only want to open the heavy toolbox when the smaller ones don’t give you answers. Which diagnostic tool might be too “invasive” for your first steps?

17 / 120

Category: Blood – Physiology

Which test is not necessary in initial diagnosis of hemoglobin deficiency?

RBC indices

Blood smear

Bone marrow

Platelet count

WBC count

Some immune cells are like loaded mousetraps: once sensitized, they wait for just one signal — and then unleash a flood of chemical mediators. Consider which cell is “armed” with pre-formed granules, ready to trigger allergic reactions on a moment’s notice.

18 / 120

Category: Blood – Pathology

Type-1 hypersensitivity involves which of the following?

IgG

Neutrophil

Basophil

Mast cell

IgA

Sometimes, the body’s most reactive chemical weapons are formed intentionally — not by accident — in specialized compartments designed to engulf and neutralize invaders. What cellular structure serves as both the battlefield and the arsenal in this immune war?

19 / 120

Category: Blood – Physiology

Radicals are physiologically formed in which of the following?

Nucleus

Cell membrane

Mitochondrion

Proteins

Phagolysosomes

Which enzyme class adds a specific chemical group to help coagulation factors stick to calcium — a step that’s absolutely dependent on vitamin K?

20 / 120

Category: Blood – Biochemistry

Which one of the following enzymes is dependent on vitamin K to help in the formation of coagulation factors?

Oxidase

Carboxylase

Decarboxylase

Dehydrogenase

Transferase

Think about the lineage of red blood cells from stem cells to fully mature forms. At what point does a cell become visibly committed to the erythroid lineage under a microscope, before any major hemoglobin synthesis or nuclear condensation occurs?

21 / 120

Category: Blood – Physiology

What are the first identified cells of red blood cells (RBC) series?

Proerythroblasts

Reticulocyte

Normoblasts

Thrombocyte

Polychromatic erythroblasts

Which test would you use to monitor a drug that works primarily on the intrinsic pathway of coagulation? Think about the cascade and where thrombin inhibition shows up first.

22 / 120

Category: Blood – Pharmacology

Which of the following is prolonged by the administration of low-dose heparin?

Clotting time

Bleeding time and prothrombin time (PT)

Prothrombin time (PT)

Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

Bleeding time

Test	Pathway Assessed	Heparin Affects?
aPTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time)	Intrinsic & common	✅ Prolonged
PT (Prothrombin Time)	Extrinsic & common	❌ Not significantly affected by low-dose heparin
Bleeding Time	Platelet function	❌ Not affected
Clotting Time	Non-specific	May or may not be prolonged; not reliable
Bleeding time and PT	Mixed test – both unaffected by low-dose heparin

Which test would you use to monitor a drug that works primarily on the intrinsic pathway of coagulation? Think about the cascade and where thrombin inhibition shows up first.

23 / 120

Category: Blood – Pharmacology

Which of the following is prolonged by the administration of low-dose heparin?

Bleeding time and prothrombin time (PT)

Clotting time

Prothrombin time (PT)

Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

Bleeding time

Test	Pathway Assessed	Heparin Affects?
aPTT (Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time)	Intrinsic & common	✅ Prolonged
PT (Prothrombin Time)	Extrinsic & common	❌ Not significantly affected by low-dose heparin
Bleeding Time	Platelet function	❌ Not affected
Clotting Time	Non-specific	May or may not be prolonged; not reliable
Bleeding time and PT	Mixed test – both unaffected by low-dose heparin

Among the options, which one seems more involved in building or repairing tissue than in the immediate reaction to injury? Focus on the immediate vascular responses and exclude anything that sounds like regeneration.

24 / 120

Category: Blood – Pathology

Which of the following is not a part of the vascular events of acute inflammation?

Migration of endothelial cells

Attraction of leukocytes to the site of injury

Increased vascular permeability

Diapedesis

Stasis

In acute inflammation, the vascular events are the initial phase of the inflammatory response and involve changes that prepare the affected tissue for the arrival of immune cells. These events occur very rapidly and primarily involve blood vessels. Let’s examine each option in relation to these vascular events:

🔬 Key Vascular Events of Acute Inflammation:

Vasodilation → Increased blood flow
Increased vascular permeability → Allows plasma proteins and leukocytes to exit vessels
Stasis → Slowing of blood flow as fluid leaves vessels and blood becomes more concentrated
Margination and rolling of leukocytes → Cells move toward vessel walls
Diapedesis (Transmigration) → Leukocytes squeeze between endothelial cells to exit circulation
Chemotaxis → Leukocytes are attracted to the site of injury by chemical signals

❌ **Why the Incorrect Options Are Actually Correct (They are part of vascular events):**

Stasis:
Yes, part of the vascular phase. As fluid leaks out of the vessels, blood becomes more viscous, slowing flow and helping leukocytes move to the vessel wall.
Increased vascular permeability:
A hallmark vascular event. Endothelial gaps allow proteins and leukocytes to exit circulation.
Diapedesis:
Also known as transendothelial migration—a direct part of the vascular response that allows immune cells to exit the bloodstream.
Attraction of leukocytes to the site of injury:
This is chemotaxis, which is tightly linked with vascular events, as it follows the leukocyte’s exit from the blood.

✅ Why “Migration of endothelial cells” Is Not a Vascular Event in Acute Inflammation:

Migration of endothelial cells occurs later, during the proliferative or reparative phase of inflammation (particularly in angiogenesis, wound healing, and tissue repair).
It is not a part of the initial vascular response to acute inflammation.
Instead, it plays a role in chronic inflammation or healing, where new blood vessels are formed.

Consider the region of the antibody that varies from one antibody to another, allowing it to recognize a nearly limitless variety of foreign invaders. Which part plays this role of precise recognition?

25 / 120

Category: Blood – Pathology

What is the correct function of Fab fragment of antibodies?

Antigen binding

Binding to cells receptors

Binding to complement proteins

All of these are functions of Fab

Binding to specific proteins

Understanding protein function often requires looking at their structure. In hemoglobin, each chain’s size is carefully balanced for cooperative oxygen binding. Consider the relative lengths of the different globin chains — which might be shorter or longer, and why?

26 / 120

Category: Blood – Biochemistry

How many amino acids does alpha-hemoglobin have?

118

115

141

162

184

Which system gets out of control when an important brake is missing, leading to swelling without itching or redness—and can become dangerous if it affects the throat?

27 / 120

Category: Blood – Pathology

What does a deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor lead to?

Decrease immunity

Increase in anaphylatoxins

Episodes of edema that never resolve

Delay in immune response

Urticaria is a presenting feature

A deficiency of C1 esterase inhibitor (C1-INH) is the hallmark of a rare but serious condition called Hereditary Angioedema (HAE). This protein plays a crucial role in regulating the complement system, which is part of the innate immune response.

So what happens in C1-INH deficiency?

C1-INH normally inhibits C1 (the first component of the classical complement pathway), as well as enzymes like kallikrein and factor XIIa that are involved in bradykinin production.
When C1-INH is deficient or dysfunctional, bradykinin levels rise excessively.
Bradykinin is a potent vasodilator that increases vascular permeability, leading to:
- Recurrent episodes of localized, non-pitting edema, especially of the face, lips, throat, gastrointestinal tract, and extremities.
- These episodes can last for several days and are not associated with urticaria or itching.
- The swelling is often life-threatening if it affects the airway.

❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

Urticaria is a presenting feature

False. In contrast to allergic angioedema, urticaria (hives) is not seen in hereditary angioedema caused by C1-INH deficiency. The edema in HAE is non-pruritic and non-inflammatory.

Decrease immunity

Incorrect. C1-INH deficiency doesn’t directly impair the adaptive immune response or antibody production. It causes inappropriate activation of the complement system, leading to inflammation—not immunodeficiency.

Delay in immune response

Incorrect. The immune response isn’t delayed; rather, there is unregulated activation of parts of the immune system (mainly complement and contact systems). There’s no immunosuppression.

Increase in anaphylatoxins

While anaphylatoxins like C3a and C5a may increase during uncontrolled complement activation, in C1-INH deficiency, the key mediator responsible for symptoms is bradykinin, not anaphylatoxins. So while this is partially true, it’s not the primary or best answer.

Primary health care aims to optimize both access and impact. When thinking about its core values, consider not just what is morally right, but also what ensures services reach everyone effectively — and sustainably.

28 / 120

Category: Blood – Community Medicine / Behavioral Sciences

Primary health care involves which of the following?

Planning, effictiveness, fairness

Resources, planning, situation analysis

Justice, fairness, ethics

Justice, equity, resources

Equity, effectiveness, efficiency

Think about the role of collagen in wound healing: What processes enhance collagen’s strength and structure to make the tissue more resistant to stress? What kind of collagen change could negatively affect the strength of the wound?

29 / 120

Category: Blood – Pathology

Which of the following is not responsible for the tensile strength of a wound during healing?

