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NEUROSCIENCE – 2023
Questions from the 2023 Module Exam
Imagine your hand trying to reach for a glass. What internal process helps your body know if your hand is veering off course and how to correct it mid-movement? Think about the neurological system that constantly compares intention to execution in real time.
1 / 99
Category:
Neurosciences – Pathology
The parents of a 9-year-old child take him to a pediatrician because he has become more clumsy and complaining of headaches. For the past three weeks, the child’s parents have noticed that he has trouble using his right hand to grab or pick up items like cups or toys. He also has a significant decline in his ability to draw lines and figures for around two weeks. He’s been complaining about worsening headaches for the previous four days.
The boy has been properly immunized and reached all developmental milestones.
On examination an intention tremor of the right hand is observed. There is a lack of finger-nose coordination and impairment of rapid alternating movements. His further examination revealed that he was unable to stop movement precisely at the intended spot preventing the overshoot. The patient showed deterioration of both fine and gross skilled movements.
An MRI shows a cyst at the junction of vermis and intermediate zone of the right cerebellum. Lumbar puncture showed a slight increase in intracranial pressure.
Failure of which of the following processes is responsible for the problems in movement in this case?
The cerebellum is critically involved in coordinating movement , timing , and correcting errors in motor execution. It does this through a process known as feedback control .
🔄 What is Feedback in Motor Control?
Feedback refers to the real-time comparison of intended movement with actual movement.
The cerebellum receives input from:
It then compares and adjusts the movement dynamically—this process is essential for precise, smooth motion .
In this child’s case, the signs of overshooting movements (dysmetria) , intention tremor , and impaired coordination reflect a failure of this feedback mechanism . The cerebellum is unable to correct ongoing movements, leading to unrefined, clumsy actions .
❌ Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
• Cognition:
Involves higher mental functions (e.g., memory, attention).
This child’s problem is purely motor and does not involve mental status changes.
• Damping:
Often used synonymously with feedback, but in neurophysiology, damping refers specifically to the braking of motor activity , especially preventing oscillation.
The broader and more accurate description of cerebellar modulation is feedback .
• Equilibrium:
Controlled mainly by the flocculonodular lobe and vestibular input .
This child has limb incoordination , not balance disturbance.
• Myelination:
Affects nerve conduction speed and is more related to diffuse weakness , spasticity , or sensory deficits , not coordination deficits isolated to cerebellar circuits.
2 / 99
Category:
Neurosciences – Pathology
The parents of a 9-year-old child take him to a pediatrician because he has become more clumsy and complaining of headaches. For the past three weeks, the child’s parents have noticed that he has trouble using his right hand to grab or pick up items like cups or toys. He also has a significant decline in his ability to draw lines and figures for around two weeks. He’s been complaining about worsening headaches for the previous four days.
The boy has been properly immunized and reached all developmental milestones.
On examination an intention tremor of the right hand is observed. There is a lack of finger-nose coordination and impairment of rapid alternating movements. His further examination revealed that he was unable to stop movement precisely at the intended spot preventing the overshoot. The patient showed deterioration of both fine and gross skilled movements.
An MRI shows a cyst at the junction of vermis and intermediate zone of the right cerebellum. Lumbar puncture showed a slight increase in intracranial pressure.
Which of the following functions will be affected due to the lesion of the above-mentioned area?
The spinocerebellum is crucial for coordinating movements of the trunk and proximal limbs. A lesion here results in impaired gross and fine motor coordination.
3 / 99
Category:
Neurosciences – Pathology
The parents of a 9-year-old child take him to a pediatrician because he has become more clumsy and complaining of headaches. For the past three weeks, the child’s parents have noticed that he has trouble using his right hand to grab or pick up items like cups or toys. He also has a significant decline in his ability to draw lines and figures for around two weeks. He’s been complaining about worsening headaches for the previous four days.
The boy has been properly immunized and reached all developmental milestones.
On examination an intention tremor of the right hand is observed. There is a lack of finger-nose coordination and impairment of rapid alternating movements. His further examination revealed that he was unable to stop movement precisely at the intended spot preventing the overshoot. The patient showed deterioration of both fine and gross skilled movements.
An MRI shows a cyst at the junction of vermis and intermediate zone of the right cerebellum. Lumbar puncture showed a slight increase in intracranial pressure.
Which of the following tests best verifies the aforementioned incapacity to halt motion precisely when needed?
The finger-nose test is used to evaluate coordination and the ability to halt movements precisely. In cerebellar lesions, patients often overshoot or miss the target due to a lack of fine motor control and inability to regulate movement (dysmetria).
4 / 99
Category:
Neurosciences – Pathology
The parents of a 9-year-old child take him to a pediatrician because he has become more clumsy and complaining of headaches. For the past three weeks, the child’s parents have noticed that he has trouble using his right hand to grab or pick up items like cups or toys. He also has a significant decline in his ability to draw lines and figures for around two weeks. He’s been complaining about worsening headaches for the previous four days.
The boy has been properly immunized and reached all developmental milestones.
On examination an intention tremor of the right hand is observed. There is a lack of finger-nose coordination and impairment of rapid alternating movements. His further examination revealed that he was unable to stop movement precisely at the intended spot preventing the overshoot. The patient showed deterioration of both fine and gross skilled movements.
An MRI shows a cyst at the junction of vermis and intermediate zone of the right cerebellum. Lumbar puncture showed a slight increase in intracranial pressure.
Which of the following best reflects his inability to perform rapid alternating movements?
Dysdiadochokinesis refers to the inability to perform rapid alternating movements , such as pronation and supination of the hand. This is a hallmark of cerebellar dysfunction, particularly involving the spinocerebellum.
Think of the final step as ensuring ongoing support and preventing further distress by formalizing a follow-up plan.
11 / 99
Focus on whether the strategy occurs before or after the emotional response is triggered. John’s behavior fits into post-emotional response regulation .
12 / 99
Focus on the schedule of routine immunization in the EPI program, where IPV is strategically given to complement oral polio vaccine doses.
13 / 99
Think about the term that describes diseases that are regularly present and expected in a specific population or area.
14 / 99
Focus on the persistent low mood, anhedonia, and suicidal ideation as hallmarks
15 / 99
Category:
Neurosciences – Community Medicine + Behavioural Sciences
A 32-year-old mother of two children visits a primary healthcare center with complaints of feeling sad, irritable, and empty, and often finds herself crying for no reason for the past three months. She has a loss of interest in all activities and finds it really hard to carry out her daily activities. She feels as if she would be better off dead and even has thoughts about taking her life at times. Which one of the following disorders is she most likely suffering from?
The symptoms described by the patient—persistent sadness, irritability, emptiness , loss of interest in activities , difficulty carrying out daily tasks , and suicidal thoughts —are classic indicators of major depressive disorder (MDD) . Depression is characterized by:
Core symptoms : Low mood and/or loss of interest or pleasure in most activities (anhedonia).
Additional symptoms : Fatigue, irritability, difficulty concentrating, changes in appetite or sleep patterns, and feelings of worthlessness or hopelessness.
Duration : Symptoms persisting for at least two weeks or longer .
Her mention of thoughts about taking her life highlights the urgency for immediate intervention to ensure her safety and provide appropriate treatment.
Why not the other options?
Schizophrenia : Characterized by psychotic symptoms such as delusions, hallucinations, disorganized thinking, and behavior, which are not present in this case.
Bipolar disorder : Involves episodes of both depression and mania/hypomania. There is no evidence of manic or hypomanic symptoms (e.g., elevated mood, increased energy, reduced need for sleep) in this patient.
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) : Results from a traumatic event and includes symptoms such as intrusive memories, hyperarousal, and avoidance, none of which are described here.
Anxiety : Primarily involves excessive worry and fear without the hallmark depressive symptoms like low mood, loss of interest, and suicidal thoughts.
Focus on preventative vaccination strategies for individuals who are at continuous risk of handling rabies-related viruses.
16 / 99
Category:
Neurosciences – Community Medicine + Behavioural Sciences
A 36-year-old man is hired as a laboratory worker and he will be handling Rabies related viruses and vaccines. Which of the following vaccines is he advised to get?
Pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) is recommended for individuals at high risk of exposure to the rabies virus , such as laboratory workers handling rabies-related viruses, veterinarians, and animal handlers. The vaccine consists of:
Three doses of inactivated rabies vaccine administered on days 0, 7, and 21 (or 28).
PrEP provides immunity and reduces the need for post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) if the person is exposed to the virus. However, in case of exposure, additional booster doses are still required for optimal protection.
Why not the other options?
H-RIG (human rabies immunoglobulin) : Used in post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) for individuals who have already been exposed to the rabies virus and have not received prior vaccination. It is not part of pre-exposure prophylaxis.
Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) : Administered after potential exposure to the rabies virus, combining the rabies vaccine with rabies immunoglobulin (if unvaccinated previously).
E-RIG (equine rabies immunoglobulin) : Similar to H-RIG, it is used in PEP and not recommended for pre-exposure scenarios.
Tetanus : A completely different vaccine, unrelated to rabies prophylaxis.
Focus on the receptor subtype that opioids like morphine and fentanyl primarily target for their potent pain-relieving effects .
17 / 99
Think about the neurotransmitter that directly inhibits neuronal activity by increasing chloride influx , leading to hyperpolarization.
18 / 99
Focus on the patient’s symptoms and its role in weakening small cerebral arteries, leading to hemorrhages.
19 / 99
Focus on the swimming history , rapid onset , and flask-shaped amoebae , which are hallmark features
20 / 99
Category:
Neurosciences – Pathology
A young male patient presents to the emergency department in an unconscious state. The parents give a history of him swimming in a pool for the last few days. CSF analysis reveals small flask-shaped amoeba. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?
Naegleria fowleri , also known as the “brain-eating amoeba,” is a thermophilic free-living amoeba that causes primary amoebic meningoencephalitis (PAM) . This condition is rare but rapidly fatal. The typical presentation includes:
History of swimming in warm, freshwater bodies or poorly chlorinated pools (as in this case).
Rapid onset of symptoms: fever, headache, nausea, vomiting, neck stiffness, and altered mental status.
CSF analysis : Detects small, flask-shaped amoebae, which are characteristic of Naegleria fowleri .
Naegleria fowleri enters the body through the nasal passages, penetrates the cribriform plate, and reaches the brain, causing severe inflammation and destruction of brain tissue.
Why not the other options?
Acanthamoeba : Another free-living amoeba that causes granulomatous amoebic encephalitis (GAE) , typically in immunocompromised individuals, but its progression is slower, and it is not linked to swimming history.
Cysticercosis : Caused by the larval stage of Taenia solium (pork tapeworm), leading to CNS involvement (neurocysticercosis), but it does not involve amoebae or swimming history.
Candida albicans : A fungal pathogen causing meningitis in immunocompromised patients, but it is not associated with swimming or flask-shaped organisms in CSF.
Prion disease : Causes neurodegenerative conditions such as Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, which present with progressive neurological decline, not acute meningoencephalitis.
Focus on neutrophilic dominance , decreased glucose, and elevated protein as classic findings in bacterial meningitis .
21 / 99
Focus on the investigation that directly assesses CSF abnormalities , which are specific for diagnosing meningitis.
22 / 99
Category:
Neurosciences – Pathology
A 5-year-old boy is admitted to the neurology ward with complaints of headache, photophobia, and neck rigidity. He is a suspected case of meningitis. Which of the following is the best diagnostic investigation for meningitis?
The gold standard diagnostic investigation for meningitis is cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis , obtained via lumbar puncture . CSF analysis provides critical information to confirm the diagnosis and determine the etiology (bacterial, viral, fungal, or other causes). Key components of CSF analysis include:
Cell count : Elevated white blood cells (WBCs), especially neutrophils in bacterial meningitis or lymphocytes in viral meningitis.
Protein levels : Elevated in bacterial and fungal meningitis.
Glucose levels : Reduced in bacterial and fungal meningitis, typically normal in viral meningitis.
Microbiological testing : Gram stain, culture, and PCR help identify the causative organism.
Why not the other options?
Urine test : Useful for systemic infections or metabolic conditions, but it is not relevant for diagnosing meningitis.
Complete blood count (CBC) : Can indicate infection (e.g., elevated WBC count) but is nonspecific for meningitis.
X-ray : Not useful in diagnosing meningitis; it is typically used for identifying other conditions like pneumonia or fractures.
MRI brain : Helpful in identifying complications of meningitis (e.g., abscess, infarction, or hydrocephalus), but it is not the primary diagnostic tool for confirming meningitis.
Focus on the combination of X-linked inheritance , ABCD1 mutation , and the accumulation of very long-chain fatty acids
23 / 99
Category:
Neurosciences – Pathology
A 5-month-old boy is brought to the outpatient clinic with complaints of global developmental delay, generalized weakness of the body, and jerky eye movement. There is also a family history of his 5-year-old brother having the same complaints. MRI scans of the brain reveal symmetrical lesions. Genetic studies reveal a mutation in the ABCD1 gene located at the X chromosome. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Adrenoleukodystrophy (ALD) is a rare X-linked disorder caused by mutations in the ABCD1 gene , which encodes a peroxisomal membrane protein responsible for the transport of very long-chain fatty acids (VLCFAs) into peroxisomes for degradation. The resulting accumulation of VLCFAs leads to:
Demyelination in the CNS and PNS .
Adrenal insufficiency due to damage to the adrenal glands.
The key clinical features include:
Global developmental delay and progressive neurological deficits.
Generalized weakness and jerky eye movements .
Symmetrical white matter lesions on MRI, commonly involving the parieto-occipital region.
Family history due to the X-linked inheritance pattern .
Why not the other options?
Canavan disease : An autosomal recessive leukodystrophy caused by mutations in the ASPA gene, leading to N-acetylaspartate accumulation. It primarily presents with hypotonia and macrocephaly , without X-linked inheritance or ABCD1 mutations.
Alexander disease : Caused by mutations in the GFAP gene, presenting with macrocephaly , seizures, and white matter changes, but it is not X-linked.
Metachromatic leukodystrophy : Caused by arylsulfatase A deficiency, leading to sulfatide accumulation. It is autosomal recessive, not X-linked, and does not involve ABCD1.
Multiple sclerosis : An autoimmune demyelinating disease typically presenting in adults with relapsing-remitting neurological symptoms. It is not genetic or associated with ABCD1 mutations.
Focus on the combination of autoimmune symptoms , neurological deficits , and oligoclonal bands in the CSF, which are hallmark findings
24 / 99
Category:
Neurosciences – Pathology
A 50-year-old female patient who is a known case of an autoimmune disorder visits the neurology clinic with complaints of fatigue, tingling, numbness, muscle weakness, and muscle spasms. CSF analysis reveals oligoclonal bands. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?
The patient’s symptoms—fatigue, tingling, numbness, muscle weakness, muscle spasms —along with the presence of oligoclonal bands in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), strongly suggest multiple sclerosis (MS) . MS is a chronic autoimmune demyelinating disorder of the central nervous system (CNS), characterized by:
Relapsing-remitting neurological symptoms (or progressive forms).
Immune-mediated destruction of myelin, leading to slowed or disrupted nerve signal conduction.
CSF findings : Oligoclonal bands represent intrathecal synthesis of immunoglobulins, a hallmark of MS.
These features align with the classic presentation of MS.
Why not the other options?
Cerebral edema : Swelling of the brain caused by trauma, infection, or stroke, typically presenting with increased intracranial pressure symptoms, not oligoclonal bands.
Cerebral herniation : Involves displacement of brain tissue due to elevated intracranial pressure; presents with rapid neurological deterioration, not fatigue or sensory symptoms.
Central pontine myelinolysis : A condition associated with rapid correction of hyponatremia, presenting with quadriparesis or “locked-in syndrome,” not sensory disturbances or oligoclonal bands.
Subdural hematoma : Collection of blood beneath the dura mater, usually following trauma, causing symptoms of increased ICP or focal neurological deficits but unrelated to oligoclonal bands or autoimmune processes.
Focus on risk factors related to immune system weakness, age extremes, or chronic infections , which predispose individuals to encephalitis.
25 / 99
Focus on the hallmark symptoms which are specific to HIV encephalitis.
26 / 99
Focus on the combination of macrocephaly and ventriculomegaly , which are hallmark features of CSF accumulation..