Structural collagen modifications

Collagen cross linking

Collagen fibrosis

Collagen synthesis

Increase in the size of collagen fibers

Tensile strength refers to the ability of a healed wound to resist stretching or tearing under tension. The healing of a wound involves multiple stages, and the tensile strength of the wound increases as the healing progresses, largely due to changes in the collagen fibers. Let’s understand the key players involved:

Collagen cross-linking:
- Collagen cross-linking is a critical process in which individual collagen fibers become chemically bonded, increasing their strength and stability. This process strengthens the wound and contributes significantly to the tensile strength.
Structural collagen modifications:
- During healing, collagen fibers undergo structural modifications, such as changes in their arrangement and organization, which contribute to the formation of stronger and more durable tissue. These modifications help improve the tensile strength of the wound.
Increase in the size of collagen fibers:
- Collagen fibers increase in size as the wound heals. Larger, thicker collagen fibers provide more strength and improve the tissue’s ability to withstand tension.
Collagen synthesis:
- Collagen synthesis is a fundamental process in wound healing. The production of new collagen fibers is essential to replace the damaged tissue and increase the wound’s tensile strength over time.

❌ Why Collagen Fibrosis is Incorrect:

Collagen fibrosis refers to the abnormal deposition and accumulation of collagen, often seen in pathological conditions like scarring or fibrosis. While collagen fibrosis can occur in certain diseases or chronic conditions, it does not contribute to the tensile strength of the wound in a beneficial way. In fact, excessive or disorganized collagen deposition can lead to weak, nonfunctional scars rather than strengthening the wound.

Fibrosis is often associated with scar tissue formation, where the collagen fibers are not organized properly, leading to decreased tensile strength.

Which learning theory involves consequences influencing behavior, and whose name emphasizes the role of consequences in shaping future actions?

30 / 120

Category: Blood – Community Medicine / Behavioral Sciences

What is another name for operant conditioning?

None of these

Instrumental conditioning

Pavlovian Conditioning

Observational learning

Classical conditioning

Think about how behaviors can be strengthened in the presence of discomfort or unpleasantness. Which method involves taking something away to make the behavior more likely to happen again?

31 / 120

Category: Blood – Community Medicine / Behavioral Sciences

Which of the following is considered as negative reinforcement?

Removal of painful situation will encourage the repetition of behavior

Punishment will encourage the repetition of positive behavior

Punishment will prevent the repetition of behavior

Removal of reward prevent the repetition of behavior

Reward will prevent the repetition of negative behavior

Think of the cell cycle as a tightly regulated sequence of events that ensures the accurate transmission of genetic information. Each phase builds upon the last, with specific tasks like growth, genome duplication, and error-checking assigned to distinct intervals. Ask yourself: what absolutely must happen before a cell can enter mitosis?

32 / 120

Category: Blood – Embryology

Which of the following is the correct statement regarding the cell cycle?

G1 is pre-mitotic phase

I phase is the mitotic phase

G2 is the same as the mitotic phase

S phase is synthesis of organelles

S phase is DNA replication phase

Which vitamin requires a special mechanism of absorption in the stomach and small intestine, and which organ is key to that process? Think about how a loss of stomach function impacts this process.

33 / 120

Category: Blood – Physiology

Gastrectomy requires a lifelong administration of what?

Vitamin B-6

Vitamin C

Vitamin B-12

Vitamin D

Vitamin A

A gastrectomy is a surgical procedure where all or part of the stomach is removed, often due to conditions like cancer, ulcers, or other gastrointestinal disorders. After this surgery, the body may have difficulty absorbing certain nutrients due to the loss of stomach function.

Here’s why Vitamin B-12 is required lifelong after gastrectomy:

Role of the Stomach in Vitamin B-12 Absorption:
- The stomach produces intrinsic factor (a glycoprotein), which is essential for the absorption of vitamin B-12 in the small intestine (specifically in the ileum).
- Without a stomach, intrinsic factor is no longer produced, leading to impaired B-12 absorption.
Lifelong B-12 Supplementation:
- After a gastrectomy, patients often need injections of vitamin B-12 or high-dose oral supplements to avoid B-12 deficiency, which can lead to neurological issues and megaloblastic anemia.
- Since the intrinsic factor is no longer available to help absorb B-12, the body cannot use dietary B-12 properly, necessitating lifelong supplementation.

❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

Vitamin B-6

While Vitamin B-6 is important for many metabolic processes, it is not directly affected by gastrectomy. The body can still absorb B-6 through the small intestine after surgery.

Vitamin A

Vitamin A is fat-soluble and absorbed in the small intestine with the help of bile and dietary fat. It is not significantly impacted by gastrectomy. Therefore, it doesn’t require lifelong supplementation after this procedure.

Vitamin D

Vitamin D absorption primarily occurs in the small intestine and is not directly influenced by gastrectomy. While patients may need additional vitamin D if they have other risk factors, it is not a requirement for lifelong supplementation after gastrectomy.

Vitamin C

Vitamin C is absorbed in the small intestine and is not affected by gastrectomy. Though vitamin C is important for immune function and iron absorption, it does not require lifelong supplementation after gastrectomy.

Think about how your body absorbs iron—what food component can help turn iron into a more usable form for absorption in the digestive tract? Which foods are rich in that component?

34 / 120

Category: Blood – Physiology

The parents of a child with iron-deficiency anemia are being counseled regarding dietary modifications. Which of the following food items should be added to the diet of this child?

Legumes

Rice

Citrus fruits

High-fiber diet

Tea

Think about how the Rb protein acts as a “gatekeeper” in the cell cycle. What role does it play in controlling the passage from the phase before DNA replication to the phase where DNA synthesis occurs?

35 / 120

Category: Blood – Physiology

Which of the following statements regarding the role of retinoblastoma (Rb) gene during the cell cycle is correct?

It promotes the transition from M to G₀ phase

It promotes the transition from G1 to S phase

It promotes the transition from G2 to M phase

It inhibits the transition from G2 to M phase

It inhibits the transition from G1 to S phase

Consider the foundational building blocks of heme. One comes from a metabolic intermediate related to energy production, while the other is an amino acid. Which two substances work together to create the core structure of heme

36 / 120

Category: Blood – Biochemistry

What is pyrrole made up of?

2 Succinyl CoA + 2 glycine

2 Glycine

2 Hb alpha chains

2 Succinyl COA

2 Hb beta chains

Cell classification often relies on subtle differences in structure and lineage. Pay attention to how terminology evolves from function, shape, or developmental origin — and remember that names sometimes hint at one feature while excluding others.

37 / 120

Category: Blood – Histology

Which of the following is the incorrect statement regarding granulocytes?

They contain specific granules

They contain non-specific azurophilic granules

They contain a single nucleus with multiple lobes

Granulocytes are also called myeloid cells

The term polymorph refers to eosinophils

When thinking about cancer risk, consider the substances that cause changes to our DNA or promote abnormal cell growth over time. Which agents are directly linked to this process?

38 / 120

Category: Blood – Pathology

Which of the agents are responsible for causing cancer?

Adenoviruses

Mutagens

Blood transfusion

Nicotine

Carcinogens

Think about how cancer spreads through natural body systems—what pathway involves spreading through bodily fluids and what pathway involves direct contact? One method is less about “flow” and more about “contact.”

39 / 120

Category: Blood – Pathology

What is not a common pathway of metastasis?

Seeding to other body surfaces

Lymphatic spread

Seeding to body cavity

Local invasion

Hematogenous spread

Think about where vitamin B12 is absorbed and where it needs a carrier to help with its uptake. Which cells in the digestive system are critical for this process?

40 / 120

Category: Blood – Physiology

Where does intrinsic factor release from?

Pacemaker cells of the GI tract

D1 cells of pancreas

Interstitial cells of Leydig

Interstitial cells of Cajal

Parietal Cells of the stomach

What test would you use to measure the different types of hemoglobin present in the blood? This test directly assesses the protein that’s being produced in thalassemia.

41 / 120

Category: Blood – Pathology

Which of the following is the gold standard diagnostic test for thalassemia?

Complete blood count (CBC)

Hemoglobin electrophoresis

Red cell distribution width (RDW)

Peripheral blood smear

Polymerase chain reaction

When the body is struggling to make something it’s missing, it often expands the machinery needed to produce it—what happens when that machinery is in your bones?

42 / 120

Category: Blood – Pathology

What does anemia in thalassemia lead to?

Protuberant abdomen

Convulsions

Skeletal deformities

Genetic mutations

Stunted growth

Focus on where the bleeding is: skin, mucosa, or deep tissues? That alone often tells you whether it’s platelets or clotting factors.

43 / 120

Category: Blood – Pathology

A 32-year-old female presented to OPD with bleeding gums, epistaxis, and non-palpable rashes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hemophilia B

Von Willebrand disease

Hemophilia A

Vitamin K deficiency

Platelet disorder

If a drug attacks DNA structure itself rather than a step in the replication or division process, think about whether that means it needs the cell to be actively cycling.

44 / 120

Category: Blood – Pharmacology

Which of the following anti-cancer drug is not a cell cycle specific?