27 / 99
Category:
Neurosciences – Pathology
A female infant born after a full-term pregnancy weighing 3.4kg has an enlarged head with the occipitofrontal circumference (OFC) being 49.5 cm. A cranial ultrasound reveals bilateral ventriculomegaly. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
The female infant presents with:
Enlarged head circumference : The occipitofrontal circumference (OFC) of 49.5 cm is significantly above the normal range for a full-term newborn, indicating macrocephaly.
Bilateral ventriculomegaly : Enlargement of the cerebral ventricles suggests accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
These findings are classic for hydrocephalus , which occurs due to:
Obstructive (non-communicating hydrocephalus) : Blockage in the CSF pathways (e.g., at the cerebral aqueduct or foramina).
Communicating hydrocephalus : Impaired CSF absorption at the arachnoid villi or excessive production of CSF.
Hydrocephalus leads to increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in infants, causing head enlargement due to the pliable cranial sutures that have not yet fused.
Why not the other options?
Herniation : Refers to displacement of brain tissue (e.g., transtentorial or tonsillar herniation), typically causing severe neurological symptoms, not isolated ventriculomegaly and head enlargement.
Encephalitis : Inflammation of the brain parenchyma due to infection, presenting with fever, altered mental status, and seizures, not ventriculomegaly or head enlargement.
Meningitis : Involves inflammation of the meninges, presenting with fever, neck stiffness, and irritability, but it does not typically cause head enlargement or ventriculomegaly.
Cerebral edema : Refers to brain swelling due to fluid accumulation, often secondary to trauma or hypoxia, but it does not specifically cause enlarged ventricles or head circumference.
Focus on the unilateral pupillary dilation and impaired ocular movement , which are classic signs of CN III compression due to herniation.
28 / 99
Category:
Neurosciences – Pathology
A 39-year-old female patient presents to the outpatient department with a severe headache for the last 3 days. On physical examination, she is afebrile and normotensive. Fundoscopic examination shows papilledema in the right eye. She was admitted to the hospital for further testing. A day later, she develops right pupillary dilation with impaired ocular movement. These findings are best explained by which of the following lesions?
The patient presents with:
Papilledema : Indicates increased intracranial pressure (ICP).
Right pupillary dilation : Caused by compression of the oculomotor nerve (CN III) , which is responsible for parasympathetic innervation to the pupil, resulting in unopposed sympathetic dilation.
Impaired ocular movements : CN III also innervates most of the extraocular muscles (except lateral rectus and superior oblique).
These findings are most consistent with transtentorial herniation (uncal herniation) , where the medial temporal lobe (uncus) herniates through the tentorial notch due to elevated ICP. This compresses the oculomotor nerve , often first on one side, causing:
Pupillary dilation (loss of parasympathetic tone).
Impaired eye movement.
Progression can compress the brainstem, leading to further neurological deficits and potentially fatal consequences.
Why not the other options?
Subdural hematoma : Can raise ICP and cause symptoms, but pupillary dilation and ocular movement issues are more specific to transtentorial herniation.
Frontal lobe abscess : Rarely causes isolated pupillary changes or direct oculomotor nerve compression.
Ruptured berry aneurysm : Can cause sudden, severe headache and third nerve palsy if located near the posterior communicating artery. However, papilledema and progressive symptoms like this are more consistent with herniation.
Hydrocephalus : Causes increased ICP and papilledema but does not typically cause isolated CN III compression and pupillary dilation.
Focus on the enzyme responsible for combining choline and acetyl-CoA , which is unique to acetylcholine synthesis.
29 / 99
If you leave this CSF sample standing, nature decorates it like a haunted attic. Which slow, chronic infection could do that?
30 / 99
Category:
Neurosciences – Pathology
On CSF Examination, Cobweb coagulum is a characteristic finding of?
A cobweb coagulum is a characteristic finding in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) of patients with tuberculous meningitis (TBM) . This occurs due to the presence of a high concentration of fibrinogen in the CSF, which forms a delicate web-like clot when the CSF is allowed to stand. TBM is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis infecting the meninges and typically presents with:
Subacute onset of headache, fever, and neck stiffness.
Cranial nerve palsies and altered mental status in advanced cases.
Key findings in CSF analysis for TBM:
Elevated protein levels.
Low glucose levels.
Lymphocytic pleocytosis.
Cobweb coagulum formation when the CSF is left standing.
Why not the other options?
Viral meningitis : CSF in viral meningitis is typically clear with mild lymphocytic pleocytosis, normal or slightly elevated protein, and normal glucose levels. Cobweb coagulum is not a feature.
Subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) : CSF in SAH shows xanthochromia (yellow discoloration due to bilirubin from hemolyzed RBCs), not cobweb coagulum.
Bacterial meningitis : CSF shows elevated neutrophilic pleocytosis, high protein, and low glucose but no cobweb coagulum.
Brain tumor : CSF findings depend on the tumor type and may include increased pressure or malignant cells, but cobweb coagulum is not a characteristic finding.
Focus on the neurotransmitter produced by neurons in the substantia nigra that is critical for motor control and affected in Parkinson’s disease.
31 / 99
Category:
Neurosciences – Biochemistry
Parkinson’s disease is associated with the loss of specific neurons containing which of the following neurotransmitters?
Parkinson’s disease is primarily caused by the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra pars compacta , a part of the midbrain. Dopamine is critical for regulating motor control through its action on the basal ganglia , particularly the direct and indirect pathways. The loss of dopamine leads to:
Motor symptoms : Bradykinesia, rigidity, tremor, and postural instability.
Non-motor symptoms : Depression, cognitive impairment, and sleep disturbances.
Reduced dopamine levels impair the balance between excitatory and inhibitory signaling in the basal ganglia circuits, causing the characteristic motor deficits.
Why not the other options?
GABA : An inhibitory neurotransmitter involved in the basal ganglia, but Parkinson’s disease is not primarily due to GABAergic neuron loss.
Indolamines : Refers to serotonin-related neurotransmitters, which are not primarily involved in Parkinson’s disease.
Serotonin : A neurotransmitter associated with mood regulation, sleep, and appetite; it is not the primary neurotransmitter affected in Parkinson’s disease.
Norepinephrine : Important for autonomic and stress responses but not directly linked to the pathogenesis of Parkinson’s disease.
Think of large signaling molecules like hormones , which require specialized mechanisms (receptor-mediated transcytosis) to cross the BBB.
32 / 99
Focus on the tight junction proteins that are essential for sealing spaces between endothelial cells, preventing unwanted substances from entering the brain.
33 / 99
Category:
Neurosciences – Biochemistry
At the interface between blood and brain, endothelial cells are tightly packed together by the help of tight junctions that are specialized transmembrane proteins such as?
In the blood-brain barrier (BBB) , tight junctions are formed between endothelial cells to prevent the passage of most substances from the bloodstream into the brain. These tight junctions are composed of specialized transmembrane proteins, primarily claudins , which are critical for:
Maintaining the integrity of the barrier.
Regulating paracellular transport (the movement of substances between cells).
Other tight junction proteins, such as occludins and junctional adhesion molecules (JAMs) , also contribute to the tight junction complex, but claudins are the primary structural components.
Why not the other options?
Glycophorins : Found in red blood cell membranes, they play a role in maintaining the RBC’s shape and charge, not in tight junction formation.
Integrins : Mediate cell adhesion to the extracellular matrix and other cells but are not involved in tight junctions.
Selectins : Facilitate leukocyte adhesion during inflammation and are not related to the BBB’s tight junctions.
Rhodopsins : Light-sensitive proteins involved in vision, unrelated to the blood-brain barrier.
This vitamin helps decarboxylate the “mood molecules”—when it’s low, your brain can’t talk properly.
34 / 99
Category:
Neurosciences – Biochemistry
Which of the following vitamins is required for the synthesis of neurotransmitters like dopamine, serotonin, and GABA?
Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) is essential for the synthesis of several key neurotransmitters, including dopamine , serotonin , and GABA . It acts as a coenzyme in the form of pyridoxal phosphate (PLP) for several enzymatic reactions involved in neurotransmitter production:
Dopamine synthesis : PLP is required for the conversion of L-DOPA to dopamine by the enzyme aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase .
Serotonin synthesis : PLP is necessary for converting 5-hydroxytryptophan (5-HTP) to serotonin .
GABA synthesis : PLP acts as a cofactor for glutamate decarboxylase , which converts glutamate to GABA .
Vitamin B6 deficiency can lead to irritability, depression, confusion, and seizures due to impaired neurotransmitter synthesis.
Why not the other options?
Thiamine (Vitamin B1) : Required for energy metabolism and nervous system function but not directly involved in neurotransmitter synthesis.
Niacin (Vitamin B3) : Plays a role in NAD/NADP production for cellular metabolism, not in neurotransmitter synthesis.
Riboflavin (Vitamin B2) : Involved in energy production and oxidative metabolism but does not directly participate in neurotransmitter synthesis.
Cyanocobalamin (Vitamin B12) : Important for myelin synthesis and DNA production but not directly required for neurotransmitter synthesis.
Think about the vitamin critical for methylation reactions , myelin maintenance , and DNA synthesis , whose deficiency causes both anemia and neurological damage .
35 / 99
Category:
Neurosciences – Biochemistry
The deficiency of which of the following vitamins is marked by anemia, impaired neurotransmitter production, increased homocysteine levels, and neuronal demyelination?
A deficiency of Vitamin B12 (cobalamin) can lead to the following clinical features:
Anemia : Megaloblastic anemia due to impaired DNA synthesis in rapidly dividing cells like red blood cells.
Impaired neurotransmitter production : Vitamin B12 is essential for synthesizing neurotransmitters and maintaining neurological health.
Increased homocysteine levels : B12 is required as a cofactor for methionine synthase, which converts homocysteine to methionine. Deficiency leads to elevated homocysteine levels, increasing the risk of cardiovascular disease.
Neuronal demyelination : B12 is critical for methylation reactions necessary for maintaining myelin. Deficiency causes subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, characterized by demyelination in the dorsal and lateral columns, leading to neurological symptoms.
Why not the other options?
Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin) : Deficiency causes cheilosis, glossitis, and seborrheic dermatitis, but it does not lead to anemia or demyelination.
Vitamin B3 (Niacin) : Deficiency causes pellagra, with symptoms of diarrhea, dermatitis, and dementia , but no neurological demyelination or increased homocysteine levels.
Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine) : Deficiency can cause microcytic anemia, peripheral neuropathy, and seizures, but not megaloblastic anemia or demyelination.
Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) : Deficiency causes beriberi or Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome , with neurological symptoms due to energy metabolism dysfunction, but no direct link to demyelination or elevated homocysteine.
Focus on the condition where pain arises from nerve dysfunction rather than tissue damage, often manifesting as allodynia .
36 / 99
Category:
Neurosciences – Physiology
A 40-year-old male was diagnosed to have increased sensitivity to pain, without major tissue damage. He complained that even touching cloth is painful for him 🙁 . Which one of the following types of pain is my guy suffering from?
Neuropathic pain results from damage or dysfunction in the nervous system rather than tissue injury or inflammation. A classic feature of neuropathic pain is allodynia , where normally non-painful stimuli (e.g., touch or light pressure) are perceived as painful. This condition is often associated with conditions like peripheral neuropathy, postherpetic neuralgia, or nerve damage.
Why not the other options?
Nociceptive pain : Caused by tissue injury or inflammation (e.g., cuts, burns) and involves activation of nociceptors, which is not the case here.
Psychogenic pain : Pain influenced by psychological factors, often without a clear physiological cause, does not explain the increased sensitivity to touch in this case.
Phantom pain : Refers to pain experienced in a missing limb or body part after amputation, unrelated to the described scenario.
Referred pain : Pain perceived in a location different from the actual source of the problem (e.g., heart attack causing arm pain), which is not the case here.
Focus on the brain area responsible for speech production rather than comprehension, particularly in the dominant hemisphere.
37 / 99
Category:
Neurosciences – Physiology
A day after a head injury, a neurologist observed that his 45-year-old patient understood spoken and written words but his speech was slow, poorly articulated with a great effort. Which of the following cerebral areas may be affected in this patient?
Broca’s area , located in the posterior part of the inferior frontal gyrus of the dominant hemisphere (usually the left), is responsible for motor aspects of speech production . Damage to this area results in Broca’s aphasia (expressive aphasia) , characterized by:
Slow and effortful speech .
Poor articulation .
Reduced fluency , but with preserved comprehension of both spoken and written language.
Patients with Broca’s aphasia are aware of their deficits, which can lead to frustration.
Why not the other options?
Arcuate fasciculus : Connects Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas. Damage here causes conduction aphasia , where comprehension and fluent speech are preserved but the ability to repeat words is impaired.
Somatosensory area : Involved in processing sensory information (touch, temperature, pain), not speech production or comprehension.
Angular gyrus : Plays a role in processing written language and converting it into speech but does not directly cause speech production deficits like those seen in Broca’s aphasia.
Wernicke’s area : Responsible for language comprehension. Damage here leads to Wernicke’s aphasia , characterized by fluent but nonsensical speech and poor comprehension, not slow, effortful speech.
Focus on the process that results in lasting synaptic changes
38 / 99
Category:
Neurosciences – Physiology
Which of the following mechanisms is involved in the conversion of short-term memory to long-term memory?
Long-term potentiation (LTP) is a process involved in the conversion of short-term memory to long-term memory . It occurs at the synapses of neurons, particularly in the hippocampus , a brain region critical for memory formation. LTP strengthens synaptic connections through:
Increased synaptic efficiency : Repeated stimulation enhances the responsiveness of postsynaptic neurons to subsequent stimuli.
NMDA receptor activation : Leads to calcium influx, which triggers signaling cascades that strengthen the synaptic connection.
Structural changes : Over time, LTP results in the growth of dendritic spines and increased synaptic connections, solidifying the memory trace.
Why not the other options?
Post-tetanic potentiation : A transient increase in synaptic strength following high-frequency stimulation, but it does not result in long-term memory formation.
Circuit of reverberating neurons : A mechanism for maintaining short-term memory by continuous neuronal firing, not involved in forming long-term memory.
Habituation : A decrease in response to a repeated, non-threatening stimulus, not related to memory enhancement.
Sensitization : An increased response to a repeated stimulus, involved in short-term behavioral changes rather than long-term memory.
Focus on the hormone secreted during fasting that stimulates hunger and overrides satiety signals .
39 / 99
Category:
Neurosciences – Physiology
Which of the following hormones/factors is responsible for inhibiting the action of leptin on the ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus and stimulating the lateral hypothalamic nucleus producing a sense of hunger?
Ghrelin is a hormone secreted by the stomach, particularly during fasting, and it plays a key role in stimulating hunger. It acts on the lateral hypothalamic nucleus to promote feeding behavior and inhibits the effects of leptin on the ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus (the satiety center) , thereby overriding the feeling of satiety. Ghrelin increases appetite and food intake by activating neuropeptide Y (NPY) and agouti-related peptide (AgRP) neurons in the hypothalamus.
Why not the other options?
Stretch of the gastrointestinal tract : Signals satiety to the brain by activating vagal afferents, reducing hunger, rather than promoting it.
α-MSH (alpha-melanocyte-stimulating hormone) : A product of the POMC neurons in the arcuate nucleus, it suppresses hunger by acting on melanocortin receptors in the hypothalamus, opposing the effect of ghrelin.
Leptin : Produced by adipose tissue, leptin acts on the hypothalamus to reduce hunger by inhibiting NPY/AgRP neurons and activating POMC neurons.
Insulin : Similar to leptin, insulin reduces hunger by acting on the hypothalamus, promoting satiety, and decreasing food intake.
Focus on the receptor that is protecting it from overexertion.
40 / 99
Focus on endogenous opioids released by interneurons that play a central role in inhibiting pain signals .
41 / 99
Focus on the smallest and unmyelinated fibers , as they are blocked first by local anesthetics, which target pain sensation .
42 / 99
Think about cranial nerves involved in autonomic control of glands, the pupil, and thoracoabdominal viscera .
43 / 99
Category:
Neurosciences – Physiology
Which of the following cranial nerves are a part of the parasympathetic nervous system?