Vincristine

Vinblastine

Bleomycin

Cyclophosphamide

Methotrexate

When thinking about microcytosis and hypochromia, ask: is the problem in making hemoglobin, or in the red blood cell structure? Different causes leave different fingerprints on the blood smear.

45 / 120

Category: Blood – Pathology

In which of the following conditions, round, microcytic, and hypochromic red blood cells are not usually seen in?

Sideroblastic anemia

Iron deficiency anemia

Beta thalassemia major

Beta thalassemia minor

Hereditary spherocytosis

Consider the enzymatic pathways that diverge once arachidonic acid is freed from the membrane. Different enzymes give rise to distinct families of signaling molecules, each with their own roles in inflammation and homeostasis. Which pathway leads to mediators known for attracting leukocytes and tightening airways?

46 / 120

Category: Blood – Pharmacology

Leukotrienes are synthesized by which of the following?

Prostaglandins

Phospholipase A2

Cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1)

Cyclooxygenase 2 (COX-2)

Lipoxygenase

Ask yourself how the drug enters the body—does it go through the skin or mucosa, or does it need an injection or to be swallowed? “Topical” refers to how it’s applied, not just where it works.

47 / 120

Category: Blood – Pharmacology

Which of the following drug is not topical?

None of these

Lidocaine

Estradiol

Nitroglycerin

Streptomycin

Focus on where and how B12 is absorbed. Which body parts are actually involved in its journey—and which ones aren’t part of the process at all?

48 / 120

Category: Blood – Physiology

What does not cause the cobalamin deficiency?

Esophagitis

Inadequate diet

Tape worm infection

Deficiency of intrinsic factor

Pernicious Anemia

Which drug steps in before the immune cell even starts shouting? Trace the message from its spark—not just where it lands.

49 / 120

Category: Blood – Pharmacology

Which immunosuppressant is also a IL-2 inhibitor?

Sirolimus

Cyclosporine

Azathioprine

Daclizumab

Mofetil

Consider how the body handles this compound: it’s stored efficiently, absorbed with the help of intrinsic factors, and can take years to deplete. When something is that conserved and potent, would the daily need be large or minimal?

50 / 120

Category: Blood – Biochemistry

What is the daily requirement for Vitamin B12?

30-35 μg

2-3 μg

0.05-1 μg

10-15 μg

80-100 μg

Not all mediators in the inflammatory response serve to escalate it. Some are designed to signal the system to slow down, turning inflammation off and restoring tissue balance. Consider which of these mediators plays that calming role.

51 / 120

Category: Blood – Pathology

Which of the following is involved in the inhibition of chemotaxis?

Chemokines

Tumor necrosis factor(TNF) and Interleukin-1

C3a and C5a

Prostaglandins

Lipoxin

When considering what regulates a fluid compartment in the body, think about what remains dissolved in that fluid to exert a pulling force across membranes. Consider what would happen to vascular volume if that substance were missing.

52 / 120

Category: Blood – Physiology

Blood plasma level is maintained by which of the following?

Thyroxine

RBCs

Plasma proteins

Estrogen

Testosterone

Consider how drug properties such as absorption, chemical structure, and therapeutic use influence their route of administration. Sometimes, despite being effective, a drug’s bioavailability or tissue penetration may require it to be delivered differently than others in its class.

53 / 120

Category: Blood – Pharmacology

Which anti-TB drug is given parenterally?

Isoniazid

Rifampin

Pyrazinamide

Ethambutol

Streptomycin

Some biological terms describe an outcome, while others describe a process involving change, differentiation, or development. To understand this term correctly, consider whether it’s referring to a final product or the series of events that lead to the formation of functional components in a system.

54 / 120

Category: Blood – Physiology

Hemopoiesis is production of which of the following?

White blood cells

All blood cells

Platelets

Stem cells

Red blood cells

Each drug in this list affects either DNA or cell division — except one that primarily targets prokaryotic ribosomes rather than eukaryotic cellular processes. Think carefully about which drugs are designed to treat malignancies versus those aimed at infections.

55 / 120

Category: Blood – Pharmacology

Which of the following is not an anticancer drug?

Streptomycin

Etoposide

Bleomycin

Vinblastine

Dactinomycin

Think about whether the immune system is reacting to a cell surface it mistakes for foreign. Which hypersensitivity type involves antibodies binding directly to cells, triggering their destruction — rather than depositing in tissues, releasing histamine, or involving T cells?

56 / 120

Category: Blood – Pathology

Hemolytic anemia is the result of which hypersensitivity reaction?

Type 5

Type 2

Type 1

Type 3

Type 4

Different classes of antibodies are specialized for particular locations and functions in the immune system. Consider how the body protects surfaces that are constantly exposed to the external environment — would that require an antibody built to persist and function locally?

57 / 120

Category: Blood – Histology

Which type of antibodies are found in tears and saliva?

IgM

IgG

IgE

IgD

IgA

Consider the embryonic development of the structures involved in immunity and lymphoid tissue. Which pharyngeal pouch is known for giving rise to the tonsils, which play a role in defending the body against infections in the oral and nasal passages?

58 / 120

Category: Blood – Embryology

Palatine tonsil is derived from which of the following?

2nd pharyngeal pouch

3rd pharyngeal arch

2nd pharyngeal arch

1st pharyngeal pouch

3rd pharyngeal pouch

Consider the body’s first line of defense against pathogens that enter through the mucosal surfaces, such as the respiratory and digestive tracts. What antibody would be most strategically placed to neutralize these pathogens before they can cause harm?

59 / 120

Category: Blood – Physiology

Which antibody is found in the respiratory and digestive lining, as well as the saliva, tears, and breast milk?

IgM

IgG

IgA

IgD

IgE

To understand the role of IgA, let’s break down the functions and locations of the antibodies listed in the options.

1. IgD

Incorrect: IgD is mainly found on the surface of B cells and plays a role in initiating B cell activation. It is not found in significant amounts in body secretions such as saliva, tears, or breast milk. It mainly serves as a receptor for antigens in the immune response rather than being secreted in bodily fluids.

2. IgE

Incorrect: IgE is involved in allergic reactions and responses to parasites. It binds to mast cells and basophils, triggering the release of histamine during an allergic response. While IgE plays a role in allergic reactions, it is not typically found in the respiratory and digestive lining, saliva, tears, or breast milk.

3. IgG

Incorrect: IgG is the most abundant antibody in blood plasma and plays a crucial role in fighting bacterial and viral infections. Although IgG is involved in systemic immunity and can cross the placenta to provide passive immunity to a fetus, it is not the predominant antibody found in body secretions like saliva, tears, and breast milk. IgG is primarily located in the bloodstream.

4. IgM

Incorrect: IgM is the first antibody produced during an initial immune response. It is found in blood and lymph but is not the primary antibody in secretions like saliva, tears, or breast milk. IgM exists as a pentamer (five antibody molecules) and is primarily involved in the early stages of infection by activating the complement system.

5. IgA

Correct: IgA is the antibody predominantly found in mucosal areas of the body, including the respiratory tract, digestive tract, and urogenital tract. It is also found in bodily secretions like saliva, tears, breast milk, and mucus. IgA plays a key role in mucosal immunity by preventing pathogens from attaching to the epithelial cells of mucosal surfaces, thereby protecting against infections at these entry points. IgA is typically found in dimeric form (two antibody units) in secretions.

Think about the body’s response to low oxygen levels—what organ would be most sensitive to these changes and could regulate red blood cell production to compensate for the lack of oxygen?

60 / 120

Category: Blood – Physiology

Erythropoietin is primarily formed in which organ?

Bone marrow

Brain

Kidneys

Spleen

Liver

Let’s break down each option to explain why “Kidneys” is the correct answer and why the others are incorrect.

1. Bone marrow

Incorrect: The bone marrow is the site of erythropoiesis (the production of red blood cells), but it is not the primary site for the formation of erythropoietin. Instead, the bone marrow responds to erythropoietin by stimulating the production of RBCs. Erythropoietin is a hormone that signals the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells in response to low oxygen levels in the body.

2. Kidneys

Correct: The kidneys are the primary site for the production of erythropoietin (EPO). EPO is produced in response to low oxygen levels (hypoxia) in the blood. Specialized cells in the kidneys, particularly in the juxtaglomerular apparatus, sense oxygen levels and release erythropoietin, which stimulates the bone marrow to increase red blood cell production. This is a key mechanism in maintaining oxygen levels in the body.

3. Liver

Incorrect: While the liver does produce erythropoietin in fetal life, after birth, the primary source of erythropoietin shifts to the kidneys. The liver’s role in erythropoietin production is not as prominent in adults as it is during fetal development. The liver can contribute to erythropoietin production during periods of chronic hypoxia, but the kidneys remain the main organ.

4. Brain

Incorrect: The brain does not play a significant role in the production of erythropoietin. The brain may be involved in other regulatory functions related to oxygen and blood flow, but it does not secrete erythropoietin for the regulation of red blood cell production.

5. Spleen

Incorrect: The spleen is involved in filtering and breaking down old red blood cells and storing red blood cells, but it does not produce erythropoietin. The spleen can release certain cytokines and assist in immune functions, but it does not play a role in erythropoietin synthesis.

Consider the unique job of RBCs in oxygen transport. If they are tasked with carrying oxygen efficiently, what kinds of metabolic processes would they rely on, and what might they lack to make this process as efficient as possible?

61 / 120

Category: Blood – Physiology

Which of the following is correct about red blood cells (RBCs)?

They are nucleated

They contain all usual cellular organelles

Their first stage of development is the reticulocyte

They generate energy primarily via lipolysis

They contain carbonic anhydrase

Let’s go through each statement to understand why “They contain carbonic anhydrase” is correct and why the others are incorrect.

1. “They contain all usual cellular organelles”

Incorrect: Red blood cells (RBCs) do not contain most of the usual cellular organelles found in other cells, such as a nucleus, mitochondria, and endoplasmic reticulum. This is a key characteristic of mature RBCs. The lack of a nucleus allows the RBCs to have more space for hemoglobin, which is essential for oxygen transport. The lack of mitochondria means that RBCs rely on anaerobic metabolism (glycolysis) for energy production.

2. “They contain carbonic anhydrase”

Correct: RBCs contain carbonic anhydrase, an enzyme that plays a crucial role in the carbon dioxide transport process. Carbonic anhydrase catalyzes the reversible conversion of carbon dioxide and water into carbonic acid, which then dissociates into bicarbonate and hydrogen ions. This reaction is vital for maintaining the acid-base balance and helps RBCs transport carbon dioxide from tissues to the lungs for exhalation.

3. “Their first stage of development is the reticulocyte”

Incorrect: The first stage of RBC development is the proerythroblast, not the reticulocyte. The reticulocyte is an immature RBC that has just lost its nucleus. It is the last step before mature RBCs and still contains some ribosomal RNA. Reticulocytes are released into the bloodstream, where they mature into fully functional RBCs within 1-2 days.

4. “They are nucleated”

Incorrect: Mature RBCs are not nucleated. As part of their maturation process, RBCs lose their nucleus. This allows more room for hemoglobin and optimizes their function as oxygen carriers. However, immature RBCs (like erythroblasts) do have a nucleus. Nucleated RBCs are often seen in certain pathological conditions (e.g., bone marrow disorders).

5. “They generate energy primarily via lipolysis”

Incorrect: RBCs do not primarily generate energy through lipolysis. Since RBCs lack mitochondria, they cannot perform aerobic respiration or utilize fatty acids for energy production. Instead, RBCs generate energy primarily via anaerobic glycolysis, where glucose is converted to lactic acid without the need for oxygen.

Think about how colors are used to visualize different cell types in the laboratory. If one type of cell contains specific granules, which dye would most likely highlight its features? Consider the chemistry of dyes and the properties of these granules.

62 / 120

Category: Blood – Physiology

Pick the incorrect statement about leukocytes:

Neutrophils are polymorph

Neutrophil specific granules have affinity for methylene blue

Granulocytes originate from myeloid lineage

Eosinophils are anti-parasitic

Granulocytes can be differentiated by stain

Let’s break down each statement to understand why “Neutrophil specific granules have affinity for methylene blue” is incorrect, and why the others are correct.

1. “Neutrophils are polymorph”

Correct: The term “polymorph” (or “polymorphonuclear”) refers to the multilobed nucleus of neutrophils. This characteristic is essential for neutrophils, which can have a nucleus with two to five lobes. Thus, neutrophils are often described as polymorphonuclear leukocytes.

2. “Granulocytes can be differentiated by stain”

Correct: Granulocytes (which include neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils) can indeed be differentiated by staining techniques. For example, neutrophils often stain with neutral dyes, eosinophils with acidic dyes (eosin), and basophils with basic dyes (such as methylene blue). This makes it easy to distinguish the types of granulocytes under the microscope.

3. “Eosinophils are anti-parasitic”

Correct: Eosinophils are specialized in combating parasitic infections, particularly those caused by helminths (worms). They release toxic proteins and enzymes stored in their granules, which can kill or damage parasites. Additionally, eosinophils are involved in allergic reactions, particularly IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reactions.

4. “Granulocytes originate from myeloid lineage”

Correct: Granulocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils) originate from the myeloid lineage in the bone marrow. The myeloid lineage produces all types of blood cells except for T lymphocytes and B lymphocytes, which come from the lymphoid lineage. This is an important distinction in hematopoiesis (the formation of blood cells).

5. “Neutrophil specific granules have affinity for methylene blue”

Incorrect: This statement is incorrect. Neutrophil specific granules do not have an affinity for methylene blue, a basic dye. Methylene blue typically stains acidic structures, while neutrophil granules contain alkaline enzymes and are often better visualized with neutral or basic stains (such as Wright’s stain or Giemsa stain). The specific granules of neutrophils contain alkaline phosphatase, lysozyme, and lactoferrin, which are not attracted to methylene blue.

Leukocytes are like security guards that are always on patrol. But what happens when they actually “spot” something suspicious? Do they spring into action while still in the bloodstream, or do they need to first move to the site of the problem?

63 / 120

Category: Blood – Physiology

Pick the incorrect statement regarding leukocytes:

Macrophages and neutrophils are important phagocytes

Some contain specific granules

Leukocytes are functionally active in circulation

They have one multilobed nucleus

They are nonspecific phagocytes

Let’s break down the statement and understand why “Leukocytes are functionally active in circulation” is incorrect, along with why the other statements are true.

1. “They have one multilobed nucleus”

Correct: This statement refers to neutrophils (a type of leukocyte), which are granulocytes. Neutrophils typically have a multilobed nucleus. Other leukocytes, such as monocytes, may have a kidney-shaped nucleus, but this characteristic is true for many granulocytes like neutrophils.

2. “They are nonspecific phagocytes”

Correct: Leukocytes, especially neutrophils and monocytes/macrophages, are considered nonspecific phagocytes because they are part of the innate immune system, meaning they are capable of engulfing and destroying a variety of pathogens, but they do not have the specificity of the adaptive immune response (i.e., no memory for specific pathogens).

3. “Macrophages and neutrophils are important phagocytes”

Correct: Macrophages and neutrophils are key players in the phagocytosis process. Macrophages act as the body’s “clean-up” cells and are involved in both innate and adaptive immunity. Neutrophils are the first responders to bacterial infections and are highly efficient at phagocytosis.

4. “Leukocytes are functionally active in circulation”

Incorrect: This is the incorrect statement. Leukocytes, although they circulate in the bloodstream, are not functionally active while in circulation. Their main role in circulation is to patrol the blood for signs of infection or injury. Once they detect a threat, they migrate out of the bloodstream and into tissues via a process called diapedesis. There, they become functionally active and perform tasks like phagocytosis and immune response activation.

5. “Some contain specific granules”

Correct: Many leukocytes, especially granulocytes (e.g., neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils), contain specific granules that store enzymes and antimicrobial substances. These granules are released during immune responses, particularly during infection or allergic reactions.

Imagine a factory that produces two key components essential for a complex machine. What happens to the machine’s functionality if a critical shared assembly line within the factory breaks down?

64 / 120

Category: Blood – Pathology

Which of the following cells’ development is impaired in severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)?

NK cells, B cells and T cells

T cells only

NK cells and B cells

T cells and B cells

NK cells only

Why T cells and B cells are Impaired in SCID:

Severe combined immunodeficiency is characterized by a fundamental defect in the development and function of both T lymphocytes and B lymphocytes. These two arms of the adaptive immune system are critically dependent on shared developmental pathways and signaling molecules. Genetic defects underlying SCID often disrupt these common elements, leading to a profound deficiency in both T and B cell populations.

Disrupted Lymphoid Development: Many of the genetic mutations associated with SCID affect crucial steps in the differentiation and maturation of lymphoid progenitor cells into functional T and B cells. For example, defects in genes involved in V(D)J recombination (like RAG1 and RAG2), cytokine receptor signaling (like the common gamma chain, ), or purine metabolism (like adenosine deaminase, ADA) can severely impair the development of both T and B cell lineages.
Lack of Functional Adaptive Immunity: Without functional T and B cells, the body is severely compromised in its ability to mount adaptive immune responses. T cells are essential for cell-mediated immunity (directly killing infected cells and regulating other immune cells) and for providing help to B cells for antibody production. B cells are responsible for producing antibodies, which are crucial for neutralizing pathogens and marking them for destruction. The absence or dysfunction of both of these cell types leaves individuals with SCID highly susceptible to a wide range of severe and recurrent infections.

Why the Other Options are Incorrect:

NK cells, B cells and T cells: While some forms of SCID can indeed affect NK cell development or function, it’s not a universal characteristic of all SCID subtypes. The defining feature of SCID is the severe deficiency in both T and B cells. Some SCID variants may have normal or even elevated numbers of non-functional NK cells.
NK cells and B cells: This is incorrect because the “combined” aspect of severe combined immunodeficiency specifically refers to the impairment of both T and B cells.
T cells only: This describes a selective T cell deficiency, not SCID. While isolated T cell deficiencies exist and can cause significant immunodeficiency, SCID involves a combined defect of both major adaptive immune cell types.
NK cells only: This would represent a primary NK cell deficiency, which, while clinically significant, is distinct from SCID.