IV, V, IX, and X
III, VII, IX, and X
III, V, IX, and X
III, IV, VII, and IX
V, IX, X, and XII
The parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for “rest and digest” activities and is associated with cranial nerves that carry parasympathetic fibers. These cranial nerves include:
Cranial nerve III (Oculomotor nerve) : Provides parasympathetic innervation to the sphincter pupillae and ciliary muscles , controlling pupil constriction and lens accommodation.
Cranial nerve VII (Facial nerve) : Supplies parasympathetic fibers to the lacrimal glands , submandibular glands , and sublingual glands , controlling tear and saliva production.
Cranial nerve IX (Glossopharyngeal nerve) : Sends parasympathetic fibers to the parotid gland , controlling saliva secretion.
Cranial nerve X (Vagus nerve) : Provides parasympathetic innervation to most of the thoracic and abdominal viscera , including the heart, lungs, and digestive organs, promoting functions such as heart rate reduction and digestion.
Why not the other options?
III, V, IX, and X : The trigeminal nerve (V) does not carry parasympathetic fibers; it is primarily sensory with a motor component for mastication.
III, IV, VII, and IX : The trochlear nerve (IV) is purely motor and does not have a parasympathetic function.
V, IX, X, and XII : The hypoglossal nerve (XII) is purely motor, controlling tongue movement, and does not carry parasympathetic fibers.
IV, V, IX, and X : The trochlear (IV) and trigeminal (V) nerves do not carry parasympathetic fibers.
Focus on the slow, writhing movements of the hands and face. Damage to the globus pallidus is specifically associated with this type of involuntary movement.
45 / 99
Category:
Neurosciences – Physiology
A 45-year-old male presented to a neurology clinic with complaints of spontaneous and continuous writhing movement of hands, an arm, and face. MRI scans reveal a lesion of the globus pallidus. The patient is manifesting which of the following signs in this case?
Athetosis refers to spontaneous, continuous, slow, writhing movements, typically affecting the hands, arms, face, and sometimes other parts of the body. It results from damage to the globus pallidus or its connections within the basal ganglia , which are critical for regulating motor control. The lesion disrupts the inhibitory output from the basal ganglia, leading to excessive, involuntary movements.
Why not the other options?
Parkinson’s disease : Characterized by bradykinesia, resting tremor, rigidity, and postural instability due to dopaminergic neuron degeneration in the substantia nigra , not the globus pallidus.
Nystagmus : Refers to involuntary eye movements and is associated with vestibular, brainstem, or cerebellar dysfunction, not globus pallidus lesions.
Chorea : Involves sudden, jerky, irregular movements, but these are faster and less sustained compared to athetosis. Chorea is more commonly associated with lesions in the striatum (caudate and putamen) rather than the globus pallidus.
Hemiballismus : Characterized by violent, flinging movements of a limb, typically caused by damage to the subthalamic nucleus , not the globus pallidus.
Think about the structure responsible for fear responses and emotional regulation , which, when damaged, results in loss of fear and hyperorality .
46 / 99
Category:
Neurosciences – Physiology
In an animal laboratory, the change in the behavior of a monkey is observed. The monkey has a loss of fear, forgetfulness, and the tendency to place everything in its mouth. Ablation (medical procedure that destroys or removes tissues, cells, or functions in the body ) of which of the following structures of the limbic system is the most likely cause for these behavioral changes?
The amygdala is a key structure in the limbic system that plays a crucial role in emotional regulation, including fear responses, aggression, and social behavior. The behavioral changes described in the monkey—loss of fear , forgetfulness , and hyperorality (placing everything in its mouth) —are classic symptoms of Klüver-Bucy syndrome , which occurs following bilateral ablation of the amygdala .
Key symptoms of Klüver-Bucy syndrome include:
Loss of fear : Reduced emotional responses, particularly to threatening stimuli.
Hyperorality : The tendency to explore objects by placing them in the mouth.
Forgetfulness (amnesia) : Difficulty in memory recall or learning new information.
Why not the other options?
Cingulate gyrus : Involved in emotional regulation and behavior, but its dysfunction does not cause hyperorality or loss of fear.
Hypothalamus : Regulates autonomic functions, hunger, and endocrine responses but is not directly associated with the described behavioral changes.
Prefrontal cortex : Involved in executive functions, decision-making, and social behavior, but its dysfunction does not specifically result in hyperorality or loss of fear.
Hippocampus : Essential for memory formation but not directly related to emotional responses or oral exploration behavior.
Focus on the linear acceleration of the utricle and saccule, which are unique to the otolith organs.
47 / 99
Category:
Neurosciences – Physiology
A 60-year-old male patient is suspected to be suffering from impairment of the otolith organs based on a detailed neurological examination and a CT scan. Which of the following functions is most likely to be disturbed in this case?
The otolith organs in the vestibular system consist of the utricle and saccule , which are responsible for detecting:
Linear acceleration (e.g., forward/backward or up/down movements).
Head position relative to gravity (e.g., tilting of the head).
These functions are mediated by hair cells in the maculae of the utricle and saccule, which respond to the displacement of otoliths (calcium carbonate crystals) when the head changes position or during linear acceleration.
Damage to the otolith organs results in disturbances in detecting head position relative to gravity and sensing linear acceleration , leading to issues like imbalance and difficulty maintaining posture.
Why not the other options?
Prediction of disequilibrium of body with a sudden turn : Relates to the semicircular canals , which detect angular acceleration, not the otolith organs.
Elicitation of the vestibulo-ocular reflex (VOR) : Primarily mediated by the semicircular canals during head rotation, enabling the eyes to remain fixed on a target.
Rotation of head to one side : This is controlled by motor pathways, not directly influenced by the otolith organs.
Recognition of angular acceleration of head : The semicircular canals detect angular acceleration, not the otolith organs.
Think about the midbrain’s role in modulating pain signals through descending pathways rather than other autonomic or motor functions.
48 / 99
Think about the cranial nerve that controls shoulder elevation and head turning through the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles .
49 / 99
Focus on the sensory modality processed by structures in the brainstem and midbrain
50 / 99
Think about which nerve/s play a role in pupillary reflex, and then what’s the location of the nuclei to which those nerve/s are linked to.
51 / 99
Think about how neurons communicate intensity to the brain
52 / 99
Focus on the receptor type specialized for detecting high-frequency vibrations in non-hairy skin, particularly under conditions of mechanical exposure.
53 / 99
Category:
Neurosciences – Physiology
A 42-year-old jackhammer operator presents in the neurology clinic with decreased sensitivity to high-frequency vibrations in the non-hairy skin of his hands. Which of the following receptors is most likely affected in this case?
Pacinian corpuscles are specialized mechanoreceptors located in the skin and deeper tissues that are highly sensitive to vibration , particularly high-frequency vibrations (40–500 Hz). These receptors are found in non-hairy (glabrous) skin , as well as in deeper tissues such as the joints and fascia. Their structure consists of a central nerve ending surrounded by concentric lamellae, which allow them to detect rapid changes in pressure and vibration.
In this case, the jackhammer operator’s prolonged exposure to high-frequency vibrations likely caused damage or desensitization of the Pacinian corpuscles , leading to reduced sensitivity.
Why not the other options?
Ruffini endings : Detect skin stretch and sustained pressure, not high-frequency vibrations.
Hair sensory fibers : Found in hairy skin and are involved in detecting light touch or hair movement, not relevant in this case involving glabrous skin.
Merkel discs : Detect fine touch and pressure in non-hairy skin but are not sensitive to vibration.
Free nerve endings : Mediate pain, temperature, and crude touch sensations, not vibration.
Think about the inhibitory interneurons that regulate motor neuron activity and prevent overexcitation through feedback loops.
54 / 99
Category:
Neurosciences – Physiology
Which of the following types of inhibition is mediated by inhibitory interneurons in the spinal cord and tends to produce the effect of lateral inhibition?
Renshaw cells are inhibitory interneurons in the spinal cord that receive collateral input from motor neurons and, in turn, provide inhibitory feedback to those same motor neurons or nearby motor neurons. This type of feedback inhibition is sometimes referred to as lateral inhibition because it helps fine-tune and regulate motor neuron activity, preventing excessive excitation and ensuring smooth, coordinated movements.