When evaluating immune deficiencies, consider whether the problem lies in the part of the immune system responsible for making antibodies, and then ask—are both the arms (B and T cells) equally impaired?

65 / 120

Category: Blood – Pathology

Which of the following is true regarding Bruton’s disease?

T cells are not affected

B cells undergo maturation

B cells are not affected

Is charectarized by defect in phagolysosome synthesis

Is autosomal dominent

Consider what must happen first when a blood vessel is injured—how do platelets know where to go and how to stick there before forming a plug?

66 / 120

Category: Blood – Physiology

Von Willibrand factor (VWF) is responsible for which of the following?

Attachment of platelets to endothelial wall

Production of cytokines

Repair of endothelium

Production of collagen

Attachment of platelets to each other

Among the listed options, which one is central to your immune system’s memory—capable of specifically recognizing and neutralizing invaders like viruses and bacteria?

67 / 120

Category: Blood – Physiology

Which of the following is an example of gamma globulins in circulation?

Immunoglobulin

Transferrin

Agglutinogen

Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)

Albumin

If you think of the coagulation cascade as a machine, which system acts like a pair of scissors to cut down two of the most important components keeping the machinery running?

68 / 120

Category: Blood – Physiology

Protein C and S are involved in which of the following?

Cleavage of clotting factors

Clotting

Decreasing bleeding time

Fibrinolysis

Enhancing chemotaxis

If platelets were soldiers, which drug would stop them from receiving the call to assemble—by cutting off their ADP communication line—rather than disabling their weapons or armor?

69 / 120

Category: Blood – Pharmacology

Which drug inhibits the ADP pathway of the platelet aggregation?

Abciximab

Tirofiban

Clopidogrel

Aspirin

None of these

Among all the immunoglobulins, one uniquely binds to mast cells and basophils, lying silently in wait—until an allergen returns to cause a dramatic, rapid reaction. Which one behaves like a molecular “tripwire”?

70 / 120

Category: Blood – Pathology

What are the antibodies involved in immediate hypersensitivity?

IgG

IgA

IgD

IgM

IgE

Think about which antibody is most famous for crossing the placenta and for targeting specific cell surface markers—it’s the one you often see in autoimmune hemolytic anemia, not in allergic reactions or delayed immune responses.

71 / 120

Category: Blood – Pathology

Which of the following are involved in type-2 hypersensitivity reactions?

IgG immunoglobulins

Antigen-antibody complexes

CD8 cells

CD4 cells

IgE immunoglobulins

When considering which agent activates plasminogen without help, think about whether the substance works independently or needs to first “make friends” (i.e., bind cofactors or form complexes) before getting the job done.

72 / 120

Category: Blood – Pharmacology

Which of the following agents directly activates plasminogen?

Urokinase

Streptokinase

Warfarin

Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)

Heparin

While genetic factors play a role in primary immunodeficiencies, secondary immunodeficiencies arise from environmental or acquired causes. What external factors might alter the immune system’s ability to function properly?

73 / 120

Category: Blood – Pathology

Which of the following is incorrect regarding secondary immunodeficiencies?

Occur later in life

They are genetically determined

Result from infections, malnutrition, or treatment

Can cause an increased incidence of certain cancers

Most common form is AIDS

Consider the detective work involved in an outbreak. The index case is like the first clue that starts the investigation, not necessarily the most dramatic or dangerous part of the story.

74 / 120

Category: Blood – Community Medicine / Behavioral Sciences

How would ‘index case’ be defined?

Most symptomatic case

An average case

Least symptomatic case

Most lethal case

First identified case

In the chain of transmission, think of who “starts the fire” versus who gets “burned by it” first. The terminology often reflects the order of appearance in an outbreak.

75 / 120

Category: Blood – Community Medicine / Behavioral Sciences

A secondary case is infected by which of the following?

Quaternary case

None of the options are correct

Another secondary case

Tertiary case

Primary case

When considering immune complex diseases, think about whether the site of antigen exposure might influence where the complexes form—and whether antibodies can interact with antigens outside of the bloodstream.

76 / 120

Category: Blood – Pathology

Which is incorrect about type III hypersensitivity?

Immune complexes are formed only in circulation

This type of reaction occurs in SLE

Involve antigen-antibody reactions

They are also formed in extravascular tissues

Immune complexes formed are in circulation

Consider which option involves immune responses that are not driven by antibodies but by the direct activation of T cells and macrophages—typically resulting in a delayed response.

77 / 120

Category: Blood – Pathology

Which of the following is an example of a type IV hypersensitivity reaction?

Graves disease

Serum sickness

Contact dermatitis

Arthus reaction

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

Imagine iron as money: some is actively being spent (used), some is being transferred between accounts, but a significant portion is safely locked away in a savings account—ready when needed. Which proteins are doing the saving?

78 / 120

Category: Blood – Physiology

What are ferritin and hemosiderin classified as?

Iron binding proteins

Stored form of iron

Transport form of iron

Plasma iron

None of these

Consider what structural features of a red blood cell allow it to squeeze through narrow capillaries and the spleen—and what would happen if the proteins responsible for that flexibility were faulty.

79 / 120

Category: Blood – Physiology

What defects are found in hereditary spherocytosis?

None of these

Hyperchromic red blood cells and weak spectrin

Hypochromic and microcytic red blood cells

Hyperchromic and microcytic red blood cells

Improperly formed or weak spectrin, band 3, 4.2, and ankyrin proteins

When the immune system responds to infections in areas like the throat, ears, or sinuses, which nearby region would act as the first line of filtration and immune surveillance?

80 / 120

Category: Blood – Anatomy

Lymphadenopathy is most commonly seen in which of the following regions?

Chest

Abdomen

Neck

Head

Arms

Imagine trying to absorb nutrients that dissolve in oil, but suddenly, your body can’t release the digestive fluid that breaks down fats. Which group of nutrients would you struggle to absorb—and which one of them is essential to stopping a cut from bleeding?

81 / 120

Category: Blood – Biochemistry

Obstructive jaundice leads to the deficiency of:

Ca+2 ions

Vitamin B12

Vitamin K

Vitamin C

Vitamin B9

Think about the energy needs of a cell that’s on a long journey through narrow capillaries, delivering vital cargo, but without the usual cellular machinery like mitochondria. How might it fuel itself while keeping its payload untouched?

82 / 120

Category: Blood – Physiology

Which of the following is correct regarding erythrocytes?

They are hemoglobin containing pigments

They form ATP anaerobically

They consume the oxygen they carry

Become macrocytes in infection

Are nucleated cells

To answer this, consider the point at which human development begins and trace it through the full course of pregnancy. When does a human being begin to form, and what marks the end of that internal developmental phase?

83 / 120

Category: Blood – Embryology

What is prenatal age?

After birth

From 6 months after conception to birth

From 3 months after conception to birth

From conception to birth

From birth till 1 year after

Think about which of these substances would be used not to dissolve clots but to help preserve them — for instance, in a situation where bleeding must be stopped. Consider the difference between promoting and inhibiting enzymes involved in breaking down fibrin.

84 / 120

Category: Blood – Pharmacology

Which of the following substances is a plasminogen activator inhibitor?

Vitamin K

Urokinase

Aminocaproic acid

Fresh frozen plasma

Streptokinase

Consider which immune cells must rely on charged proteins to disrupt large invaders that can’t be engulfed like bacteria. Think about how charge might help a molecule stick to or disrupt a foreign surface.

85 / 120

Category: Blood – Histology

Major cationic protein is present in the granules of which cell?

Mast cells

Neutrophils

Monocytes

Basophils

Eosinophils

Think about where a virus hijacks cellular machinery to replicate itself. Cytotoxic T cells target cells that present internal danger signals — so consider the compartment where those signals originate and where programmed cell death is executed.

86 / 120

Category: Blood – Pathology

Cytotoxic T cells destroy microbes in which part of the cell?

Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Cytoplasm

Cell membrane

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

Golgi Apparatus

While most lymphoid organs rely on connective tissue to maintain their structure, one uniquely relies on a cell type typically found lining body surfaces. Consider in which organ might the microenvironment demand a more active interaction with developing immune cells, beyond just filtration or surveillance?

87 / 120

Category: Blood – Histology

The specialized epithelium is present in which of the following lymphoid organ?

Thymus

Spleen

Tonsils

Lymphoid tissue

Lymph nodes

Within the adaptive immune system, consider the origin of cells specialized for large-scale production of a very specific protein. Think about which lineages are responsible for tailoring the immune response to antigens, and how they divide their labor between signaling and secretion.

88 / 120

Category: Blood – Physiology

Which of the following is a precursor for plasma cells?

T lymphocytes

Red blood cells

B lymphocytes

Megakaryocytes

Platelets

Different white blood cells contribute to the immune response in specialized ways, and their granular contents reflect these distinct roles. Think about why certain cells might need to store particular substances — and how their functions align with their molecular arsenal.

89 / 120

Category: Blood – Histology

Which of the following characteristic is INCORRECT about basophils?

Contain lobed nuclei

Contain major basic proteins

Have basophilic cytoplasm

Contain blue/purple staining granules

Release histamine

Among all plasma proteins, consider which one not only dominates in quantity but also plays a role in stabilizing the circulatory environment — from osmotic balance to transport — across almost every system in the body.

90 / 120

Category: Blood – Biochemistry

Which of the following is a major plasma protein?

Haptoglobin

Immunoglobulin

Prothrombin

Albumin

Transferrin

Some pathways are activated by internal surfaces, without external trauma. Think about which factors can be triggered just by exposure to things like collagen, or basement membrane — and which one starts that domino effect within the blood itself.

91 / 120

Category: Blood – Physiology

Which factor takes part in the intrinsic pathway?

Heparin-like factor

Factor II

Hageman factor

Factor VII

Rheumatoid factor

In the pathway from heme breakdown to excretion, imagine a traffic system. If everything upstream is functioning — breakdown, processing, packaging — but the final exit ramp is blocked, where would the backup occur, and what would build up in the bloodstream?

92 / 120

Category: Blood – Pathology

In which disease is the conjugated bilirubin not being transported outside the liver?

Physiological Jaundice of the newborn

Criglar Najjar syndrome

Gilberts syndrome

Hemolytic anemia

Dubin Johnson syndrome

Consider not just the clinical presentation but also the specific clotting pathway involved, the inheritance pattern, and the historical or clinical naming conventions.

93 / 120

Category: Blood – Pathology

Which of the following is true for hemophilia B?

Can be transmitted from father to daughter

Is an autosomal disorder

Also called Christmas disease

Can be treated by anticoagulants

Is characterized by a marked decrease in coagulation time

Consider how the body rapidly responds to minor injuries before any clotting factors even get involved. Think about the earliest players in hemostasis — what part of the process occurs on the front lines, at the very moment a vessel is breached, and how long that should reasonably take?

94 / 120

Category: Blood – Physiology

Which of the following is considered normal bleeding time?

5-10 minutes

15-20 minutes

6-20 minutes

30-50 seconds

2-5 minutes

Think about charge interactions. If one drug is highly negatively charged and acts quickly, what kind of agent might best neutralize it in an emergency setting — and what kind of biological relationship (charge, binding) would that require?

95 / 120

Category: Blood – Pharmacology

Which drug is used for the reversal of heparin?

Bivalirudin

Enoxaparin

Protamine sulfate

Warfarin

Vitamin K

MHC Class III doesn’t directly deal with the presentation of antigens like Class I or II. Instead, think of it as the backstage crew in the immune response — they help the “frontline workers” (like complement proteins and cytokines) do their job. Which molecular players do you think are essential for activation and coordination of the immune system?

96 / 120

Category: Blood – Pathology

What do Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class III loci consists of?

HLA-A, HLA-B, HLA-C

HLA-DP, HLA-B, HLA-DR

C5a, C3a, C4

C2, C4, TNF, LT

HLA-DP, HLA-DQ, HLA-DR

The Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) is a group of genes that plays a crucial role in the immune response by helping the body distinguish between self and non-self. The MHC is divided into Class I, Class II, and Class III regions, each with different roles in immunity.

MHC Class I: Includes genes like HLA-A, HLA-B, and HLA-C, which are involved in presenting antigens to CD8+ cytotoxic T cells. These are primarily expressed on almost all nucleated cells.
MHC Class II: Includes genes like HLA-DR, HLA-DQ, and HLA-DP, which are responsible for presenting antigens to CD4+ helper T cells and are typically found on antigen-presenting cells like dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells.
MHC Class III: This region is not involved in antigen presentation but rather contains genes that encode proteins essential for immune response, including components of the complement system and cytokines.

What Does the MHC Class III Region Consist Of?

The MHC Class III loci contain genes that code for:

Complement system proteins (e.g., C2, C4, and C3).
Cytokines involved in immune regulation (e.g., TNF – Tumor Necrosis Factor and LT – Lymphotoxin).

These components are part of the innate immune system and help facilitate inflammation, pathogen destruction, and other immune processes.

The Correct Answer:

C2, C4, TNF, LT

C2 and C4 are part of the complement system, which is involved in immune responses like pathogen lysis and inflammation.
TNF and LT are cytokines involved in regulating immune cell functions, inflammation, and tissue repair.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

HLA-A, HLA-B, HLA-C:
- These are part of MHC Class I, not Class III. They are involved in presenting antigens to CD8+ T cells.
HLA-DP, HLA-DQ, HLA-DR:
- These are part of MHC Class II and are involved in presenting antigens to CD4+ T cells, not in the Class III region.
HLA-DP, HLA-B, HLA-DR:
- This combination is incorrect as it includes MHC Class I and Class II alleles. There are no Class III alleles here.
C5a, C3a, C4:
- These are complement proteins involved in the immune response, but C5a and C3a are anaphylatoxins, not typically categorized as MHC Class III components. This option is partially correct but doesn’t fully represent the Class III region.

Think of MHC molecules as “bouncers” at an immune system club. MHC Class I is a bouncer that checks ID (antigens) to make sure the person (cell) is allowed in, specifically looking for “marks” that indicate cytotoxic T cells should act. MHC Class II, on the other hand, checks in groups of helper cells. What might you expect the bouncer at this “helper cell club” to look for?

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Category: Blood – Pathology

Which of the following are Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) Class II alleles?

HLA-DR, HLA-DQ, HL-C

HLA-A, HLB-DQ, HL-DP

C2, C4, TNF

HLA-DR, HLA-DQ, HL-DP

HLA-A, HLA-B, HL-C

The Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) molecules are critical for immune system function. They help present antigens to T cells, which is a central step in the immune response. MHC molecules are classified into Class I and Class II, based on their structure and the types of immune cells they interact with.

Key Differences Between MHC Class I and Class II:

MHC Class I molecules (e.g., HLA-A, HLA-B, HLA-C) are present on nearly all nucleated cells in the body and present antigens to CD8+ cytotoxic T cells.
MHC Class II molecules (e.g., HLA-DR, HLA-DQ, HLA-DP) are primarily expressed on antigen-presenting cells (such as dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells) and present antigens to CD4+ helper T cells.

In this question, we are asked to identify MHC Class II alleles.

The Correct Answer:

HLA-DR, HLA-DQ, HLA-DP

HLA-DR, HLA-DQ, and HLA-DP are all MHC Class II alleles. These molecules are crucial for presenting exogenous antigens to CD4+ T cells, which is an important step in the immune response, particularly in generating adaptive immunity.
- HLA-DR: The most studied and clinically significant Class II allele.
- HLA-DQ and HLA-DP: Other important Class II alleles involved in antigen presentation.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

HLA-A, HLA-B, HLA-C:
- These are MHC Class I molecules, not Class II. They present antigens to CD8+ T cells. This set of alleles is crucial for cell-mediated immunity but does not belong to the Class II category.
HLA-DR, HLA-DQ, HL-C:
- HLA-DR and HLA-DQ are correct as Class II alleles, but HL-C is a typo or incorrect. The correct allele should be HLA-DP (not HL-C), which is another Class II molecule. Therefore, this option is incorrect due to the inclusion of “HL-C”.
HLA-A, HLB-DQ, HL-DP:
- HLA-A is a Class I molecule, and HLB-DQ is a typographical error. The correct term should be HLA-DQ (a Class II molecule). HL-DP should be HLA-DP. So, this option is incorrect because of errors in the nomenclature.
C2, C4, TNF:
- These are complement proteins and cytokines, not MHC molecules. C2 and C4 are part of the complement system, and TNF (Tumor Necrosis Factor) is a cytokine involved in inflammation and immune response. These are not involved in antigen presentation by MHC Class I or II molecules.

Imagine a series of dominos set up in a row. When one domino falls, it causes the next to fall, and this chain continues until the last domino falls, completing the sequence. Now, if one specific domino in the chain is removed, what impact does that have on the rest of the sequence? Think about the role of a “missing piece” in a chain reaction and how it can disrupt the process of clotting.

98 / 120

Category: Blood – Pathology

Which coagulation factor is deficient in hemophilia A?

VIII

II

IX

V

XI

Hemophilia A is a genetic bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency of coagulation factor VIII (Factor VIII). To understand why this is the correct answer, let’s break down the coagulation cascade, the role of different clotting factors, and how their deficiencies lead to different types of hemophilia.

Coagulation Cascade Overview:

The coagulation cascade involves a series of enzymes (coagulation factors) that work together to form a blood clot. This process occurs in several stages, and the factors are numbered in the order they were discovered, starting from Factor I (Fibrinogen), which eventually becomes part of the clot. The cascade is typically divided into three pathways:

Intrinsic pathway (involves factors VIII, IX, XI, and XII)
Extrinsic pathway (involves Factor VII)
Common pathway (involves factors II, V, X, and fibrinogen)

Factor VIII plays a critical role in the intrinsic pathway. It acts as a cofactor for Factor IX, helping it activate Factor X, which is essential for the final stages of clot formation.