Renshaw cell inhibition is crucial for:
Limiting motor neuron overactivity.
Enhancing motor precision by inhibiting nearby neurons (lateral inhibition).
Why not the other options?
Presynaptic inhibition : Reduces neurotransmitter release at the presynaptic terminal, often by modulating calcium influx. This is not mediated by interneurons in the spinal cord.
Reciprocal inhibition : Involves the inhibition of antagonist muscles during agonist contraction, mediated by spinal interneurons, but it does not produce lateral inhibition.
Postsynaptic inhibition : Refers to the direct inhibition of postsynaptic neurons, typically via hyperpolarization, but it is not specific to lateral inhibition or Renshaw cells.
Indirect inhibition : A general term for inhibition mediated indirectly through other pathways or neurons, not specific to Renshaw cells or lateral inhibition.
Think about the distribution of inputs from multiple neurons acting at the same time to create a combined effect on the postsynaptic neuron.
55 / 99
Focus on the motor protein responsible for retrograde transport , moving material toward the cell body along microtubules.
56 / 99
Category:
Neurosciences – Physiology
A 2-year-old boy was infected by polio virus and developed flaccid paralysis. This virus enters the central nervous system from periphery and reaches the soma by retrograde transport. Which of the following proteins is used by the polio virus to reach the cell body?
Poliovirus, like other viruses that use retrograde transport to travel from peripheral nerves to the central nervous system (CNS), relies on the motor protein dynein . Dynein is responsible for retrograde transport along microtubules, moving cargo, including viruses, toxins, and cellular components, from the axon terminal toward the soma (cell body). This allows the poliovirus to reach the neuronal soma, where it can replicate and cause damage, leading to flaccid paralysis .
Why not the other options?
Kinesin : A motor protein involved in anterograde transport , moving cargo from the soma to the axon terminal, opposite to the direction required by the poliovirus.
Synaptobrevin : A vesicle-associated protein involved in synaptic vesicle fusion and neurotransmitter release, not in axonal transport.
Synaptotagmin : A calcium-sensing protein involved in synaptic vesicle exocytosis, not in retrograde transport.
Syntaxin : A protein involved in the docking and fusion of synaptic vesicles, unrelated to retrograde axonal transport.
Focus on the neuron type located in dorsal root ganglia , specialized for transmitting sensory information from the periphery to the CNS.
57 / 99
Category:
Neurosciences – Physiology
A Neurophysician wants to conduct research on the properties of sensory neurons. Which one of the following types of neuron is appropriate for the study?
Unipolar neurons (more accurately called pseudounipolar neurons ) are the most appropriate type of neuron for studying sensory neurons . These neurons are found in the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord and cranial nerve ganglia. They have a single process that splits into two branches:
One branch acts as a peripheral axon , carrying sensory information from the periphery (e.g., skin, muscles) to the neuron.
The other branch acts as a central axon , transmitting this information to the spinal cord or brainstem.
This unique structure is ideal for studying sensory functions, including touch, pain, temperature, and proprioception.
Why not the other options?
Motor neurons : Multipolar neurons involved in transmitting motor commands from the CNS to muscles; they are not sensory neurons.
Bipolar neurons : Found in specialized sensory systems like the retina (vision) and olfactory epithelium (smell), but they are not the primary type for general sensory studies.
Multipolar neurons : Commonly found in the CNS and associated with motor or interneuron functions, not peripheral sensory input.
Interneurons : Multipolar neurons found in the CNS that connect sensory and motor pathways but are not involved in directly receiving sensory input.
Think about the glial cells specific to the peripheral nervous system that actively support axonal regeneration and remyelination.
58 / 99
Think about the brain wave patterns seen during deep sleep and how the same waves may appear in abnormal conditions like brain damage in awake individuals.
59 / 99
Focus on the metabolic needs of nerve fibers .
60 / 99
Focus on the body vs. face distinction for sensory input.
61 / 99
Focus on the indirect pathway , which involves the subthalamus increasing activity in the output nuclei of the basal ganglia to inhibit unwanted movements.
62 / 99
Category:
Neurosciences – Physiology
Which of the following nuclei of the basal ganglia receives input from the sub-thalamus via the indirect pathway?
In the indirect pathway of the basal ganglia, the subthalamic nucleus sends excitatory (glutamatergic) input to the globus pallidus internus (GPi) . The GPi is a critical output nucleus of the basal ganglia that projects inhibitory signals to the thalamus, helping regulate motor activity. The indirect pathway, through this excitatory input from the subthalamus, increases inhibitory output from the GPi to the thalamus, leading to suppression of unwanted motor movements.
Why not the other options?
Substantia nigra : While involved in the basal ganglia pathways (especially the direct pathway via the pars compacta), it does not directly receive input from the subthalamus in the indirect pathway.
Lentiform nucleus : This term refers collectively to the putamen and globus pallidus but does not specify the exact structure.
Caudate nucleus : Part of the input region of the basal ganglia, primarily receiving cortical inputs, not subthalamic input.
Putamen : An input structure of the basal ganglia, receiving cortical signals, but it does not receive direct input from the subthalamus in the indirect pathway.
Think about the term that describes the lack of coordination between different components of a movement , resulting in fragmented or jerky motor activity.
63 / 99
Focus on the part of the cerebellum that communicates with the cerebral cortex and is involved in higher-order motor planning, especially for skilled and complex movements .
64 / 99
Category:
Neurosciences – Physiology
Which of the following parts of the cerebellum is involved in the planning of sequential movements?
The lateral zone of the cerebellum, also known as the cerebrocerebellum , is involved in the planning and coordination of sequential movements , especially for skilled, voluntary, and fine motor activities. It communicates extensively with the cerebral cortex via the dentate nucleus and thalamus to plan motor actions before they are executed.
Why not the other options?
Spinocerebellum : Primarily involved in controlling muscle tone, coordination of ongoing movements, and posture. It does not handle planning but focuses on real-time motor adjustments.
Intermediate zone : Part of the spinocerebellum that regulates limb movement and ongoing motor adjustments rather than planning.
Flocculonodular lobe : Associated with balance, vestibular function, and eye movement control, not planning movements.
Vermis : Responsible for maintaining posture and coordination of the trunk and proximal limb movements, not sequential motor planning.
Think about the neurotransmitter from the Raphe nuclei that regulates mood and sleep and is involved in promoting NREM sleep.
65 / 99
Category:
Neurosciences – Physiology
Which of the following neurotransmitters is released by the Raphe neurons nerve endings is associated with the induction of sleep?
The Raphe nuclei , located in the brainstem, release serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine, or 5-HT) as their primary neurotransmitter. Serotonin plays a crucial role in regulating the sleep-wake cycle , particularly in the induction of sleep . It promotes the onset of non-rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep by acting on various serotonergic receptors in the brain, particularly in the hypothalamus and cortex.
Why not the other options?
Dopamine : Involved in wakefulness and arousal, not sleep induction. Elevated dopamine activity is associated with alertness.
Acetylcholine : Plays a role in REM sleep and cortical activation during wakefulness but is not primarily associated with initiating sleep.
Norepinephrine : Released by the locus coeruleus , it promotes arousal and wakefulness. Its activity decreases during sleep, particularly REM sleep.
GABA : While GABA is a key inhibitory neurotransmitter involved in sleep regulation, it is released by neurons in other brain regions (e.g., the ventrolateral preoptic nucleus), not the Raphe nuclei.
Try to remember that K complexes and sleep spindles are unique markers of a certain stage of sleep and play a role in transitioning from light to deeper stages of sleep.
66 / 99
Category:
Neurosciences – Physiology
A 55-year-old male presented to the neurology clinic with the complaint of excessive daytime sleepiness. He was advised to undergo a sleep study. Just after midnight, the lab technician notices the EEG wave showing K complexes and sleep spindles. Which of the following stages of sleep is the patient in at that moment?
The presence of K complexes and sleep spindles on an EEG is characteristic of Stage 2 (N2) of non-rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep . This stage represents light sleep and accounts for approximately 50% of the total sleep cycle in adults.
Sleep spindles : Short bursts of high-frequency (12-14 Hz) waves, thought to be involved in memory consolidation.