The Role of Factor VIII in Hemophilia A:

Deficiency of Factor VIII leads to hemophilia A, which is the most common form of hemophilia. It causes difficulty in forming blood clots, leading to excessive bleeding, even from minor injuries.
People with hemophilia A experience bleeding into joints (hemarthrosis), muscles, and soft tissues, and may have spontaneous bleeding episodes, especially without proper treatment.
The condition is inherited in an X-linked recessive manner, meaning it predominantly affects males. Females can be carriers, typically showing no symptoms.

Why the Incorrect Options are Wrong:

Factor XI:
- A deficiency in Factor XI causes hemophilia C, which is a milder form of bleeding disorder compared to hemophilia A. It is not X-linked and is more common in certain populations (such as Ashkenazi Jews).
- This option is incorrect because it is not related to hemophilia A.
Factor IX:
- A deficiency in Factor IX leads to hemophilia B (also called Christmas disease), a separate condition from hemophilia A.
- While hemophilia B also causes excessive bleeding, it is caused by a different factor (Factor IX), not Factor VIII.
- This option is incorrect because it pertains to hemophilia B.
Factor II (Prothrombin):
- A deficiency of Factor II leads to a rare bleeding disorder called hypoprothrombinemia. This is different from hemophilia, as it affects the final stages of the coagulation cascade and does not specifically involve the intrinsic pathway.
- This option is incorrect because Factor II is not involved in hemophilia A.
Factor V:
- A deficiency of Factor V results in parahemophilia, which is another type of bleeding disorder but not hemophilia A. Like Factor II, it affects the common pathway of the coagulation cascade, not the intrinsic pathway.
- This option is incorrect because Factor V is not involved in hemophilia A.

consider the sentinels guarding the gates of a city. Which sentinels are positioned to immediately identify any unfamiliar individual attempting to enter, regardless of their purpose?

99 / 120

Category: Blood – Pathology

What is the most major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class for transplant determination?

MHC class II

None of these

MHC class III

MHC class I

All of these

hy MHC Class I is the Most Major for Transplant Determination:

Ubiquitous Expression: MHC class I molecules are expressed on the surface of virtually all nucleated cells in the body. This widespread presence means that the immune system constantly surveys these molecules to ensure that the cells are “self.” When a transplanted organ, bearing foreign MHC class I molecules, is introduced, it immediately triggers a strong immune response because these “non-self” markers are present on almost every cell of the graft.
Cytotoxic T Cell Recognition: The primary effector cells responsible for rejecting transplanted organs are cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs), also known as CD8+ T cells. These CTLs recognize foreign antigens presented on MHC class I molecules. When CTLs encounter a transplanted cell displaying non-self MHC class I, they become activated and directly kill the graft cells. This direct cytotoxic killing is a major pathway of acute graft rejection.
Central Role in Acute Rejection: Acute rejection is the most common and often the most aggressive form of transplant rejection, typically occurring within days to weeks after transplantation. The mismatch in MHC class I molecules is a primary driver of this rapid and destructive response.

Why the Other Options are Incorrect:

MHC Class II: MHC class II molecules are primarily expressed on the surface of antigen-presenting cells (APCs), such as dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells. While MHC class II plays a critical role in initiating the immune response by presenting processed foreign antigens to helper T cells (CD4+ T cells), its direct role in the effector phase of acute rejection, mediated by CTLs, is less dominant than that of MHC class I. Helper T cells activated by foreign MHC class II on donor APCs can contribute to rejection by releasing cytokines that enhance CTL activity and promote inflammation, but the initial and direct recognition of the graft as foreign is largely through MHC class I.
MHC Class III: MHC class III region of the human leukocyte antigen (HLA) complex (which encodes MHC molecules) contains genes that encode for various components of the complement system and inflammatory cytokines. While these components are undoubtedly involved in the immune response and can contribute to graft rejection, they are not directly involved in the fundamental recognition of “self” versus “non-self” on the surface of the transplanted cells in the same way that MHC class I and II molecules are. MHC class III products are soluble proteins, not cell surface molecules that serve as the primary targets for direct T cell recognition of the graft.
None of these: As we’ve established, MHC class I plays a central and critical role in transplant determination. Therefore, this option is incorrect.
All of these: While MHC class II and, indirectly, MHC class III components contribute to the overall immune response against a graft, MHC class I is the most major determinant due to its ubiquitous expression and direct recognition by the primary effector cells of acute rejection, the CTLs.

If the immune system had a neighborhood where its most diverse and critical ID-checking genes lived together, which chromosome—and part of it—would be that tightly packed immune security district?

100 / 120

Category: Blood – Pathology

What is major histocompatibility complex (MHC) genes present on?

Long arm of chromosome number 21

Short arm of chromosome number 6

Short arm of chromosome number 13

Short arm of chromosome number 8

Long arm of chromosome number 4

Which fetal structure stays open due to a particular hormone-like compound—and what would happen if a drug that blocks that compound were introduced before birth?

101 / 120

Category: Blood – Pharmacology

A woman took aspirin while being pregnant. What would its effect be?

Post partum hemorrhage

Closure of ductus arteriosus

Congenital Anomalies

Gastric ulcer

No effect

Think about what would happen if you dropped food coloring into a glass of water. How does the color spread without any stirring or energy input? What direction does it move?

102 / 120

Category: Blood – Physiology

What is passive transport?

From low to high across a membrane

From low to high gradient

From high to low gradient using ATP

From low to high using ATP

From high to low gradient

Think about the organ that is best positioned to constantly monitor blood oxygen levels and that has both a vascular and endocrine function. Where would a sensor and response system for hypoxia make the most physiological sense?

103 / 120

Category: Blood – Physiology

Erythropoietin is mainly produced in which of the following?

Kidney

Adrenal gland

Bone marrow

Liver

Spleen

Consider which organ is best equipped not just to initiate a transformation, but to manage and process byproducts for safe removal from the body. Think about the body’s waste management strategy for substances derived from essential but potentially toxic molecules.

104 / 120

Category: Blood – Biochemistry

Heme is broken down in which of the following?

Kidney

Liver

Bone marrow

None of these

Stomach

When cellular components are dismantled, each part follows a distinct biochemical fate. Think about which segment of the hemoglobin molecule is not made of protein and contains an essential metal, and consider what becomes of that structure when the cell is no longer viable.

105 / 120

Category: Blood – Biochemistry

The breakdown of heme produces which of the following?

Amino acids

Bilirubin

Globulin

Bile

Glucose

Ask yourself: Which of these mediators is not made on site, but instead circulates in an inactive form, waiting to be triggered into action by tissue damage or infection?

106 / 120

Category: Blood – Pathology

Which one of the following is a plasma mediator?

Complement proteins

Histamine and nitric oxide (NO)

Chemokines

Leukotrienes

Prostaglandins

Ask yourself: Which of these structures lies where air flows freely—and therefore needs an epithelium specialized for secretion and mucociliary transport, not just physical protection?

107 / 120

Category: Blood – Histology

Which of the following is covered by pseudostratified columnar epithelium?

Spleen

Pharyngeal tonsil

Lingual tonsil

Lymph nodes

Palatine tonsil

Focus on what happens when blood is trapped inside a tissue due to outflow obstruction. Can’t get in, can’t get out—what happens to the pressure, and what does the tissue look like if blood starts leaking from congested vessels?

108 / 120

Category: Blood – Pathology

Where does red infarct usually occur in?

Heart

Spleen

Kidney

Arterial occlusion

Venous occlusion

Think about which organs are like “one-way streets” when it comes to blood supply—places where a single blocked artery means there’s no backup route. Ask yourself: in which tissues would a blockage most likely result in death of tissue without bleeding into it?

109 / 120

Category: Blood – Pathology

Where are white infarcts usually seen?

Testes

Small intestine

Ovaries

Lungs

Spleen

Ask yourself: which system must start working almost immediately after forming, because without it, the embryo cannot efficiently grow, differentiate, or survive beyond a few millimeters in size?

110 / 120

Category: Blood – Embryology

Which system reaches the functional state first in the embryo?

Cardiovascular

Excretory

Respiratory

Skeletal

Nervous

111 / 120

Category: Blood – Microbiology

Which parasite causes blackwater fever and cerebral malaria?

Plasmodium vivax

Plasmodium falciparum

Plasmodium knowlesi

Plasmodium ovale

Plasmodium malariae

Think about which cell type is highly adaptable, capable of transforming its appearance and function in response to chronic immune stimuli — and can even fuse with others of its kind under the right cytokine signals.

112 / 120

Category: Blood – Pathology

Which of the following cells are involved in the formation of epithelioid cells and giant cells in granulomatous inflammation?