K complexes : Large, sharp waveforms followed by slower waves, which are believed to suppress cortical arousal and help in sleep maintenance.
Why not the other options?
Stage 3 (N3) of NREM sleep : This stage is deep sleep (slow-wave sleep) and is characterized by delta waves on the EEG, not K complexes or sleep spindles.
Stages 1-3 of NREM sleep : While N2 is part of NREM sleep, this broad answer does not specifically identify the stage where K complexes and spindles occur.
Stage 4 REM sleep : REM sleep is characterized by low-amplitude, mixed-frequency waves , rapid eye movements, and muscle atonia, without K complexes or sleep spindles.
Stage 1 (N1) of NREM sleep : This is the lightest sleep stage, characterized by theta waves , but it does not feature K complexes or sleep spindles.
Focus on a reflex response that becomes stronger after a period of suppression , as seen when inhibitory control is lifted.
67 / 99
Category:
Neurosciences – Physiology
During a study, the response of a particular reflex is inhibited for a while and then released suddenly, resulting in a response that is stronger than normal. This is known as which of the following properties of a reflex?
The rebound phenomenon refers to the exaggerated response of a reflex after a period of inhibition. When the inhibitory input is suddenly released, the reflex response becomes stronger than normal because the excitatory signals have been “unmasked.” This is often observed in conditions where inhibitory control, typically exerted by higher centers of the nervous system, is temporarily or permanently lost.
Why not the other options?
Central delay : Refers to the time delay between the arrival of the sensory input and the initiation of the motor output in a reflex arc, not the strengthening of a reflex after inhibition.
Habituation : A decrease in response to a repeated, non-threatening stimulus over time, which is the opposite of an exaggerated response.
Summation : Refers to the additive effect of multiple stimuli (temporal or spatial) to generate a stronger reflex response but does not involve prior inhibition.
Reciprocal innervation : Refers to the activation of one muscle group (agonist) and simultaneous inhibition of its antagonist, ensuring smooth movement, but it is unrelated to rebound effects.
Think about reflexes that involve both sides of the body and help maintain balance when a sudden withdrawal occurs.
68 / 99
Focus on factors directly affecting how fast a signal travels along the fiber, not how far it has to travel.
69 / 99
Think of the midline suture running between the two parietal bones, forming the “roof” of the skull.
70 / 99
Focus on the C-shaped structure that runs along the lateral ventricle and is separated from the lentiform nucleus by the internal capsule.
71 / 99
Focus on the medial-to-lateral organization of the cerebellar nuclei. The fastigial nucleus is closest to the midline, near the vermis.
72 / 99
Remember that the spinothalamic tracts cross over near their entry point in the spinal cord. So, an injury to the left side affects pain and temperature on the opposite side .
73 / 99
Think about the medial surface of the brain and the artery (ACA) supplying it. Consider which areas control the lower limbs , as this region is typically involved in infarctions affecting the medial cerebral hemispheres.
74 / 99
Think about the structure connecting the third and fourth ventricles in the midbrain. Obstruction here would cause hydrocephalus affecting the ventricles upstream.
75 / 99
Category:
NeuroSciences – Anatomy
A neonate is diagnosed with obstructive hydrocephalus. The parents were counseled and told that this condition is due to the blockage of a conduit between two ventricles of the brain. Which of the following is the most likely conduit obstructed in this case? – 2023
The Aqueduct of Sylvius (also known as the cerebral aqueduct ) is the narrow conduit that connects the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle in the midbrain. It is a common site of obstruction in cases of obstructive hydrocephalus , especially in neonates. When the aqueduct is blocked, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) cannot flow from the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle, causing dilation of the lateral ventricles and third ventricle , while the fourth ventricle remains normal or collapsed.
This type of hydrocephalus is often associated with congenital conditions like aqueductal stenosis or may result from infection, hemorrhage, or tumors.
Why not the other options?
Foramen of Monro : This connects the lateral ventricles to the third ventricle . Obstruction here would cause dilation of only the lateral ventricles, not the third ventricle.
Foramen of Magendie : This is the median aperture of the fourth ventricle, allowing CSF to enter the subarachnoid space. Obstruction here would affect the fourth ventricle and subarachnoid space, not the third and lateral ventricles.
Foramen of Luschka : These are the paired lateral apertures of the fourth ventricle. Similar to the foramen of Magendie, obstruction would affect CSF flow into the subarachnoid space, not between the third and fourth ventricles.
Paired foramen of Luschka : Same as above—this option is redundant.
Think about which cranial nerve nucleus controls pupil constriction and its vulnerability in conditions like diabetes, where parasympathetic fibers may be affected without impairing motor function.
76 / 99
Category:
NeuroSciences – Anatomy
A diabetic patient is observed to have mydriasis while undergoing an examination in an ophthalmology clinic. All other eye movements are normal. The nerve most likely affected in this case arises from which of the following brain stem nuclei? – 2023
The Edinger-Westphal nucleus is the parasympathetic nucleus associated with the oculomotor nerve (CN III) . It is responsible for the pupillary constriction (miosis) and lens accommodation by sending parasympathetic fibers to the sphincter pupillae and ciliary muscles via the ciliary ganglion .
In this case:
Mydriasis (dilated pupil) occurs due to damage to the parasympathetic fibers originating from the Edinger-Westphal nucleus.
Normal eye movements indicate that the motor fibers of CN III, which control most of the extraocular muscles, are intact, but the parasympathetic fibers are selectively affected.
This selective involvement is common in diabetic neuropathy because the parasympathetic fibers are more superficial and vulnerable to ischemic damage.
Why not the other options?
Superior salivatory nucleus : Parasympathetic nucleus for the facial nerve (CN VII) , involved in lacrimation and salivation, not pupil control.
Nucleus Ambiguus : Motor nucleus for CN IX, X, and XI , involved in swallowing, phonation, and parasympathetic control of the heart, not the eye.
Motor nucleus of CN III : Controls extraocular muscles but does not contribute to parasympathetic innervation; eye movements are normal in this case.
Spinal nucleus of CN V : Involved in sensory processing (pain and temperature) for the face, unrelated to pupil size or eye movements.
Focus on the bones forming the boundaries of the anterior cranial fossa . Consider the sphenoid bone’s unique contributions to different regions of the cranial cavity.
77 / 99
Think about the location of the largest fontanelle in the newborn’s skull. It lies at the junction of the coronal and sagittal sutures on the top of the head.
78 / 99
Think about the cranial nerve responsible for the sense of smell and the bone that separates the nasal cavity from the cranial cavity. Which cranial nerve would pass through this structure?
79 / 99
Category:
NeuroSciences – Anatomy
A 24-year-old patient presents to the emergency department after a road accident with complaints of headache, nausea, vomiting & an altered level of consciousness. An X-ray of the skull reveals a fracture of the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone. Which of the following cranial nerves passes through the foramina of this fractured bone? – 2023
The cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone contains small foramina through which the olfactory nerve fibers (CN I) pass. These fibers arise from the olfactory epithelium in the nasal cavity, traverse the cribriform plate, and synapse in the olfactory bulb located on the superior surface of the bone. A fracture of the cribriform plate can result in damage to these nerves, causing anosmia (loss of the sense of smell) and may allow the leakage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), leading to rhinorrhea .
Why not the other options?
CN II (Optic nerve): Passes through the optic canal , not the cribriform plate.
CN III (Oculomotor nerve): Passes through the superior orbital fissure , not the cribriform plate.
CN IV (Trochlear nerve): Also passes through the superior orbital fissure .
CN V (Trigeminal nerve): Different divisions of the trigeminal nerve pass through the superior orbital fissure (V1), foramen rotundum (V2), and foramen ovale (V3) , none of which involve the cribriform plate.
Think about which cranial nerve provides parasympathetic innervation to the lungs. Trace its origin back to its brainstem nucleus.
80 / 99
Category:
NeuroSciences – Anatomy
A parasympathetic nerve arising from the brainstem influences the lungs. The cell body of this nerve lies in which of the following nuclei?
The dorsal nucleus of the vagus nerve (cranial nerve X) is the parasympathetic nucleus located in the brainstem, specifically in the medulla. It is responsible for providing parasympathetic innervation to many visceral organs, including the lungs , heart, and gastrointestinal tract. This parasympathetic input regulates bronchoconstriction, secretion of mucus, and other autonomic functions of the lungs.