Macrophages

B cells

Epithelial cells

T cells

Plasma cells

Consider what component is so abundant and thick in gram-positive bacteria that it allows them to hold onto dye through alcohol washes, unlike their gram-negative counterparts. What gives their walls such strong mechanical support?

113 / 120

Category: Blood – Microbiology

High amounts of which of these make up the cell walls of the gram-positive bacteria?

Peptidoglycans

Proteins

None of these

Glycerol phosphate

Lipopolysaccharide

If you want to uncover the root of a red cell production problem caused by faulty DNA synthesis, which nutrient deficiencies would you need to check first before diving into metabolic byproducts?

114 / 120

Category: Blood – Pathology

Which diagnostic test is done for megaloblastic anemia?

Serum folic acid and B12

Complete blood count

Prothrombin time

Methylmalonic acid levels

Homocysteine levels

Think about which immune cells are designed for immediate, short-lived responses and which ones are built for sustained, targeted action. In long-standing inflammation, which cells are expected to dominate the scene over time?

115 / 120

Category: Blood – Pathology

Which one of the following is not among the main cells that are involved in chronic inflammation?

Plasma cells

None of these

Lymphocytes

Neutrophils

Macrophages

When a genetic disease affects mainly males and is passed on by carrier mothers, what does this suggest about the pattern of inheritance? Think about how traits linked to sex chromosomes are passed from parents to offspring.

116 / 120

Category: Blood – Pathology

Which of the following is wrong regarding Wiskott Aldrich syndrome?

Associated with T-cell defects

It is an immune deficiency

Causes patches across skin

It is X-linked dominant

Associated with WASP gene

Consider which immune molecule has a “handle” that professional phagocytes can grasp — a feature that allows them to actively bind and consume pathogens that are already “decorated” by the immune system.

117 / 120

Category: Blood – Pathology

Which of these act as an opsonin?

C3a

C5a

Fc portion of IgG

Cytokines

Leukotriene B4

When an injury first occurs, which chemical mediator is most likely to act quickly and transiently, causing changes in the small vessels’ structure to let immune cells and proteins through? Consider the cells that store this substance and how fast they can release it in response to stimuli.

118 / 120

Category: Blood – Pathology

Which of the following induces contraction of endothelial cells to increase vascular permeability?

Histamine

Serotonin

Fibrin

Prostaglandins

Vascular endothelial growth factor

In the setting of acute inflammation, one of the hallmark features is increased vascular permeability, which allows plasma proteins and leukocytes to exit the bloodstream and enter the tissue to combat injury or infection.

This increase in permeability can occur by contraction of endothelial cells, primarily in post-capillary venules, creating intercellular gaps. The key chemical mediator responsible for this rapid and transient endothelial contraction is histamine.

Mechanism of Action:

Histamine is stored in mast cells, basophils, and platelets.
Upon stimulation (such as by injury, immune reactions, or allergens), histamine is released.
It binds to H1 receptors on endothelial cells.
This causes the cytoskeleton of the endothelial cell to contract, pulling cells apart at their junctions and creating gaps.
As a result, fluid and plasma proteins leak out, contributing to edema.

This effect is rapid (within minutes) and short-lived (lasting ~15–30 minutes), characteristic of what is termed immediate transient response.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A) Prostaglandins:
These are lipid mediators involved in vasodilation, fever, and pain, especially PGE2 and PGI2. While they modulate vascular tone and inflammation, they do not directly induce endothelial cell contraction.
B) Fibrin:
Fibrin is an end product of the coagulation cascade, forming clots. It has no role in endothelial cell behavior related to permeability.
D) Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF):
VEGF does increase vascular permeability, but it does so primarily by stimulating endothelial cell proliferation and loosening junctions over longer periods—not by inducing immediate contraction. It contributes to chronic or sustained permeability, not the rapid-onset seen with histamine.
E) Serotonin:
Like histamine, serotonin is a vasoactive amine found in platelets. It can cause vasodilation or vasoconstriction depending on the vascular bed but is less potent and less involved in increasing vascular permeability through endothelial contraction compared to histamine.

Consider the earliest step in a well-known immune cascade triggered by antibodies. What would need to happen first for a cascade to begin—before any tagging, recruitment, or clumping occurs? Think about what must be recognized on a molecular level for the system to know where to start.

119 / 120

Category: Blood – Pathology

What is the major function of complement protein C1?

Binding to Fc IgG and IgM

Neutrophil chemotactic agent

Agglutination

None of these

Opsonisation

To understand the role of complement protein C1, we must look at the classical pathway of the complement system, which is a part of the innate immune response. Complement C1 is the initiator of this classical pathway.

C1 is a complex protein made up of three subcomponents: C1q, C1r, and C1s. Among them, C1q is the part that recognizes and binds to the Fc (constant) region of antibodies, specifically IgG or IgM, when they are bound to an antigen.

Here’s how it works:

When an antibody (IgG or IgM) binds to a pathogen, it undergoes a conformational change.
This change exposes the Fc region, allowing C1q to bind.
Binding activates C1r and C1s, which are serine proteases.
This triggers a cascade of further complement activation, ultimately resulting in pathogen destruction via opsonization, lysis, or inflammation.

Thus, the primary function of C1 (specifically C1q) is to recognize and bind to the Fc portion of antigen-bound IgG or IgM antibodies, thereby initiating the classical complement cascade.

Why the other options are incorrect:

A) Agglutination
Agglutination refers to the clumping of particles, often due to antibodies cross-linking antigens on cells like bacteria or red blood cells. This is primarily a function of antibodies, especially IgM, not C1. While complement activation can aid in pathogen clearance, it is not responsible for agglutination.
C) Opsonisation
Opsonization refers to tagging a pathogen to enhance its recognition and ingestion by phagocytes. Complement proteins like C3b are the key opsonins. C1, while initiating the cascade that eventually leads to C3b formation, does not directly opsonize pathogens.
D) Neutrophil chemotactic agent
Chemotaxis involves attracting immune cells to the site of infection. Complement proteins C3a and C5a, known as anaphylatoxins, play major roles in recruiting neutrophils and other immune cells. C1 has no direct chemotactic function.
E) None of these
This is incorrect because one of the listed options (Binding to Fc IgG and IgM) accurately describes the principal action of C1 in the classical complement pathway

Think about how many steps are required before a system shows symptoms. If just a small component is impaired, the system might still run — just not as efficiently. Which condition reflects this quiet inefficiency in red blood cell production, without causing major clinical distress?

120 / 120

Category: Blood – Pathology

Mild hypochromic microcytic anemia is associated with which of the following pathologies?

Diamond-Blackfan anemia

Hemoglobin H disease

Alpha-thalassemia minor

Beta-thalassemia major

Vitamin B12 deficiency

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❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

🔬 Why Thromboxane is Not the Right Answer:

🌱 Common Sources of Vitamin K:

❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

🔬 Blood Composition:

❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

🔬 Role of Vitamin K:

❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

🔬 ABO Blood Group Basics:

❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

🔬 Histological Features of the Thymus:

❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

In the Duke method, bleeding time is considered normal if it falls between:

🔍 What the Bleeding Time Measures:

❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

✔️ Correct Statements in the Context of DiGeorge Syndrome:

❌ Incorrect Statement (Answer):

Key Features of Plasmodium falciparum:

❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

🔬 Mechanism of Action:

❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

🧬 Differentiation Pathway:

❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

🔍 Why Bone Marrow is NOT necessary initially:

✅ Why the other options are necessary in initial diagnosis:

🔄 Mechanism:

❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

❌ Nucleus:

❌ Proteins:

❌ Cell membrane:

This enzyme performs γ-carboxylation of glutamic acid residues on:

❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

🔬 Stages of Red Blood Cell Development:

❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

❌ Thrombocyte:

❌ Normoblast:

❌ Polychromatic erythroblast:

❌ Reticulocyte:

Specifically, heparin inhibits:

🩸 What the Different Coagulation Tests Measure:

❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

Specifically, heparin inhibits:

🩸 What the Different Coagulation Tests Measure:

❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

🔬 Key Vascular Events of Acute Inflammation:

❌ Why the Incorrect Options Are Actually Correct (They are part of vascular events):

✅ Why “Migration of endothelial cells” Is Not a Vascular Event in Acute Inflammation:

Structure of an Antibody:

❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

So what happens in C1-INH deficiency?

❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

🔑 Core Principles of Primary Health Care:

❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

❌ Justice, equity, resources

❌ Justice, fairness, ethics

❌ Planning, effectiveness, fairness

❌ Resources, planning, situation analysis

❌ Why Collagen Fibrosis is Incorrect:

❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

🔄 Overview of the Cell Cycle:

❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

❌ G2 is the same as the mitotic phase

❌ I phase is the mitotic phase

❌ S phase is synthesis of organelles

❌ G1 is pre-mitotic phase

❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

Pyrrole Synthesis in the Heme Pathway:

❌ Why the Other Options are Incorrect:

✅ Why the Other Statements Are Correct:

✅ “They contain non-specific azurophilic granules”

❌ **Why the Incorrect Options Are Actually Correct (They are part of vascular events):**