Why not the other options?
Inferior salivatory nucleus : Provides parasympathetic innervation via the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) to the parotid gland, not the lungs.
Superior salivatory nucleus : Provides parasympathetic fibers via the facial nerve (CN VII) to the lacrimal gland, submandibular gland, and sublingual gland.
Lacrimatory nucleus : Part of the superior salivatory nucleus involved in tear production via the facial nerve, not lung innervation.
Edinger-Westphal nucleus : Provides parasympathetic fibers via the oculomotor nerve (CN III) for pupillary constriction and lens accommodation, unrelated to the lungs.
Focus on the dorsal column system when you see discriminative touch, vibration, or proprioception. The fasciculus gracilis handles input from the lower limbs , and the medial lemniscus continues this pathway to the brain.
81 / 99
Category:
NeuroSciences – Anatomy
The sensation of discriminative touch, vibratory sense, and conscious muscle joint proprioception of the lower limbs passes from the posterior root ganglia to the postcentral gyrus through which of the following pathways? – 2023
The sensation of discriminative touch , vibration , and conscious proprioception from the lower limbs is carried by the dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway . The pathway works as follows:
First-order neurons : The sensory information from the lower limbs enters the spinal cord via the posterior root ganglia . These fibers ascend in the fasciculus gracilis , which specifically carries sensations from the lower half of the body (below T6).
Second-order neurons : In the medulla oblongata, the fibers synapse in the nucleus gracilis . From here, the axons cross (decussate) to the opposite side and form the medial lemniscus .
Third-order neurons : The medial lemniscus fibers synapse in the ventral posterolateral (VPL) nucleus of the thalamus. From the thalamus, projections go to the postcentral gyrus (primary somatosensory cortex) via the posterior limb of the internal capsule .
Why not the other options?
Lateral spinothalamic and spinal lemniscus pathway : The lateral spinothalamic tract carries pain and temperature, not discriminative touch or proprioception.
Anterior spinothalamic and spinal lemniscus pathway : The anterior spinothalamic tract carries crude touch and pressure, not discriminative touch.
Fasciculus gracilis and spinal lemniscus pathway : The spinal lemniscus refers to spinothalamic tracts, which carry pain and temperature, not proprioception or vibration.
Lateral spinothalamic and medial lemniscus pathway : The lateral spinothalamic tract does not carry discriminative touch, vibration, or proprioception.
When you see bilateral sensory and motor deficits below the lesion , think about complete disruption of the spinal cord. Pay attention to whether both ascending and descending tracts are involved.
82 / 99
Category:
NeuroSciences – Anatomy
A 53-year-old patient was brought to the emergency department after a fall. MRI scan reveals a slipped disc at the L3 level. Neurological examination shows that the patient has a bilateral loss of pain, temperature, and light touch sensation below the level of the lesion, bilateral lower motor neuron paralysis in the segment of the lesion, and bilateral spastic paralysis below the level of the lesion. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case? – 2023
The clinical findings in this patient suggest a complete cord transection syndrome . The key features include:
Bilateral loss of pain, temperature, and light touch sensation below the level of the lesion : This indicates disruption of the spinothalamic tracts on both sides.
Bilateral lower motor neuron (LMN) paralysis at the level of the lesion : This results from damage to the anterior horn cells at the level of the lesion.
Bilateral spastic paralysis below the level of the lesion : This is due to disruption of the corticospinal tracts , leading to upper motor neuron (UMN) signs below the lesion.
These findings are consistent with a complete transection of the spinal cord, which interrupts all ascending and descending tracts.
Why not the other options?
Syringomyelia : Typically causes a cape-like loss of pain and temperature sensation due to damage to the anterior commissure, but it spares light touch and motor function in early stages.
Anterior cord syndrome : Involves loss of pain and temperature sensation and motor paralysis below the lesion but spares dorsal column sensations (proprioception and vibration).
Brown-Séquard syndrome : A hemisection of the cord would result in ipsilateral motor and proprioceptive loss and contralateral pain and temperature loss below the lesion, not bilateral findings.
Central cord syndrome : Affects the cervical cord , typically leading to greater weakness in the upper limbs than the lower limbs, without complete bilateral deficits.
Focus on the location of the tumor (midbrain) and the pathway of CSF. Think about which structure in the midbrain could block the flow from the third to the fourth ventricle.
83 / 99
Think about the pathway of the fornix and the portion that curves anteriorly near the ventricles to connect with the diencephalon structures.
84 / 99
Focus on the side of the body with symptoms and remember that motor pathways cross over. The contralateral substantia nigra will show more prominent early degeneration.
85 / 99
Think about the location of sympathetic ganglia relative to the target organs. Sympathetic fibers must often travel long distances to reach their effectors.
86 / 99
Focus on the connection between the pons and the cerebellum . Damage in this region is likely to disrupt pathways that facilitate motor coordination, not autonomic or sensory functions.
87 / 99
Think about the structure most commonly associated with memory processing and learning. It is part of the limbic system and is critical for creating lasting memories.
88 / 99
Focus on the distinction between short association fibers (connecting nearby gyri) and long association fibers (connecting distant areas within the same hemisphere). Pay attention to the size and connections of these fibers.
89 / 99
Think about the arteries that form a “ring” at the base of the brain. Focus on whether the artery contributes to the circular structure or branches off to supply other regions directly.
90 / 99
Focus on the anatomical origin of the cranial nerves. Does the nerve in question arise from the brainstem or elsewhere in the nervous system? Remember, the first two cranial nerves (olfactory and optic) bypass the brainstem.
91 / 99
Consider whether the vein is superficial or deep. The superior sagittal sinus primarily collects blood from superficial veins on the brain’s convexity, not deep or basal structures.
92 / 99
Think about the location of the sinuses. The cavernous sinus is located around the sella turcica and primarily drains the orbit and nearby regions. Is the sinus in question near this area, or does it lie elsewhere in the cranial cavity?
93 / 99
Focus on the structure that is part of the brainstem and lies between the diencephalon and pons.
94 / 99
Category:
Neurosciences – Embryology
During the 5th week of development, five brain swellings appear. These include the telencephalon, diencephalon, mesencephalon, metencephalon, and myelencephalon. The mesencephalon gives rise to which of the following structures? – 2023
The mesencephalon is one of the five secondary brain vesicles that develop during the 5th week of embryogenesis. It remains undivided and develops into the midbrain in the adult brain. The midbrain includes structures such as:
Tectum (superior and inferior colliculi, involved in visual and auditory reflexes)
Tegmentum (containing nuclei like the red nucleus and substantia nigra)
Cerebral peduncles (important for motor signal transmission)
The mesencephalon is part of the brainstem , located between the diencephalon and the pons.
Why not the other options?
Cerebellum : Develops from the metencephalon , not the mesencephalon.
Pons : Develops from the metencephalon , not the mesencephalon.
Medulla : Develops from the myelencephalon , not the mesencephalon.
Cerebrum : Develops from the telencephalon , not the mesencephalon.
Think about which layer of the developing spinal cord evolves into gray matter , where the neuronal cell bodies are located.
95 / 99
Focus on the layer where dendrites of Purkinje cells branch extensively and interact with parallel fibers and interneurons.
96 / 99
Focus on the output neurons of the cerebellar cortex and the type of interneurons that regulate their activity by targeting the soma.
97 / 99
Focus on the embryological organization of the neural tube. The dorsal part is associated with sensory processing, while the ventral part relates to motor control. Which embryological structure matches this description?
98 / 99
The name of the enzyme signifies its function.
99 / 99
Category:
Neurosciences – Biochemistry
Which of the following key enzymes is required for the synthesis of acetylcholine? – 2023
Acetylcholine is synthesized in cholinergic neurons by the enzyme choline acetyltransferase (ChAT). This enzyme catalyzes the transfer of an acetyl group from acetyl-CoA to choline , forming acetylcholine. Acetyl-CoA is produced in the mitochondria, while choline is taken up by the neuron through a high-affinity choline transporter. This reaction occurs in the cytoplasm of the presynaptic neuron, and the synthesized acetylcholine is then stored in vesicles for release into the synaptic cleft during neurotransmission.
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